河北省廊坊市安次区第十八中学2023-2024学年八年级上学期期末考试英语试题
展开本试卷共8页。总分120分,考试时间120分钟。
听力部分
Ⅰ. 听句子,选出句子中所包含的信息。(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
( ) 1. A. an examB. a lessnC. an actin
( ) 2. A. take upB. turn nC. cut dwn
( ) 3. A. a beautiful cverB. a simple stryC. a difficult article
( ) 4. A. My brther is funny.B. My brther is quiet.C. My brther is serius.
( ) 5. A. The speaker is at a party.
B. The speaker is asking fr help.
C. The speaker is making an invitatin
Ⅱ. 听句子,选出该句的最佳答语。(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
( ) 6. A. I dn’t mind them.B. Have a gd time.C. Sunds like fun.
( ) 7. A. Sure. I’d lve t.B. Well, I dn’t think s.C. Me, t. Let’s wrk hard.
( ) 8. A. Yes, gd idea.B. OK, I wn’t.C. Dn’t say that.
( ) 9. A. N. thanks.B. Yes, I hpe s.C. Yes, I went climbing.
( ) 10. A. Srry, I can’t. I…B. N, I’m nt free. I…C. I can never g. I…
Ⅲ. 听对话和问题,选择正确答案。(共8小题;每小题1分,满分8分)
( ) 11. What will Helen prbably d?
A. B. C.
( ) 12. What des the man need t d?
A. B. C.
( ) 13. Hw lng will the camping be?
A. Five days.B. Seven days.C. Ten days.
( ) 14. What is Tina ging t d?
A. G campingB. Visit her grandparents.C. Prepare a dinner.
( ) 15. What des Tina ask Jack t send her?
A. Best wishes.B. Sme phts.C. A birthday card.
( ) 16. Where are the speakers?
A. In the library.B. In the park.C. In a museum.
~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~
( ) 17. Which card des the girl need t have?
A. The student card.B. The library card.C. The ID card.
( ) 18. What’s the last thing the girl shuld remember?
A. Be careful.B. Be n time.C. Be quiet.
Ⅳ. 听短文和问题,选择正确答案。(共7小题;每小题1分,满分7分)
( ) 19. What will Tina add in the kitchen?
A. An ven.B. A cffee table.C. Sme drinks.
( ) 20. Why des Tina want t buy a player?
A. T learn English.B. T have parties.C. T make a nice rm.
( ) 21. What is Tina talking abut?
A. Her plans fr the huse.B. Her family in the future.C. Her activities at hme.
~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~
( ) 22. What des Michael prepare fr Je?
A. Tickets.B. Sandwiches.C. A cake.
( ) 23. When will the welcme party start?
A. At 10:30.B. At 11:00.C. At 11:30.
( ) 24. What will they d in the afternn?
A. Watch a sccer game.B. Watch a mvie.C. Play a ball game.
( ) 25. Hw will Michael g t the party?
A. By bike.B. By taxi.C. By subway.
Ⅴ. 听短文填空。(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
笔试部分
Ⅵ. 单项选择。(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
( ) 31. I wuld like sme cffee ________ nthing in it.
A. frB. withC. inD. at
( ) 32. —Will it be cld tmrrw?
—Yes, kind f. The ________ is nly -8℃.
A. envirnmentB. pllutinC. reprtD. temperature
( ) 33. N ne will be successful ________ he puts his heart int his wrk.
A. whenB. becauseC. unlessD. althugh
( ) 34. Dn’t meet an “nline friend” by yurself, r ________ may happen.
A. smething dangerusB. dangerus smething
C. anything dangerusD. dangerus anything
( ) 35. I think Nick will win the race. He runs ________ f all the players.
A. fasterB. fastestC. mre slwlyD. mst slwly
( ) 36. Watching English mvies is a gd way ________ my English
A. imprveB. imprvingC. imprvedD. t imprve
( ) 37. —Can yu make breakfast fr yurself?
—Of curse. I am ld enugh t ________ myself.
A. lk frB. lk afterC. bring utD. care abut
( ) 38. Tm, ________ three bananas fr me, I’m busy washing the blender.
A. peelB. peelsC. peeledD. will peel
( ) 39. —What did the dentist say?
—He ________ me t brush teeth twice a day.
A. advisesB. will adviseC. advisedD. is advising
( ) 40. —We ________ t Hng Kng. Tny.
—What a cl plan! I lve the city.
A. didn’t travelB. traveledC. wn’t travelD. will travel
Ⅶ. 完形填空。(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)阅读下面短文,从各小题所给的四个进项中选出最佳选项。
My father was always strict with me. S I was afraid f him until the day ne small thing happened.
It was in January and there was ging t be a 41 in my schl. We wuld share delicius fd and drinks with each ther. Als, we culd wear beautiful and funny clthes, s we felt 42 . Our teacher brught us the clthes and I 43 a clwn (小丑) dress. I thught my father wuld nt agree with me, s I wanted t have a 44 with him after I gt hme. When I tld him what I wanted t wear, he 45 and tld me. “I will be angry if yu g t the party in that dress.” But my mther helped me. She thught abut gd ideas fr my party. After my father went t wrk, I 46 like a clwn and went t the party.
That evening, my father asked me what I did 47 the party. I shwed him the phts and he lked at them 48 fr a lng time. I thught he wuld be 49 . Hwever, he laughed and said, “It’s s funny! Yu lk 50 in that dress.”
In fact, he was als a kind father! He didn’t want me t d smething because he cared abut me.
( ) 41. A. partyB. meetingC. cmpetitinD. exam
( ) 42. A. bredB. excitedC. upsetD. afraid
( ) 43. A. madeB. servedC. wreD. chse
( ) 44. A. walkB. discussinC. jkeD. relatinship
( ) 45. A. disagreedB. expectedC. laughedD. prmised
( ) 46. A. grew upB. fell dwnC. dressed upD. wke up
( ) 47. A. duringB. befreC. afterD. frm
( ) 48. A. quicklyB. simplyC. clearlyD. carefully
( ) 49. A. adB. gladC. angryD. surprised
( ) 50. A. less beautifulB. mre lvelyC. less funnyD. mre serius
Ⅷ. 阅读理解。(共15小题;每小题2分,满分30分)阅读A、B、C、D四篇材料,然后从各小题所给的四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
The fllwing is the result abut the English cmpetitin. Find sme useful infrmatin t answer the questins belw.
( ) 51. Grup 1 spke as ________ as Grup 4.
A. clearlyB. ludlyC. freelyD. quickly
( ) 52. What can we learn abut Grup 2 and Grup 3?
A. Grup 2 has the best teamwrk.B. Grup 2 did best in 3 items.
C. Grup 3 did best in Item 3 and 6.D. Grup 3 gt the highest average.
B
D yu ften eat ut fr meals? China’s first AI canteen (食堂) withut any waiter and ck pened in Shanghai. The canteen has all the eight great fds f China, and mre than 30 kinds f breakfast fr peple t chse. The rbts in the canteen will serve yu. They are s smart that they can make lt f tasty fd. After cking, the rbts put the fd int bxes. Peple can eat the fd there and they can als take the fd away.
Hw can peple ▲ the fd in the AI canteen? What peple have t d is t place their fd n a smart desk and the cmputer will tell them the price f the meal. Peple can pay it in many ways, such as bank card, phne and paper mney.
At the canteen’s fd areas (区域), peple can find different kinds f fds fr their meals. Fr example, if peple like spicy (辣的) fd, they can g t the Sichuan fd area. If peple like sweets (甜食), they can g t the Guangdng fd area. Many peple say that they have mre free time because f the AI canteen. They can enjy the tasty fd and then g t wrk. S mre and mre peple like t g t the AI canteen fr meals
( ) 53. Wh will serve peple in the AI canteen?
A. Waiters.B. Cks.C. Rbts.D. The canteen wner.
( ) 54. Which f the fllwing is the best n ▲ ?
A. ask frB. pay frC. turn dwnD. find ut
( ) 55. Hw d many peple like the canteen?
A. They like it.B. They dislike it.
C. They dn’t mind it.D. They can’t stand it.
( ) 56. What’s the best title fr the text?
A. Traditinal Fd in ChinaB. The Ppular Fd in China
C. The First AI Canteen in ChinaD. The First Rbt in China’s Canteen
C
Dan, the fd expert, answers teenagers’ questins.
Marcel: I never eat any meat r fish. My friends say I can’t get enugh prtein (蛋白质) frm my fds. Is this true?
Dan: That’s a gd questin. Marcel. Prtein is very imprtant. It gives yu strength (力气). There’s prtein in meat and fish, but if yu dn’t eat them, dn’t wrry. There’s als prtein in eggs, milk, nuts and beans.
Jenny:I lve candy, chclate and ice-cream. Is this a prblem?
Dan:I like thse things t, Jenny. But there are a lt f carbhydrates (碳水化合物), sugar and fat in sweet fds, s I nly eat them nce a week. Carbhydrates aren’t always bad fr yu. Yu need them fr energy (能量). But a lt f sugar and fat is bad fr yu.
Isabel:I knw fruit has lts f vitamins (维生素), but I just dn’t like any fruit! What can I d?
Dan:Vitamins help yur bdy wrk well. It’s true that fruit is rich in vitamins, but they are als in fds like vegetables, fish and meat. Yu can als try a smthie. Put sme bananas, apples, strawberries and ygurt with sme range juice in a blender. It’s great!
( ) 57. What des Dan advise Marcel t eat?
A. Eggs.B. Meat.C. Fish.D. Fruit
( ) 58. What can Jenny learn frm Dan?
A. Carbhydrates are in all fds.B. Carbhydrates are always gd.
C. She can eat much sugar and fat.D. Carbhydrates can give her energy.
( ) 59. What des Isabel wrry abut?
A. She desn’t get enugh vitamins. B. She gets t much prtein.
C. She eats t many carbhydrates.D. She desn’t eat enugh vegetables.
( ) 60. What might the underlined wrd “smthie” be?
A. A kind f meat.B. A kind f fruit.
C. A kind f drink.D. A kind f medicine.
D
Aunt Sara is a clever wman. If yu have a prblem, yu can always ask her fr advice. She usually tells a stry t shw her idea.
This summer, I wanted t find a jb s that I culd make sme mney fr the cming schl year. Hwever, I spent lng nights playing utside with friends. By the time I began t lk fr jbs, ther students had taken all f them. I didn’t find any summer jb. I spent a lng and bring summer.
When Aunt Sara heard abut this, she tld me a stry. There were three fish living in a river. They were “Make Plans”, “Fast Thinker”, and “Wait and See”. One day, they heard a fisherman saying that he wuld cast a net (撒网) int the river the next mrning. Make Plans decided t swim up river s it wuldn’t get int danger. Fast Thinker was nt wrried. He said, “I will have a plan when the man casts his net.” Wait and See was nt wrried, either. “I will decide what t d tmrrw mrning.” he said.
The next mrning, the fisherman cast his net. By this time, Make Plans was far away, and the fisherman caught the ther tw fish. Fast Thinker pretended (假装) t be dead (死亡的). Of curse, the fisherman did nt want a dead fish, s he left him in the river. He tk away Wait and See and sld it in the market.
( ) 61. Hw des Aunt Sara usually shw her idea?
A. By giving a saying.B. By telling a stry.
C. By shwing a fact.D. By asking a questin.
( ) 62. Why didn’t the writer get a jb this summer?
A. He was t late t lk fr ne. B. He was busy with schlwrk.
C. He spent all summer with friends.D. He wasn’t able t d well in it.
( ) 63. What did Make Plans decide t d?
A. Have a fight with the man.
B. Decide what t d the next mrning.
C. Have a plan when the man cast the net.
D. Swim up river befre the man cast the net.
( ) 64. What happened in the end?
A. Wait and See died in the net.B. The fisherman sld Wait and See.
C. The fisherman caught Make Plans.D. Fast Thinker swam away frm the net.
( ) 65. What idea did Aunt Sara want the writer t get?
A. One shuld think and wait.B. One shuld wait befre ding.
C. One shuld make plans earlier.D. One shuld be far away frm danger.
Ⅸ. 任务型阅读。(共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分)
阅读下面短文,按要求完成66~70题。
Believe it r nt, my friends ften cme first in my heart because I want t make them happy.
When anyne asks me fr help, I always say “Yes!” “Can yu help me with English practice, Anna?” Grace asked me n the first day after she became my deskmate. “Of curse,” I replied withut thinking. Grace was wrking really hard n her studies and she needed my help thugh I didn’t have much time fr her.
One day after schl, when I was ding lts f hmewrk. I gt a phne call frm Grace. She cmplained (抱怨) a lt and it made me feel bred, but I still felt bad abut saying n. When Grace ended the call, it was 00:15 am. But I still had much hmewrk t d. This was bad fr me, a middle schl student in Grade Three.
Finally I began t cry. I felt s tired. I tried t get myself ut. Studying is mre imprtant than ther thing, s Grace has t cme secnd. It’s nw imprtant fr me t say n, n, n.
“Can yu give me a hand, Anna?” asked Grace. “Srry… I just have t study fr my math test,” I answered. “All right, it’s up t yu,” she said. I felt relaxed when I heard her reply.
I feel much happier nw after I learn t refuse. I still try my best t help thers, but smetimes I say n because I knw everyne has a limit (限度).
66~68题完成句子:69、70题简略回答问题。
66. Anna’s _____________________ are imprtant in her heart and she wants t make them happy.
67. Anna helped Grace with her English thugh she didn’t have _____________________.
68. The phne call frm Grace didn’t end until _____________________.
69. What did Anna realize (意识到) after crying?(列举一点即可)
____________________________________________________________________________________
70. What helps Anna feel much happier nw?
____________________________________________________________________________________
Ⅹ. 词语运用。(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)
阅读下面短文,在空白处填入一个适当的单词(有提示词的,填入所给单词的正确形式)。
Nell sat up in bed. She heard a sund cming frm the kitchen. Dad was singing 71.__________ (he) favrite sng. Nell jumped ut f bed. “Tday is pancake day!” she said. Nell gt dressed 72.__________ ran t the kitchen. She knew 73.__________ was much wrk t d. “Dad 74.__________ (want) me t help,” she said t herself.
Dad let Nell help make the pancake batter (面糊). She pured milk int the bwl and 75.__________ (break) an egg. Then Dad mixed all the things tgether. 76.__________ (final), the batter was ready. Dad pured it n a plate. After a few 77.__________ (minute), Nell called Dad t turn the pancake ver and ck 78.__________ ther side. Sn the pancake became brwn and was ready t be n the table.
Nell fund it 79.__________ (interest) t be Dad’s little helper. Frm then n, she decided t help parents 80.__________ mre husewrk.
Ⅺ. 基础写作。(包括A、B两部分;A部分5分,B部分15分,共20分)
A) 连词成句。(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
将所给词语连成句子,要求符合语法,语句通顺,大小写正确,词语不得重复使用。句末标点已给出。
81. a, idea, that, gd, sunds like
______________________________________________________________________________________.
82. will, in, what, the future, happen
______________________________________________________________________________________?
83. I, with, filled, sme water, the hle
______________________________________________________________________________________.
84. a, gt, his mther, new wallet, him
______________________________________________________________________________________.
85. need, if, me, yu, let, knw, any help
______________________________________________________________________________________.
B) 书面表达。(满分15分)
86. 汤姆邀请查克这周六去他家做客,但杰克那天没空,因此不能赴约。假如你是杰克,请根据下面提示写一封信给汤姆,说明你不能赴约的原因。
提示:study fr a test;have a pian lessn;g t the mvies
要求:(1) 提示内容仅供参考;
(2) 词数70个左右。开头和结尾已给出,不计入总词数。
Hi Tm,
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
Best wishes.
Yurs,
Jack
河北省2023—2024学年八年级第一学期期末考试
英语(人教版)听力部分
第一题:听句子,选出句子中所包含的信息。下面你将听到五个句子,每个句子读两遍。请你听完句子的第二遍朗读后,从各小题所给出的A、B、C三个选项中,选出包含所听信息的选项。
N.1. We are taking an imprtant exam.
N.2. Let’s turn the blender n t make juice.
N.3. The article is t difficult t read.
N.4. My brther always makes peple laugh a lt.
N.5. Can yu cme t my party n Sunday?
第二题:听句子,选出该句的最佳答语。下面你将听到五个句子,每个句子读两遍。请你听完句子的第二遍朗读后,从各小题所
给出的A、B、C三个选项中,选出该句的最佳答语。
N. 6. What d yu think f cartns?
N. 7. I hpe t get better grades this time.
N. 8. Dn’t frget t add sme salt, Sam.
N. 9. Did yu have fun last weekend?
N. 10. Which is the best way t turn dwn an invitatin?
第三题:听对话和问题,选择正确答案。下面你将听到四组对话和八个问题,每组对话和问题读两遍。请你听完对话和问题的第二遍朗读后,从各小题所给出的A、B、C三个选项中,选出正确答案。
请听第一组对话,回答第11题。
M: What a lvely day! Let’s hang ut, Helen.
W: Sunds great! But I prmised Tara t g t the theater.
M: All right. Maybe anther time.
Questin N. 11. What will Helen prbably d?
请听第二组对话,回答第12题。
M: My dear, I’m hungry.
W: OK, I will make beef ndles fr dinner.
M: That sunds gd. Need any help?
W: Yes, cut the beef int pieces, please.
Questin N. 12. What des the man need t d?
请听第三组对话,回答第13至15题。
W: Hi, Jack!
M: Hey, Tina! I will jin a 5-day camping prgram. Will yu cme?
W: Srry. But I have t stay with my grandparents fr a week.
M: Oh, why?
W: I am ging t celebrate my grandpa’s 70th birthday.
M: Ww! That will be a great day.
W: Yes. My family are preparing a big surprise fr him.
M: Cl! Send my best wishes.
W: Thanks. Remember t send me phts abut yur camping.
M: Sure, I will.
Questin N. 13. Hw lng will the camping be?
Questin N. 14. What is Tina ging t d?
Questin N. 15. What des Tina ask Jack t send her?
请听第四组对话,回答第16至18题。
W: Excuse me, I’m new here. Culd yu tell me hw t take a bk away frm the library?
M: Of curse. First, buy a library card at the service windw.
W: Can I use my student card?
M: N. Then, find the bk yu need.
W: OK. What’s the next?
M: Then shw me yur library card and the bk, and I’ll d it fr yu.
W: Great. Is that all?
M: Oh, there is the last thing I need t tell yu.
W: What is it?
M: Keep quiet in the library.
W: OK.
Questin N. 16. Where are the speakers?
Questin N. 17. Which card des the girl need t have?
Questin N. 18. What’s the last thing the girl shuld remember?
第四题:听短文和问题,选择正确答案。下面你将听到两篇短文和七个问题,短文和问题读两遍。请你听完短文和问题的第二遍朗读后,根据所听内容,从各小题所给出的A、B、C三个选项中,选出正确答案。
请听第一篇短文,回答第19至21题。
I’m Tina. I have sme plans fr my huse fr the new year. First, I’ll add an ven in the kitchen. Next, I want t put a large cffee table in the living rm, s I can put magazines and drinks n it. Then, I’ll buy a music player. I have parties nce a mnth at hme, s it’s necessary. Finally, I’ll plant sme flwers t make a nice rm and make the rm air fresh.
Questin N. 19. What will Tina add in the kitchen?
Questin N. 20. Why des Tina want t buy a player?
Questin N. 21. What is Tina talking abut?
请听第二篇短文,回答第22至25题。
Hi, I’m Michael. It’s half past ten in the mrning. I’m making sandwiches at hme. I’m ging t give them t my best friend Je. There is a welcme party fr him tday. The party will start at half past eleven. I hpe he will like my sandwiches. Je lves sccer very much. And he prepared sme tickets t the sccer game fr this afternn. After the party, we will g t watch a wnderful sccer game tgether. Oh, my sandwiches are OK nw. I’m ging t ride t his huse fr the party. Oh, n! I’m afraid I have t take a taxi, r I will be late. Gdbye!
Questin N. 22. What des Michael prepare fr Je?
Questin N. 23. When will the welcme party start?
Questin N. 24. What will they d in the afternn?
Questin N. 25. Hw will Michael g t the party?
第五题:听短文填空。下面你将听到一篇短文,短文读两遍。请你听完短文的第二遍朗读后,根据短文的内容和提示,在信息表中相应的横线上填入所缺信息。
I’m Jerme. I’m 66 years ld and live a healthy life. On Mndays I g t the health club n ft, thugh it’s far away frm my hme. On Tuesdays I g swimming after playing vlleyball n the beach. I play basketball with my friends n Wednesdays. We’ll have a basketball cmpetitin next Wednesday. On Thursdays and Fridays, I teach sme kids t play ping-png in the sprts club. I dn’t exercise n weekends. I keep tw birds, and I might walk them in the frest. I never eat junk fd r stay up late. My dream is t g bike riding t Tibet ne day.
参考答案与评分标准
Ⅰ. 1—5 ABCAC Ⅱ. 6—10 ACBCA Ⅲ. 11—15 BAABB 16—18 ABC Ⅳ. 19—21 ABA 22—25 BCAB
评分标准:1. 1—25小题,每小题1分,满分25分。2. 凡与答案不符者不得分。
Ⅴ. 26. 66 27. health 28. kids 29. birds 30. stay up
评分标准:1. 每小题1分,满分5分。2. 凡与答案不符,但所填信息与答案意思相同且与题目要求相符者,可酌情给分。
Ⅵ. 31—35 BDCAB 36—40 DBACD Ⅶ. 41—45 ABDBA 46—50 CADCB
Ⅷ. 51—52 AD 53—56 CBAC 57—60 ADAC 61—65 BADBC
评分标准:1. 31—50小题,每小题1分,满分20分;51—65小题,每小题2分,满分30分。2. 凡与答案不符者不得分。
Ⅸ. 66. friends 67. much time (fr her) 68. (it was) 00:15 a.m.
69. Studying is mre imprtant than ther things, (s Grace has t cme secnd). /It’s nw imprtant fr her t say n.
70. She learns t refuse./ Learning t refuse./T learn t refuse.
评分标准:1. 每小题2分,满分10分。2. 凡与答案不符,但所填内容与答案意思相近且与题目要求相符者,可酌情给分。有关语法及拼写(包括大小写)等错误酌情减分。
Ⅹ. 71. his 72. and 73. there 74. wants 75. brke 76. Finally 77. minutes 78. the 79. interesting 80. with/d
评分标准:1. 每小题1分,满分10分。2. 凡与答案不符,但所填词语与题目要求相符者,可酌情给分。
Ⅺ. A) 81. That sunds like a gd idea. 82. What will happen in the future? 83. I filled the hle with sme water.
84. His mther gt him a new wallet. 85. Let me knw if yu need any help. / If yu need any help, let me knw.
评分标准:1. 每小题1分,满分5分。2. 凡语序与答案相符,但出现句子首字母不大写等错误,酌情给分。
B) 86. One pssible versin:
Hi Tm,
Thanks fr inviting me t g t yur hme this Saturday. I’d lve t g, but I’m s srry that I can’t visit yu. I’m nt available this Saturday. On Saturday mrning, I have t study fr a test. In the afternn, I have a pian lessn. In the evening, my family and I are ging t the mvies. As yu can see, I will be really busy. Maybe I can g next time.
Best wishes.
Yurs,
Jack
一、评分原则
1. 本题总分为15分,按五个档次给分。
2. 评分时,先根据短文的内容要点初步确定其所属档次,然后以该档次的语言要求来衡量、确定或调整档次,最后给分。
3. 短文中若出现真实的人名、校名或地名,酌情减分。
二、评分标准
三、说明
1. 内容要点可以用不同方式表达。 2. 相同的错误不重复计算。
题号
Ⅰ
Ⅱ
Ⅲ
Ⅳ
Ⅴ
Ⅵ
Ⅶ
Ⅷ
Ⅸ
Ⅹ
Ⅺ
A
B
C
D
A)
B)
得分
Infrmatin Sheet
Name:Jerme
Age:26.__________ years ld
Activities:27. n Mndays, g t the __________ club n ft;
28. n Thursdays and Fridays, teach sme __________ t play ping-png;
29. n weekends, walk the __________ in the frest
Habits:30. never eat junk fd r __________ late
Items (项目)
Grup 1
Grup 2
Grup 3
Grup 4
1. answer crrectly (正确地)
66
72
75
77
2. answer quickly
74
79
78
63
3. answer humrusly (幽默地)
68
69
80
79
4. speak clearly
87
85
82
87
5. speak ludly
90
92
90
91
6. speak freely
80
82
83
85
7. have gd teamwrk
81
60
86
85
Average (平均分)
78
77
82
81
档 次
分 值
语 言 要 求
一档
13 ~ 15分
包含了所有要点,能围绕内容要点适当发挥,内容具体、丰富;应用了较丰富的语言结构和词汇,用词准确,句子通顺,行文连贯,表达清楚;没有或几乎没有语言错误,具备较强的语言运用能力,达到了预期的写作目的。
二档
10 ~ 12分
基本包含了所有要点,并有一定的发挥,内容比较丰富;应用的语言结构和词汇能满足任务要求,句子较通顺,表达较清楚;有少量语言错误,基本达到了预期的写作目的。
三档
7 ~ 9分
包含了多数要点,并有所发挥,内容不够丰富、具体,词数较少;句子不够通顺,语言表达过于简单,行文不够连贯;有部分语言错误。
四档
4 ~ 6分
只包含了少数要点,内容过少;句子无条理,语言不规范,行文不连贯;语言错误较多。
五档
0 ~ 3分
只包含一个要点或所写内容与要求几乎无关,内容杂乱,不知所云;语言很不通顺,用词很不准确;错误过多,几乎难以读懂。
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