内蒙古自治区鄂尔多斯市伊金霍洛旗2023-2024学年七年级上学期期末英语试题

这是一份内蒙古自治区鄂尔多斯市伊金霍洛旗2023-2024学年七年级上学期期末英语试题，共8页。

考生须知：
1．答本卷前，学生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号写到答题纸相应位置上，并核对条形码上的姓名、准考证号等有关信息。
2．试题答案一律填写或书写到答题纸规定位置上，本试卷上作答无效。
3．本试题共8页，五道大题，两大板块，满分100分，考试时间90分钟。
第Ⅰ卷（选择题，共60分）
一、听力测试（满分10分）
答题说明：
1．听前快速浏览听力试题，本大题共10分，听答时间共10分钟。
2．录音只播放一遍，中途不停机。录音播放完毕，终止听力测试。
3．请在答题纸上相应题号的位置，将代表正确答案的字母用2B铅笔涂黑，
Ⅰ．听对话，选择与之内容相符的图片。对话读两遍。（每小题1分，共5分）
1．A．B．C．
2．A．B．C．
3．A．B．C．
4．A．B．C．
5．A．B．C．
Ⅱ．听对话，选择正确答案。（每小题1分，共5分）
你将听到两段较长对话。每段对话读两遍。
听第一段对话，回答第6-7小题。
6．What are they talking abut?
A．Breakfast.B．Lunch.C．Dinner.
7．What’s the by’s favurite drink
A．Juice.B．Milk.C．Cke.
听第二段对话，回答第8-10小题。
8．Which subject Des Alice like best?
A．Chinese.B．English.C．Music.
9．Why des Mike like music?
A．Because it’s interesting.B．Because it’s relaxing.C．Because it’s easy.
10．Wh d Alice and Mike like?
A．Miss Lin.B．Mr LinC．Miss Yang.
二、完形填空。（共10小题；每小题1分，共10分）
阅读短文，从短文后各题所给A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
Hell, everyne! D yu want t knw smething abut me? My name is Paul. I’m 11 English by. I’m 13 years ld. I 12 in N.14 Middle Schl in Shanghai.
I ften get up at half past six 13 weekdays. I ften have a cup f milk, an egg and sme bread fr my 14 . I get t schl befre 7:30, and classes start at eight ’clck. We have fur 15 in the mrning and three in the afternn. All the teachers are very gd t us and we like them very much. My favrite 16 is PE and I can play ftball 17 my classmates in the PE class. Mike is my gd friend. After class we ften play games and 18 schl tgether（一起）. In the evening I ften d 19 hmewrk at hme. I like 20 bks. I ften g t bed at abut ten ’clck.
11．A．anB．aC．theD．不填
12．A．studyB．wrkC．teachD．stay
13．A．inB．atC．frmD．n
14．A．breakfastB．lunchC．dinnerD．class
15．A．classrmsB．lessnsC．studentsD．schls
16．A．teacherB．fdC．subjectD．sprt
17．A．andB．withC．frD．t
18．A．gB．haveC．stayD．leave
19．A．hisB．herC．myD．yur
20．A．lkingB．watchingC．seeingD．reading
三、阅读理解（共20小题；每小题2分，共40分）
（一）阅读短文，从每题所给A、B、C、D四个选项中选择最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
A
Grandpa Li is a 70-year-ld man. He has three daughters. They all wrk in the same city and ften visit their parents n the weekend with their family. Every time, they park their cars utside the neighbrhd（小区）and walk int the neighbrhd. The three daughters’ favrite time is t watch Grandpa Li play badmintn with sme peple in the neighbrhd.
Every mrning, Grandpa Li calls every persn t play badmintn in the QQ r WeChat grup at 5:10. Ten minutes later, all the peple that like playing badmintn get t the square（广场）next t the neighbrhd and begin t play badmintn. Smetimes, Grandma Li dances with sme wmen in the square, t. At 6:30, all the ld peple g hme t eat breakfast. At 19:30, they get tgether and d sprts again. It’s 8:00 p.m. nw. The lights are n. Lk, hw happily they are smiling!
21．Grandpa Li is ______ years ld.
A．sixtyB．seventyC．eightyD．ninety
22．Hw lng d the ld peple d sprts
A．One hur and a half.B．80 minutes.C．An hur.D．70 minutes.
23．Which is nt right abut the passage?
A．Grandpa Li likes playing badmintn.
B．There is a square next t Grandpa Li’s neighbrhd.
C．Grandpa Li’s daughters visit him n the weekend.
D．Grandma Li dances with sme wmen every mrning.
B
D yu knw the kala? It is an animal living in the frests f eastern Australia. The kala spends mst f its life in the trees, eating at night and sleeping fr 18 hurs a day. Kalas spend mst f the night eating eucalyptus（桉树）leaves. A kala needs 100 trees!
In the wild, kalas can live up t 20 years. They can nly grw up t 9 kg and frm 60 t 85 cm. There are nly 58 thusand kalas tday. Hw culd this happen? The wild fires（火）, the change f the weather and traffic.
The kala may lk like a bear, .but it is a marsupial（有袋动物）. The kala carries its baby in a puch（育儿袋）. They have a lt f fur（皮毛）and it can help them n ht and cld days.
Mther kalas give birth t their yung after 35 days. Jeys live in their mthers’ puch fr 5 t 7 mnths. Seven mnths later, the jey leaves the puch and stays n t its mther’s back r belly（腹部）. The jey lives with its mther fr a year until（直到）it can get fd itself.
24．Hw tall can a kala grw up t?
A．35 cm.B．58 cm.C．71 cm.D．100 cm.
25．What’s Paragraph 3 mainly abut?
A．Where Mther kalas live.B．Hw jeys live.
C．What kalas lk like.D．What kalas eat.
26．Which is TRUE abut jeys?
A．There are mre and mre jeys nw.
B．They stay fr 35 days in their mthers’ puch.
C．They live n their mthers’ back at first.
D．They leave their mther when they can get fd themselves.
27．In which part f a magazine can yu find the passage?
A．Sprts.B．Nature.C．Stry.D．Family.
C
Is there a cmputer in yur family? What can yu d n cmputers? Peple can search fr infrmatin send emails talk with friends and d many ther things. Many peple buy things n the Internet because they have n time t g shpping in the shps. But sme peple als shp in the shps. Here is a survey（调查）.
55% f peple like shpping n the Internet and 45% f peple like shpping in the shps.
65% f peple think it helps them t knw abut things n the Internet befre buying them in the shps.
75% f wmen buy things n the Internet, but nly 50% f men d this.
Why d sme peple shp in the shps? Because they dn’t want t wait fr their things t arrive（到达）fr a lng time. And sme want t see the real（真的）things befre buying them. Which d yu like better?
28．If（如果）100 peple like shpping, ______ f them like shpping n the Internet.
A．45B．55C．65D．75
29．______ can help peple knw abut things befre buying them in the shps.
A．Watching TVB．Ging n the Internet
C．Reading a bkD．Writing emails
30．Peple like t shp in the shps because ______.
A．they have n time t buy thingsB．they can talk with friends
C．they want t see the real thingsD．they can wait fr a lng time
3l.Vhat’s the best title（标题）f the passage?
A．A survey abut clthesB．A survey abut using cmputers
C．A survey abut real shpsD．A survey abut shpping nline
D
Ladies and Gentlemen,
It’s my hnr（荣幸）t stand here and talk abut Chinese tea culture.
D yu knw the names f the three mst famus drinks in the wrld? They are tea, cffee and cla. China is the hmeland f tea.
Chinese tea culture started abut 4,000 years ag and drinking tea has becme a traditin. In China, peple drink tea almst everywhere in their free time. Sme Chinese think that tea is gd fr peple. Drinking a cup f tea makes peple relaxed. Peple treat（招待）guests r friends t tea at sme imprtant festivals.
I believe yu have knwn tea culture after my intrductin（介绍）.Then, cme t China and enjy it yurself! And yu will fall in lve with it.
32．Which f the fllwing drinks is nt mentined（提到）in the passage?
A．Tea.B．ClaC．Water.D．Cffee.
33．The wrd “traditin” means ______ in Chinese.
A．爱好B．传统C．美德D．信仰
34．What can we learn frm the passage?
A．Drinking tea is gd fr all the peple
B．Peple drink tea everywhere in China
C．Drinking tea is an imprtant part f Chinese peple’s life.
D．Chinese tea has a histry f abut 4,000years.
35．The writer mainly（主要）wants t intrduce ______.
A．famus drinks in the wrldB．Chinese tea culture
C．sme imprtant festivalsD．Chinese tea histry
（二）请先阅读下面短文，掌握其大意，然后根据短文内容从下面方框内的七个选项中选择五个还原到文中，使短文意思通顺、结构完整。一空一句。
We all knw a healthy lifestyle（生活方式）is imprtant fr us. Here are three students’ lifestyles. Whse lifestyle d yu think is the healthiest（最健康的）?
Peter is very fat because he always eats a lt（许多）. Every day, 36 . Fr dinner, he usually has three hamburgers and sme ice-cream. He desn’t likes ding exercise. He des exercise less than ne hur a week. That’s why he is s fat.
Kate desn’t eat t much fd every day. Her breakfast is nly an egg and 37 . She usually has sme vegetables and milk fr dinner. She desn’t eat meat because 38 .
Su Jun, a Chinese by, has an anther name—Early. He gets up early every mrning and then 39 . He als enjys tennis and ges t the Tennis Club three t five times a week. He lks strng and healthy. He likes t eat ndles r dumplings with sme vegetables fr lunch. He ften eats salad but 40 .
Nw, what’s yur answer?
第Ⅱ卷 非选择题（共40分）
四、词语运用（共两节，满分25分）
第一节 用括号中所给单词的适当形式完成下列句子。（每空仅限1个单词）（10小题，每小题1分；满分10分）
41．Here are sme ______ f my family.(pht)
42．My name is Jhn Smith. Jhn is my ______ name.(ne)
43．Let’s g t the playgrund. Sme f ______ classmates are playing there.(we)
44．Lingling ften ______ CDs f her favurite sngs.(buy)
45．Tny’s uncle is gd at ______ and he ften swims in the river.(swim)
46．There ______ a lt f furniture in this huse.(be)
47．Lk! Many peple are ______ n the beach t enjy the sun.(lie).
48．My parents always spend a lt f mney ______ bks.(buy)
49．A few ______ are in the park playing games.(child)
50．The yung ______ lks very cl and he has many fans.(act)
第二节（共10小题，每小题1.5分；满分15分）
阅读下面短文，根据括号内所给单词、首字母、音标以及语境的提示在空白处填入1个适当的单词，使短文语意连贯，意思完整。（请将完整的单词填写在答题卡相应题号后的横线上）
Mr. Smith is a yung man. He is 51 a village. He has 52 small bkstre in the center f it.
He usually sleeps（睡觉）fr nine 53 (hur) every day. He gets up in the mrning and 54 (watch) TV fr abut 10 minutes. Then he runs in the park. It’s gd exercise fr his 55 (healthy). A 56 he cmes back hme, he makes breakfast. He usually eats bread, milk and vegetables fr breakfast. At eight, he walks t his stre. It’s n 57 his hme. Then he begins t wrk. He enjys wrking at the bkstre because he can 58 [mi:t] lts f peple here and he likes making friends. Smetimes he has n time fr lunch. When he finishes his wrk, he 59 (g) hme by bus. Then he cks dinner fr his family. In the evening, he usually takes a shwer 60 then ges t bed at ten. He is busy but happy every day.
五、书面表达（15分）
春节即将来临，假如你是Wang Hua，请给外国笔友Jan写一封英文短信，向她介绍我国这个非常重要的传统节日。
要点包括：
1．What are yu ding fr Spring Festival?（如何准备）
2．What d yu usually d?（传统习俗）
3．邀请Jan来中国过春节。
写作要求：
1．词数80个左右。
2．包含所给要点，可适当增加细节；
3．书信格式正确，语句连贯，语法正确，条理清楚；书写规范整齐；
4．文中不得出现与考生本人相关的真实校名和姓名等信息。
学校______________ 考号______________ 姓名______________
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密 封 线 内 不 要 答 题
2023年冬季七年级期末试题答案及评分标准 英语
一、听力部分（每题1分，共10分）
二、完型填空（每题1分，共10分）
三、阅读理解（每题2分，共30分）
四、
五、词语运用（25分）
第一节、用括号中所给单词的适当形式完成句子（每空一词）。（每题1分，共10分）（各小题如有字母大小写错误，该题不得分）
41．phts 42．first 43．us 44．buys 45．swimming
46．is 47．lying 48．buying 49．children 50．actrs
第二节、阅读短文，根据上下文语境在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词正确形式。（共10小题；每小题1．5分，共15分）（字母大小写错误，该题得1分）
51．frm 52．a 53．hurs 54．watches 55．health
56．After 57．near 58．meet 59．ges 60．and
七、书面表达（15分）
写作评分标准：（多评误差值3分）
1．书写（规范正确）占2分；2．包含提示要点且表达正确占8分；3．语法（时态）占3分；4．格式占2分
第四档（12—15分）：很好地完成了规定的写作任务。包含所有内容要点，紧扣主题，结构完整，条理清晰，能恰当使用连接词表示各种逻辑关系；语句流畅，表达清楚准确；使用较为丰富且正确的语法结构和词汇，且错误极少；书写规范，字数符合要求。
第三档（9—12分）：较好地完成了规定的写作任务。基本上包含所有要点，紧扣主题，结构较为完整，条理清晰，能使用正确的连接词；语句完整，意思清楚；语法和词汇方面错误较少且不妨碍理解；书写较为规范，字数符合要求。
第二档（6—9分）：基本上完成了写作任务。包含主要内容要点，结构欠完整，但不影响文章整体效果；少数语句不通顺，意思基本清楚；语法和词汇方面存在一些错误；书写基本规范，字数基本符合要求。
第一档（1—5分）：未能按要求完成规定的写作任务。能写出一些关键句子，但语句不完整，词汇有限；写作内容缺少连贯性，影响理解；语法结构和词汇错误很多；书写欠规范，字数过少。
不得分（0分）：写作内容与所要求内容无关或所写内容无法看清；写作中抄袭阅读篇章中与作文话题无关的句子或段落。A．she eats ndles r sme rice fr lunch
B．she thinks it is bad fr her
C．he runs fr an hur
D．he has a nice breakfast and lunch
E．he never eats hamburgers
F．she ges t play tennis
G．he eats hamburgers fr dinner
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