湖南省冷水滩区2022-2023学年上学期七年级英语期中试卷

这是一份湖南省冷水滩区2022-2023学年上学期七年级英语期中试卷，共13页。

温馨提示：
1．本试卷包括试题卷和答题卡两部分，考试结束后，将试题卷和答题卡分别交回。
2．考生作答时，选择题和非选择题均须按答题卡中注意事项的要求答题，在试题卷上作答无效。
3．试题卷由听力技能、阅读技能、知识运用和写作技能四个部分组成，共76个小题,其中听力材料以中速朗读两遍。
4．本试卷满分120分，考试时间90分钟。
亲爱的考生，请你沉着应考，细心审题，揣摩题意，应用技巧，准确作答。祝你成功！
第一部分 听力技能（共两节，满分20分）
做题时，先将答案划（写）在试卷上，录音内容朗读完后，你将有2分钟的时间将1~20小题答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节（共5小题，每小题1分，共计5分）听句子，从A，B，C三个选项中选出与句子意思相符的图片，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每个句子前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。
第二节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
听下面六段材料，每段材料后各有几个小题，从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答案，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段材料前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。
听第一段材料，回答第6～7小题。
What can Helen d well?
A．Sing.B．Draw.C．Dance.
7． What club des Helen’s brther want t jin?
A．The sccer club. B．The art club.C．The tennis club.
听第二段材料，回答第8～9小题。
What des Mary usually d n weekends?
A．Drawing pictures.B．Watching TV.C．Playing the pian.
9． Wh des Mary play sprts with?
A．Her brther.B．Her father.C．Her mther.
听第三段材料，回答第10～11小题。
10．Where des Mary want t g?
A．T the bus stp.B．T the schl.C．T the library.
11．Mary wants t g there .
A．by bike.B．by bus.C．by subway.
听第四段材料，回答第12～14小题。
12．What des the by want t d this evening?
A．T see friends.B．T take a walk.C．T watch TV.
13．What des Emily have t d first after schl?
A．Eat dinner.B．Play sprts.C．D her hmewrk.
14．What des the by have t d every day?
A．Clean his rm.B．Play the guitar.C．D the dishes.
听第五段材料，回答第15～17小题。
15．What is Peter ding?
A．Ding his hmewrk. B．Cleaning the rm.C．Playing tennis.
16．Where is the girl?
A．At hme. B．At schl.C．At the bus stp.
17．The bus ride takes the girl abut minutes.
A．10 B．20 C．30
听第六段材料，回答第18～20小题。
18．What animals des Linda like?
Tigers. B．Giraffes. C．Kalas.
19．Why des Tny like cats?
A．Because they are cute. B．Because they are interesting.
C．Because they are smart.
20．Wh likes elephants?
A．Jimmy.B．Eric. C．Li Fei.
第二部分 阅读技能（共三节，满分50分）
第一节 阅读选择（共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分）阅读下面的图表和短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出最佳答案，并在答题卡上将该编号字母涂黑。
(A)
21．Peter can’t speak_______.
A. English B. Chinese C. French
22．What subject des Jill like best?
A. Art. B. Math. C. Music.
23．What club des Mark want t jin?
A. The art club. B. The English club. C. The music club.
24．_______ cmes frm America.
A. Peter B. Jill C. Mark
25．Which f the fllwing is TRUE?
A. Jill has lunch at hme. B. Mark has a pen friend in Japan.
C. Peter can’t d kung fu.
(B)
T make the library a gd place fr yu students, yu must fllw the rules f the library. Here are the rules f ur schl library.
26．Yu can read in the library _______.
A. frm 3 p.m. t 5 p.m. n Sunday B. frm 8 a.m. t 5 p.m. n Saturday
C. frm 9 a.m. t 5 p.m. n Friday
27．If yu read in the library, yu _______.
A. shuld keep quiet B. can eat and drink C. shuld clean the shelf
28．If yu brrw a bk frm the library, yu can keep it fr _______.
A. tw days B. five days C. seven days
29．划线部分“pay fr”的中文意思是“_______”。
A. 归还 B. 寻找 C. 赔偿
30．What can we learn frm the rules f the library?
A. Yu can read yur wn bks in the library.
B. When yu brrw bks, yu must use yur wn card.
C. When yu read bks, yu must keep the desk clean.
(C)
Jeff has a pet. It’s a dg. It is white. Jeff likes it very much. He thinks the dg is very smart. It can play ball games and it can buy newspapers fr Jeff. Every mrning, Jeff puts ne dllar int the dg’s muth (嘴) and it ges t the shp t buy newspapers fr Jeff.
Jeff has a gd friend Mark. Jeff tells Mark abut his smart dg. Mark desn’t believe it. Tday, Mark cmes t see Jeff in the mrning. Jeff is playing with his dg. Mark says, “I will give yur dg mney. I dn’t think it can buy newspapers.”
“Have a try (试一下),” says Jeff.
Then Mark puts mney int the dg’s muth and the dg walks ut. After ten minutes, the dg desn’t cme back. After an hur, the dg desn’t cme back.
“Hw much mney d yu give the dg?” asks Jeff.
“Five dllars.”
“Well, if yu give it five dllars, it will g t the mvies,” says Jeff.
31．What clr is Jeff ‘s dg?
A. Brwn. B. White. C. Black.
32．Frm the passage, we can knw the dg _______.
A. isn’t smart B. can’t play with balls C. takes mney with its muth
33．划线部分“believe”的中文意思是“_______”。
A. 承诺 B. 相信 C. 回答
34．Mark gives the dg _______ dllars.
A. five B. fur C. three
35．Which f the fllwing is TRUE?
A. The dg desn’t like Mark.
B. Mark cmes t see Jeff in the afternn.
C. The dg desn’t cme back with newspapers tday.
第二节 阅读匹配（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）阅读下面的短文，从所给的A～F六个选项中，选出正确的答案填空，使短文通顺，内容完整，其中选项中有一项是多余的，并在答题卡上将该编号字母涂黑。
When I am reading a bk at hme, my friends call me, “Jack, will yu cme here and help?” I stp reading and run t them.
36 And the ball ges int Mrs. White’s garden (花园). They knw I live next t(紧挨着) her, s they want me t get the ball fr them.
37 She lks unfriendly. Everyne says that she desn’t like children. And n ne knws Mrs. White well because she desn’t always cme ut f her huse r speak.
38 I am nervus (紧张的). I see a wman walking t me. It is Mrs. White! And a ball is in her hand.
“ 39 ” she asks.
“Yes,” I say. “Srry. We’ll never d that again(再).”
Mrs. White says, “ 40 The hp (篮框) in my garden is better than yurs.”
Ww! We are s happy t hear that! Peple’s wrds(话) are nt always true.
第三节 回答问题（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）阅读下面的短文，然后根据短文内容回答问题，并将答案填写在答题卡上对应题号的横线上。
Tick, tick, tick! Gd mrning, Jim! It’s 6:20 a.m. nw. It’s time t get up. I’m yur ld friend ——Alarm Clck (闹钟). Nw please listen t me. Tday is Tuesday. Yu have many things t d. Classes start at 8:00 a.m. Yu have fur in the mrning and tw in the afternn. After schl, yu have a basketball game with Class Tw. Yu cme hme at 5:40 p.m. Yu have dinner at 6:00 p.m. Yu can watch TV fr half an hur after yu finish yur hmewrk. Nw please get up quickly, have yur breakfast and ride yur bike t schl. Tick, tick, tick!
41．What time is it nw?
.
42．Is it Mnday tday?
.
43．Hw many classes des Jim have tday?
.
44．What des Jim have t d befre he can watch TV?
.
45．Hw des Jim g t schl tday?
.
第三部分 知识运用（共两节，满分20分）
第一节 词语填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）通读下面的短文，掌握其大意，然后从各小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳答案，并在答题卡上将该编号字母涂黑。
Mary is a ten-year-ld girl. She wants t be a singer 46 she can’t sing well. S she takes singing lessns in a music 47 every Sunday mrning.
Mary gets up at 6:30 n 48 mrning. She runs 49 15 minutes and then has breakfast. After breakfast, she walks t the subway statin and then 50 the subway t the music center. After the lessns, she is tired (疲倦的), but she is very 51 , because she 52 she sings better (更好) nw. She als 53 the schl music club. She 54 wants t sing well.
What’s yur 55 ? D yu als want t be a singer?
第二节 语法填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）阅读下面的材料，在空白处填入适当的内容（限1个单词）或括号内单词的正确形式，使句子通顺完整。
56．I can play vilin but I can’t play chess.
57．Please help me my math.
58．Fr many students, it’s easy (get) t schl.
59．It’s 10 ’clck in the mrning. Lk! Steve (study) English.
60．Yu’re very gd at (tell) stries.
61．Rick always (eat) breakfast at seven ’clck.
62．Dn’t (arrive) late fr class. Yu must be n time.
63．I like elephants because they’re very (friend).
64．I usually get up at 6:30 and then I brush my (tth).
65．—Can Jane and Jill (swim)? —Yes, they can.
第四部分 写作技能（共三节，满分30分）
第一节 语篇翻译（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）阅读下面的短文，然后将划线部分的句子译成汉语或英语，并将答案填写在答题卡上对应题号的横线上。
Dear Lisa,
Let me tell yu smething abut my day! 66. In the mrning, I always get up at 6:00. Then I take a shwer at 6:10. At 6:30, I eat breakfast. I take a bus t schl at 7:00 a.m. Schl starts at 8:00. At 12:10 p.m., I eat lunch. I usually have rice and chicken. 67. 有时候我吃汉堡包，喝牛奶. 68. In the afternn, I have tw classes. Then at 4:30 p.m., I play sprts. 69. 篮球是我最喜爱的运动. I g hme at 5:30 p.m. At abut 6:30 in the evening, I have dinner. 70. I usually d my hmewrk at 7:00 p.m. I g t bed at 9:00 p.m. OK, that’s all. Please tell me smething abut yur day!
Yurs,
Amy
66． .
67． .
68． .
69． .
70． .
第二节 完成对话（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）通读下面的对话，然后根据上下文补全对话内容，并将答案填写在答题卡上对应题号的横线上。
A：Hi, Peter.
B：Hey, Mary. What animals d yu like best?
A： 71 .
B：Why d yu like them?
A： 72 .
B：Where are they frm?
A： 73 . D yu like them?
B： 74 .
A：Let’s g t the z t see them this Sunday.
B： 75 .
第三节 书面表达（1个大题，满分10分）
76． 假如现在是周日上午十一点钟，请你根据表格提示，用英语写一篇60词左右的短文，介绍杰夫(Jeff)及其家人的活动，可适当发挥。
要求：
1．短文应包括所有要点，可适当发挥；
2．语句通顺、意思连贯；
3．书写认真，卷面整洁；
4．文中不可出现真实的人名、地名和校名。






1．
A
B
C
2．
A
B
C
3．
A
B
C
4．
A
B
C
5．
A
B
C
Hell, I’m Peter. I cme frm Japan . I can speak a little English and French . But I can’t speak Chinese. I get up at 6:00 and g t schl at 7:30 in the mrning. I like P.E. best at schl. It is exciting. I dn’t like math. I think it is difficult and bring. I want t visit China. I want t learn kung fu.
My name is Jill. I cme frm the USA. I’m 13 years ld. I g t schl at 7:40 and I g hme at 5:00 in the afternn. I have lunch at schl. I like music best. It is relaxing. I want t jin the music club.
I’m Mark. I’m frm England. I can speak English and a little French, but I can’t speak Japanese. I like art and I want t jin the art club. I als like math, because it is interesting and fun. I have a pen friend in China. His English name is Jack. I want t see him ne day.
If yu read here:
·Yu can stay frm 9 a.m. t 5 p.m. n weekdays.
· Yu can’t bring ther bks t the library.
· Yu can nly take tw bks frm the shelf (书架) at a time.
· Please dn’t be nisy.
· Please dn’t eat.
If yu brrw bks:
· Everyne must use his wn (自己的) card t brrw bks.
· Yu can brrw three bks at a time.
· Yu can keep the bks fr a week.
· If yu lst the bks, yu must pay fr them.
A．Why dn’t yu play here?
B．Sme f my friends are playing a basketball game.
C．Can yu play basketball?
D．I walk int Mrs. White’s garden slwly.
E．I’m afraid f Mrs. White.
F．Is this yur ball?
46．A. r
B. but
C. because
47．A. shw
B. party
C. center
48．A. Friday
B. Saturday
C. Sunday
49．A. at
B. fr
C. with
50．A. takes
B. rides
C. drives
51．A. tidy
B. busy
C. happy
52．A. say
B. thinks
C. teaches
53．A. jins
B. cleans
C. leaves
54．A. nly
B. really
C. smetimes
55．A. jb
B. life
C. dream
人物
活动
杰夫
使用电脑
杰夫的爸爸
听音乐
杰夫的妈妈
做午饭
杰夫的爷爷
喝茶
杰夫的弟弟
写作业