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魏县2022-2023学年度第二学期期中质量检测七年级英语试卷
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这是一份魏县2022-2023学年度第二学期期中质量检测七年级英语试卷，共12页。
时间：90分钟，分数：100
听力部分（计20分）
Ⅰ.关键词语选择。（共5小题，每小题1分，计5分）
听句子，在每小题所给的A、B、C 三个选项中选出一个你所听到的单词或短语。
A. cffeeB. clthes C. city
A. bkB. bx C. by
A. habitsB. hamburger C. health
A. magazinesB. matches C. minutes
A. put awayB. take away C. g away
Ⅱ. 图片理解。（共5小题，每小题1分，计5分）
根据你所听到的句子，在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出与所听内容相符的图片。
6.A. B. C.
7.A. B. C.
六月一日
五月一日
8.A. B. C.
十月一日
9.A. B. C.
10.A. B. C.
Ⅲ. 短对话理解。（共5小题，每小题1分，计5分）
根据你所听到的对话及问题，选择正确答案。
11.Where des the tiger cme frm?
Africa B. America C. Asia
12.What des the girl have?
A ping-png bat. B. A tennis racket. C. A basketball.
Hw many animals are there in the z?
Abut 4,000. B. Abut 5,000. C. Abut 6,000.
14.What time des the by usually get up?
At 7:10 . B. At 7:20. C. At 7:30.
15.What club des Mike want t Jin?
The chess club. B. The art club. C. The English club.
Ⅳ. 长对话理解。（共5小题，每小题1分，计5分）
根据你所听到的长对话及问题，选择正确答案。
16.Where is Jack?
In the library. B. In the classrm. C. At hme.
17.What is Amy ding nw?
She is reading a bk.
She is ding her hmewrk.
C. She is ding husewrk.
18.What time des the by get up?
At 5:30. B. At 6:30. C. At 7:30.
19.What des the by d at 7:30?
He gets up. B. He ges t schl. C. He has breakfast.
20.What des Tny usually have fr breakfast?
Eggs and milk. B. Eggs and bread. C. Bread and milk.
笔试部分（计80分）
Ⅴ.单项选择。（共10小题，每小题1分，共10分）
21. Linda’s mther buys guitar fr her, but she can’t play guitar nw.
A. a, the B. \, the C. \, a D.a, a
22. Rick gets up early every day and he’s late fr schl.
A. always B. never C. usually D. smetimes
23. --My sister likes animals very much.
--Really? Then yu can take her t a .
A. library B. z C. stre D. bridge
24. It’s nt easy fr Mr. Black his students English well.
A. teach B. teaches C. teaching D. t teach
25. My sister always des hmewrk first after schl.
A. my B. her C. ur D. their
26. --Simn is always late fr schl.
--That’s . He needs t get ut f the bad habit.
A.easy B. great C. terrible D. interesting
27. --What d yu this trip?
--It’s really interesting. I like it very much.
A. ask fr B. help with C. think f D. speak ut
28. I dn’t have time t play with yu because I have things t d.
A. many, much B. many, many C. much, many D. much, much
29.-- is it frm here t yur hme?
--Abut three kilmeters.
A . Hw far B. Hw lng C. Hw much D. Hw ld
30.-- ?
--At six n schl days and at seven n weekends in the mrning.
Hw ld are yu B. What’s yur favrite day
C. When d yu g t schl D. What time d yu eat dinner
Ⅵ. 完形填空。（共10小题，每小题1分，共10分）
Hey! I’m Andy and I wrk at a z. I lve 31 and I knw abut them well. This is my friend Kip. She’s a 32 cat and she’s gd at making all kinds f things. I always ask her fr help 33 she’s happy t help me.
Kip and I ften g n a 34 t see animals. My favrite 35 is Africa. I can see many interesting animals there. Smetimes I sit by giraffes and see 36 eating leaves. Smetimes I sit under an elephant t keep cl. And smetimes I see lins 37 . I dn’t want t wake them up（把它们吵醒）, s I nly see them in a 38 place. It’s fun t be with animals and they’re friendly t me.
But nw sme animals are 39 danger. What can we d t save them? Frm nw n, never 40 things made f animals’ teeth, fur（皮毛）r bnes（骨头）.
31. A. sprtsB. animals C. subjects D. clthes
32. A. dirty B. bring C. lazy D. smart
33. A. and B. but C. r D. s
34 A. trip B. walk C. talk D. class
35. A. stre B. club C. place D. village
36. A. it B. them C. him D. her
37. A. talking B. playing C. sleeping D. fighting
38.A. big B. tidy C. far D. new
39. A. in B. n C. at D. fr
40. A.watch B. find C. tell D. buy
Ⅶ. 阅读理解。（共15小题，每小题2分， 计30分）
A
Hell, my name is Lrna Adams and I’m 12. I live in England with my father Sam, my mther Jenny, my brther Ben, my cats, Fluffy and Snw, and my dg, Scruffy. I like my schl days very much.
Schl finishes early, s I have time t g t sme after-schl clubs: art n Mndays, vilin n Wednesdays and chess n Fridays. When I get hme, I d my hmewrk. After dinner, I help my mm clean the table. Then I feed（喂）my cats and walk my dg. It’s nice.
There are peple in Lrna’s family.
three B. fur C. five D. six
At 7:30 a.m. n schl days, Lrna .
gets up B. takes a shwer C. has breakfast. D. walks t schl.
What des Lrna d at 1:30 p.m n schl days?
B. C. D.
Lrna ges t the vilin club every .
Mnday B. Wednesday C. Friday D. Sunday
45. The passage is abut Lrna’s frm Mnday t Friday.
A. life B. schl C. exercise D. family
B
Vlunteers Wanted
46. If yu want t help students with their English, yu can g t .
A. Classrm 5A B. Classrm 5D C. Classrm 4A D. Classrm 4D
47. What des Jasn prbably（可能）d?
A. A dancer B. A player. C. A science teacher. D. A music teacher.
48. When des the schl need an art teacher?.
A. Every Thursday in June.B. Every Thursday in July.
C. Every Tuesday in June D. Every Tuesday in July.
49. Frm the passage, we can knw that .
A .Linda’s phne number is 256-3584.
B.Yu can g t the music festival n Sunday.
C.There are tw ways t find Jasn.
D.It’s difficult but relaxing t teach students t draw.
50. The material（材料） is prbably frm a(n) .
A . advertisement（广告） B. magazine（杂志） C. e-mail D. bk
C
Dear Eddy,
Hw’s yur day? Let me tell yu smething abut my new life in Australia. I live in a small city with my parents in the suth f Australia. My hme is far away frm the schl. Every mrning, I walk t the subway statin and then take the subway statin and then take the subway t schl. It takes me abut ne and a half hurs t get t schl. There is a pst ffice, a bkstre and a library near my schl. I usually g t the library t read sme interesting bks after schl.
At abut 5 ’clck in the afternn, my mther always drives her car t the library t pick me up. Smetimes we g t a restaurant t eat dinner tgether. After dinner, my parents usually watch TV and I have t d my hmewrk.
Please tell me smething abut yur life in Canada.
Yurs,
Shelly
51. Where is Shelly living nw?.
In Japan. B. In China. C. In Australia. D. In Canada.
52. Hw des Shelly g t schl?
A . By bus. B. By subway. C. By bike D. On ft
53. What des Shelly usually d after schl?
A.She reads bks in the library.
B. She reads bks in the bkstre.
C. She plays games with her classmates.
D. She ges hme by subway.
54. The underlined phrase “pick me up” in the passage means “ ” in Chinese.
A. 接我 B. 捡起 C. 登上 D. 下车
55. Which f the fllwing is NOT true?
A.There is a pst ffice near Shelly’s schl.
B. It takes Shelly abut ne and a half hurs t get t schl by subway.
C. Eddy is in Canada nw.
D. Shelly never ges t a restaurant t have dinner.
Ⅷ. 任务型阅读（共5小题，每小题2分，计10分）
Anna
I wrk in a bank（银行）frm Mnday t Friday. My huse is near a park and is abut ten kilmeters frm my ffice. I usually g t wrk by train. Every mrning I get up at 6:30 and take the train at 7:00. It usually takes me abut thirty minutes t get t my ffice. The train is quick and cheap. I am never late fr wrk.
Je
I am a student. My huse is near a lake. My schl is acrss frm（在……对面）the lake. I can walk acrss a bridge t schl. It takes me abut thirty minutes. But I ften g t schl by bat, because it is mre fun. It takes me abut twenty minutes.
Nancy
I’m a waitress（服务员）. I wrk in a restaurant frm Mnday t Saturday. I ften g t wrk by bus. It is abut five kilmeters frm my huse t the restaurant. It takes me abut twenty-five minutes t g t wrk. Smetimes I am late fr wrk ① the traffic（交通） is very busy.
56、57题完成句子；58题简略回答问题；59在文中①空白处填入一个恰当的英文单词；60题将文中画线部分句子翻译成汉语。
56. Anna’s huse is abut frm her ffice..
57. Je ften ges t schl because it’s mre fun.
58. Hw many days des Nancy wrk every week?
.
59.
60. 。
Ⅸ. 词语运用。（共5小题，每小题1分，计5分）
根据短文内容及所给提示，在文中的空白处填入一个恰当的单词。
Hell, my name is Alex. There are many 61. (rule) in my family. On weekdays, I have t get up at 6:00 in the mrning, and then 62. (take) a bus t schl. I have t get hme quickly after schl. I must d 63. (I) hmewrk first. I can’t watch TV r g ut n schl nights. I have t g t bed befre half past nine. 64. weekends, I can watch TV until（直到）22:00. On Sundays I have t clean my rm and wash my clthes.
My parents are strict with me. But they lve me very much, t. They ften play sprts tgether with me. They want me t be 65. (health) and have a beautiful future（将来）, I lve my parents.
Ⅹ. 基础写作。（共计15分，其中A）部分每小题1分，计5分，B）部分10分）
A) 连词成句
66. I, swim, can
.
67. Rick, time, eat breakfast, des, what
?
68. I, by bike, g t schl, usually
.
69. I, in the library, be, have t, quiet
.
70. Lucy, pandas, because, likes, very cute, they’re
.
B) 书面表达。
同学们，在这春暖花开、万物复苏的的美好日子里，你将如何度过你的周末呢？请根据以下提示和要求，写一篇60词左右的英语小短文。
提示：1. Where d yu want t g ?
What d yu want t d? Why?
要求：1、包含以上提示内容，可适当发挥；
2、书写清晰、规范，表达准确、顺畅。
Time
Activities
7:00 a.m.
Get up
7:10--7:20 a.m.
Take a shwer
7:30--8:00 a. m.
Have breakfast & Brush my teeth
8:00--8:20 a. m.
Walk t schl
8:30--11:50 a. m
Have fur lessns
11:50 :20 p.m.
Have lunch at schl
1:30--3:00 p.m.
Have tw lessns
Are yu gd at English? Yes? Then we need yu t help with English hmewrk fr students frm ten t twelve. It’s easy and interesting. Please call Linda at 365-3584. Yu can als cme t Classrm 5D.
D yu like music? Can yu play the pian r the vilin? Are yu free n Saturday? If yur answer is “YES”, cme t help at the music festival. It’s great fun! Cme t Classrm 4A t find Jasn r e-mail Jasn at jasn26@gmail.cm.
Are yu free n Tuesdays in June? Can yu draw? We need an art teacher in ur schl. It’s nt difficult but relaxing t teach students frm ten t thirteen years ld. Please cme t Classrm 5A. Or yu can call us at 256-3584.
时间：90分钟，分数：100
听力部分（计20分）
Ⅰ.关键词语选择。（共5小题，每小题1分，计5分）
听句子，在每小题所给的A、B、C 三个选项中选出一个你所听到的单词或短语。
A. cffeeB. clthes C. city
A. bkB. bx C. by
A. habitsB. hamburger C. health
A. magazinesB. matches C. minutes
A. put awayB. take away C. g away
Ⅱ. 图片理解。（共5小题，每小题1分，计5分）
根据你所听到的句子，在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出与所听内容相符的图片。
6.A. B. C.
7.A. B. C.
六月一日
五月一日
8.A. B. C.
十月一日
9.A. B. C.
10.A. B. C.
Ⅲ. 短对话理解。（共5小题，每小题1分，计5分）
根据你所听到的对话及问题，选择正确答案。
11.Where des the tiger cme frm?
Africa B. America C. Asia
12.What des the girl have?
A ping-png bat. B. A tennis racket. C. A basketball.
Hw many animals are there in the z?
Abut 4,000. B. Abut 5,000. C. Abut 6,000.
14.What time des the by usually get up?
At 7:10 . B. At 7:20. C. At 7:30.
15.What club des Mike want t Jin?
The chess club. B. The art club. C. The English club.
Ⅳ. 长对话理解。（共5小题，每小题1分，计5分）
根据你所听到的长对话及问题，选择正确答案。
16.Where is Jack?
In the library. B. In the classrm. C. At hme.
17.What is Amy ding nw?
She is reading a bk.
She is ding her hmewrk.
C. She is ding husewrk.
18.What time des the by get up?
At 5:30. B. At 6:30. C. At 7:30.
19.What des the by d at 7:30?
He gets up. B. He ges t schl. C. He has breakfast.
20.What des Tny usually have fr breakfast?
Eggs and milk. B. Eggs and bread. C. Bread and milk.
笔试部分（计80分）
Ⅴ.单项选择。（共10小题，每小题1分，共10分）
21. Linda’s mther buys guitar fr her, but she can’t play guitar nw.
A. a, the B. \, the C. \, a D.a, a
22. Rick gets up early every day and he’s late fr schl.
A. always B. never C. usually D. smetimes
23. --My sister likes animals very much.
--Really? Then yu can take her t a .
A. library B. z C. stre D. bridge
24. It’s nt easy fr Mr. Black his students English well.
A. teach B. teaches C. teaching D. t teach
25. My sister always des hmewrk first after schl.
A. my B. her C. ur D. their
26. --Simn is always late fr schl.
--That’s . He needs t get ut f the bad habit.
A.easy B. great C. terrible D. interesting
27. --What d yu this trip?
--It’s really interesting. I like it very much.
A. ask fr B. help with C. think f D. speak ut
28. I dn’t have time t play with yu because I have things t d.
A. many, much B. many, many C. much, many D. much, much
29.-- is it frm here t yur hme?
--Abut three kilmeters.
A . Hw far B. Hw lng C. Hw much D. Hw ld
30.-- ?
--At six n schl days and at seven n weekends in the mrning.
Hw ld are yu B. What’s yur favrite day
C. When d yu g t schl D. What time d yu eat dinner
Ⅵ. 完形填空。（共10小题，每小题1分，共10分）
Hey! I’m Andy and I wrk at a z. I lve 31 and I knw abut them well. This is my friend Kip. She’s a 32 cat and she’s gd at making all kinds f things. I always ask her fr help 33 she’s happy t help me.
Kip and I ften g n a 34 t see animals. My favrite 35 is Africa. I can see many interesting animals there. Smetimes I sit by giraffes and see 36 eating leaves. Smetimes I sit under an elephant t keep cl. And smetimes I see lins 37 . I dn’t want t wake them up（把它们吵醒）, s I nly see them in a 38 place. It’s fun t be with animals and they’re friendly t me.
But nw sme animals are 39 danger. What can we d t save them? Frm nw n, never 40 things made f animals’ teeth, fur（皮毛）r bnes（骨头）.
31. A. sprtsB. animals C. subjects D. clthes
32. A. dirty B. bring C. lazy D. smart
33. A. and B. but C. r D. s
34 A. trip B. walk C. talk D. class
35. A. stre B. club C. place D. village
36. A. it B. them C. him D. her
37. A. talking B. playing C. sleeping D. fighting
38.A. big B. tidy C. far D. new
39. A. in B. n C. at D. fr
40. A.watch B. find C. tell D. buy
Ⅶ. 阅读理解。（共15小题，每小题2分， 计30分）
A
Hell, my name is Lrna Adams and I’m 12. I live in England with my father Sam, my mther Jenny, my brther Ben, my cats, Fluffy and Snw, and my dg, Scruffy. I like my schl days very much.
Schl finishes early, s I have time t g t sme after-schl clubs: art n Mndays, vilin n Wednesdays and chess n Fridays. When I get hme, I d my hmewrk. After dinner, I help my mm clean the table. Then I feed（喂）my cats and walk my dg. It’s nice.
There are peple in Lrna’s family.
three B. fur C. five D. six
At 7:30 a.m. n schl days, Lrna .
gets up B. takes a shwer C. has breakfast. D. walks t schl.
What des Lrna d at 1:30 p.m n schl days?
B. C. D.
Lrna ges t the vilin club every .
Mnday B. Wednesday C. Friday D. Sunday
45. The passage is abut Lrna’s frm Mnday t Friday.
A. life B. schl C. exercise D. family
B
Vlunteers Wanted
46. If yu want t help students with their English, yu can g t .
A. Classrm 5A B. Classrm 5D C. Classrm 4A D. Classrm 4D
47. What des Jasn prbably（可能）d?
A. A dancer B. A player. C. A science teacher. D. A music teacher.
48. When des the schl need an art teacher?.
A. Every Thursday in June.B. Every Thursday in July.
C. Every Tuesday in June D. Every Tuesday in July.
49. Frm the passage, we can knw that .
A .Linda’s phne number is 256-3584.
B.Yu can g t the music festival n Sunday.
C.There are tw ways t find Jasn.
D.It’s difficult but relaxing t teach students t draw.
50. The material（材料） is prbably frm a(n) .
A . advertisement（广告） B. magazine（杂志） C. e-mail D. bk
C
Dear Eddy,
Hw’s yur day? Let me tell yu smething abut my new life in Australia. I live in a small city with my parents in the suth f Australia. My hme is far away frm the schl. Every mrning, I walk t the subway statin and then take the subway statin and then take the subway t schl. It takes me abut ne and a half hurs t get t schl. There is a pst ffice, a bkstre and a library near my schl. I usually g t the library t read sme interesting bks after schl.
At abut 5 ’clck in the afternn, my mther always drives her car t the library t pick me up. Smetimes we g t a restaurant t eat dinner tgether. After dinner, my parents usually watch TV and I have t d my hmewrk.
Please tell me smething abut yur life in Canada.
Yurs,
Shelly
51. Where is Shelly living nw?.
In Japan. B. In China. C. In Australia. D. In Canada.
52. Hw des Shelly g t schl?
A . By bus. B. By subway. C. By bike D. On ft
53. What des Shelly usually d after schl?
A.She reads bks in the library.
B. She reads bks in the bkstre.
C. She plays games with her classmates.
D. She ges hme by subway.
54. The underlined phrase “pick me up” in the passage means “ ” in Chinese.
A. 接我 B. 捡起 C. 登上 D. 下车
55. Which f the fllwing is NOT true?
A.There is a pst ffice near Shelly’s schl.
B. It takes Shelly abut ne and a half hurs t get t schl by subway.
C. Eddy is in Canada nw.
D. Shelly never ges t a restaurant t have dinner.
Ⅷ. 任务型阅读（共5小题，每小题2分，计10分）
Anna
I wrk in a bank（银行）frm Mnday t Friday. My huse is near a park and is abut ten kilmeters frm my ffice. I usually g t wrk by train. Every mrning I get up at 6:30 and take the train at 7:00. It usually takes me abut thirty minutes t get t my ffice. The train is quick and cheap. I am never late fr wrk.
Je
I am a student. My huse is near a lake. My schl is acrss frm（在……对面）the lake. I can walk acrss a bridge t schl. It takes me abut thirty minutes. But I ften g t schl by bat, because it is mre fun. It takes me abut twenty minutes.
Nancy
I’m a waitress（服务员）. I wrk in a restaurant frm Mnday t Saturday. I ften g t wrk by bus. It is abut five kilmeters frm my huse t the restaurant. It takes me abut twenty-five minutes t g t wrk. Smetimes I am late fr wrk ① the traffic（交通） is very busy.
56、57题完成句子；58题简略回答问题；59在文中①空白处填入一个恰当的英文单词；60题将文中画线部分句子翻译成汉语。
56. Anna’s huse is abut frm her ffice..
57. Je ften ges t schl because it’s mre fun.
58. Hw many days des Nancy wrk every week?
.
59.
60. 。
Ⅸ. 词语运用。（共5小题，每小题1分，计5分）
根据短文内容及所给提示，在文中的空白处填入一个恰当的单词。
Hell, my name is Alex. There are many 61. (rule) in my family. On weekdays, I have t get up at 6:00 in the mrning, and then 62. (take) a bus t schl. I have t get hme quickly after schl. I must d 63. (I) hmewrk first. I can’t watch TV r g ut n schl nights. I have t g t bed befre half past nine. 64. weekends, I can watch TV until（直到）22:00. On Sundays I have t clean my rm and wash my clthes.
My parents are strict with me. But they lve me very much, t. They ften play sprts tgether with me. They want me t be 65. (health) and have a beautiful future（将来）, I lve my parents.
Ⅹ. 基础写作。（共计15分，其中A）部分每小题1分，计5分，B）部分10分）
A) 连词成句
66. I, swim, can
.
67. Rick, time, eat breakfast, des, what
?
68. I, by bike, g t schl, usually
.
69. I, in the library, be, have t, quiet
.
70. Lucy, pandas, because, likes, very cute, they’re
.
B) 书面表达。
同学们，在这春暖花开、万物复苏的的美好日子里，你将如何度过你的周末呢？请根据以下提示和要求，写一篇60词左右的英语小短文。
提示：1. Where d yu want t g ?
What d yu want t d? Why?
要求：1、包含以上提示内容，可适当发挥；
2、书写清晰、规范，表达准确、顺畅。
Time
Activities
7:00 a.m.
Get up
7:10--7:20 a.m.
Take a shwer
7:30--8:00 a. m.
Have breakfast & Brush my teeth
8:00--8:20 a. m.
Walk t schl
8:30--11:50 a. m
Have fur lessns
11:50 :20 p.m.
Have lunch at schl
1:30--3:00 p.m.
Have tw lessns
Are yu gd at English? Yes? Then we need yu t help with English hmewrk fr students frm ten t twelve. It’s easy and interesting. Please call Linda at 365-3584. Yu can als cme t Classrm 5D.
D yu like music? Can yu play the pian r the vilin? Are yu free n Saturday? If yur answer is “YES”, cme t help at the music festival. It’s great fun! Cme t Classrm 4A t find Jasn r e-mail Jasn at jasn26@gmail.cm.
Are yu free n Tuesdays in June? Can yu draw? We need an art teacher in ur schl. It’s nt difficult but relaxing t teach students frm ten t thirteen years ld. Please cme t Classrm 5A. Or yu can call us at 256-3584.
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