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    辽宁省沈阳市和平区2022-2023学年七年级上学期期末考试英语试题

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    这是一份辽宁省沈阳市和平区2022-2023学年七年级上学期期末考试英语试题,共22页。

    注意事项:
    1.考生务必将考场/座位号、姓名、班级填写在答题卡相应位置上。
    2.考生应把试题答案答在答题卡上对应题目处,答在试卷上无效。
    3.选择题,需用2B铅笔涂黑在答题卡对应的选项中。
    听力试题
    (听力时间:20分钟 听力满分:30分)
    一、短对话理解(共8小题;每小题1. 5分,共12分)
    听下面8段短对话。每段对话后有一道小题,从每题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你将有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
    1. What des Jhn like ding?
    A. Making mdels. B. Taking phts. C. Flying kites.
    2. Hw ften dues Mike watch TV?
    A. Usually. B. Seldm. C. Smetimes.
    3. Which subject des Jim like best?
    A. Chinese. B. Maths. C. English.
    4. What time did Mary leave hme this mrning?
    A At 7 ’ clck. B. At 6 ’ clck. C. At 8 ’ clck.
    5. When did Linda and Le attend the Clubs Fair?
    A. Last year. B. Last mnth. C. Last week.
    6. Why d children lve winter?
    A. Because they can d ice sprts. B. Because they have a lng hliday. C. Because they can play in the snw.
    7. Where des the wman plan t g?
    A T Shanghai. B T Hng Kng C. T Hangzhu.
    8. What are the tw speakers talking abut?
    A. B. C.
    二、长对话理解(共12小题;每小题1. 5分,共18分)
    听下面4段长对话,每段对话后有三道小题,从每题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,听完每段对话后,你将有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。
    听第9段材料。回答第9至11题。
    9. Hw des Anna g t schl every day?
    A. On ft B. By bicycle. C. By schl bus.
    10. When des the schl day end?
    A. At 4:20 p. m. B. At 4. 30 p. m. C. At 4. 40 p. m.
    11. What des Anna like ding atter schl?
    A. Playing tennis. B. Playing table tennis. C. Playing the guitar.
    听第10段材料,回答第12至14题。
    12. What des Lucy think f the Cmputer Club?
    A. Interesting B. Exciting C. Bring.
    13. Hw ften des Lucy g t the Cmputer Club?
    A. Once 3 week. B. Twice a week. C. Three times a week.
    14. Which club is Peter in?
    A. The Vlleyball Club. B. The Ftball Club. C. The Basketball Club.
    听第11段材料,回答第15至17题。
    15. What des Susan think f living in Lndn?
    A. Bad B. Cmfrtable. C. Difficult.
    16. What’s the weather like in summer in Lndn?
    A. Warm. B. Ht C. Cl.
    17. What des Susan have t take all the time in Lndn?
    A. An umbrella. B. A hat. C. A bag.
    听第12段材料,回答第 18 至20题。
    18. What des the by want t d?
    A. T make a pster abut the Earth. B. T find a bk abut the Earth. C. T clur a picture f the Earth.
    19. Hw much f the earth is cvered with water?
    A. Abut ne quarter. B. Abut tw quarters. C. Abut three quarters.
    20 What clur is fr pllutin?
    A Black. B. Blue. C. Brwn.
    笔试试题
    (笔试时间:100分钟 满分:90分)
    第一部分 单项选择(三大题;共45分)
    一、单项选择(共10小题,每小题0.5分,满分5分)
    1. Sam’s dream is t be ________ engineer when he grws up.
    A. aB. anC. theD.
    2. I like my schl ________ the teachers are all very friendly.
    A. befreB. becauseC. sD. until
    3. There ________ a beautiful picture n the wall. Tina likes it very much.
    A. isB. areC. amD. were
    4. We shuld nt thrw rubbish int the river. It is ________ fr us t prtect the earth.
    A. interestingB. dangerusC. excitingD. imprtant
    5. My parents lve reading. These bks are ________.
    A. theyB. themC. theirD. theirs
    6. —What can yu see utside the windw Jill?
    —I can see the Mn. It ________ the sky.
    A. lks likeB. lights upC. gets nD. takes away
    7. Mike and Lucy ________ a picnic last week.
    A. haveB. will haveC. are havingD. had
    8. Shanghai is ne f ________ in the wrld.
    A. bigger citiesB. the biggest cityC. biggest cityD. the biggest cities
    9. Peter _______ getting up. He always feels tired in the mrning.
    A hatesB. likesC. remembersD. stps
    10. —The plane leaves the airprt at 3 in the afternn. We must hurry.
    —________. We have enugh time.
    A. I’m fineB. I am srryC. Dn’t wrryD. I dn’t knw
    二、完形填空(共10小题,每小题1分;满分10分)
    阅读短文,掌握其大意,然后从A、B、C、D中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
    In a frest, there lives n wl (猫头鹰). All the animals knw that he is the mst clever f them. S they ___11___ g t him and ask fr help. Then the wl always tells them hw t wrk ut their prblems.
    One day, a little bird ges up t the wl. She is crying.
    “What’s wrng with yu?” ___12___ the wl.
    “I’m nt happy at all. I dn’t want t be a bird,” she says.
    “___13___?” asks the wl.
    “I’m s small, weak and useless (没用的),” she cries. “I want t be ___14___ and strng like the lin (狮子). He is very imprtant, bus I am nt.”
    Then the wl says smething in her ___15___ in a lw vice. At nce, the bird stps crying and ges away. After ne week, the bird cmes ___16___“Oh, thank yu very much. Yu are a very clever wl.” she says t the wl. “I’m very happy nw.”
    Every day, I ___17___ n the tp (顶端) f a tall tree and watch ut fr lins and tigers. When they cme near, I shut ___18___. Then all my friends run away. They are very thankful t ___19___.”
    The wl smiles and says. “Gd, everyne in this wrld is ___20___.”
    11. A. neverB. hardlyC. ftenD. nce
    12. A. tellsB. answersC. asksD. calls
    13. A. WhenB. WhatC. WhyD. Where
    14. A. bigB. fatC. weakD. shrt
    15. A. armB. earC. legD. hand
    16. A. inB. backC. utD. by
    17. A. sitB. climbC. catchD. put
    18. A. wellB. reallyC. happilyD. ludly
    19. A. IB. meC. myD. mine
    20. A. interestingB. lstC. usefulD. easy
    三、阅读理解(共两节;满分30分
    第一节(共16小题;每小题1.5分,满分24分)
    阅读下列四篇短文. 从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
    A
    Lk at the tw sides f a card. See what yu can find.
    21. The card is used fr ________.
    A. taking a planeB. buying bksC. travelling by busD. riding a bike
    22. Lilian is a ________.
    A. singerB. university studentC. bus driverD. dctr
    23. When can yu use the card?
    A. On June 28th, 2022.B. On April 1st, 2021.
    C. On July 30th, 2022.D. On March 15th, 2021.
    24. What shuld yu d if yu find the card?
    A. Give it t my mther.B. Return it t a pliceman.
    C. G t the teacher’s ffice.D. Return it t any Stagecach driver.
    B
    Sccer fans in Qatar (卡塔尔) are having the mst exciting time. They can bth enjy the Wrld Cup, they can als take a lk at a super big sccer she.
    The she is 5 meters, lng and 2 meters tall. It weighs abut 5,000 kilgrams. It is the wrld’s largest sccer she. Wh can wear such a big she?
    Indian artist Muhammed Dileef spent seven mnths making the she. He used the same materials (材料) as usual sccer shes. Muhammed is famus fr making super big things. He made the biggest marker pen, bicycle, cleaner, and mre. They are amng the Guinness Wrld Recrds.
    25. What can sccer fans in Qatar d accrding t the text?
    A. They can have a big meal.
    B. They can learn t make shes.
    C. They can learn abut the Guinness Wrld Recrds.
    D. They can enjy the Wrld Cup and lk at the super big sccer she.
    26. Hw much des the she weigh?
    A. Abut 500 kilgrams.B. Abut 5 kilgrams.
    C. Abut 5,000 kilgrams.D. Less than 400 kilgrams.
    27. Where des Muhammed Dileef cme frm?
    A. China.B. America.C. India.D. Japan.
    28. What d we knw abut the super big sccer she?
    A. Anyne can wear it.
    B. It is made f an unusual material.
    C. It is the smallest she in the wrld.
    D. Muhammed Dileef spent seven mnths making the she.
    C
    Hell, human friends! My name is Nick. I am a turtle (海龟). I have lived in the sea fr ver half a century (世纪). Many turtles can live t be mre than 100 years ld. But nw, many f my friends are dying frm ne thing—plastic (塑料).
    Human beings use t much plastic and thrw lts f plastic int the sea. Mst f my friends d nt knw the danger f plastic. They think it is fd. But in fact, plastic is pisnus (有毒的). Abut 30% f my friends have plastic in their stmachs. I have plastic in my bdy, t.
    Plastic can als kill ther sea animals. Last mnth, a whale died after eating 80 plastic bags. I feel s sad abut it because we have the same living envirnment.
    My human friends, please stp using t much plastic. Maybe ne plastic bag r ne cffee cup wn’t make a difference. But when seven billin peple all start t use a little plastic, it will make a big difference. Dn’t yu think s?
    29. Hw ld is Nick in the text nw?
    A. Abut 80 years ld.B. Abut 30 years ld.
    C. Mre than 50 years ld.D. Mre than 100 years ld.
    30. Which is true accrding t the text?
    A. Plastic nly kills turtles.
    B. Plastic in the sea is dangerus t sea animals.
    C. Every turtle can live as lng as 100 years ld.
    D. Abut S0%f the turtles get sick because f pllutin.
    31. Why d many sea animals have plastic in their stmachs?
    A. Because they think plastic is beautiful.
    B. Because they think plastic is their fd.
    C. Because they dn’t have enugh fd t cat.
    D. Because they think plastic is bad fr their health.
    32. What is the text mainly abut?
    A. Smething abut turtles’ fd.B. All the sea animals are in danger.
    C. Peple shuld prtect sea animals.D. There shuld nt be plastic n the earth.
    D
    Peple have birthdays in every cuntry in the wrld. And they celebrate (庆祝) them in many different ways.
    In many cuntries, birthday custms (习俗) are changing, but ne thing never changes—birthdays are special days fr everyne.
    33. Hw many cuntries are there in the text?
    A. Six.B. Seven.C. Eight.D. Nine.
    34. What des the underlined phrase “is lifted up” mean in the text?
    A. 被举起B. 被安慰C. 被批评D. 被发现
    35. In which cuntry the birthday persn bth gets gifts and gives gifts t thers?
    A. China.B. Brazil.C. Hlland.D. Mexic.
    36. Which is the best title (标题) f the text?
    A. Fd n ur birthdaysB. Reasns fr ur birthdays
    C. Festivals arund the wrldD. Birthday custms in different cuntries
    第二节(共4小题,每小题1.5分,共6分)
    阅读下面短文,从文后的五个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。其中有一项为多余选项。
    D yu enjy the warmth f the sun n a winter’s day? In winter, it can be hard t catch sunlight. ___37___
    Feeling the sunlight n a winter’s day is a great way t make yu feel happy because sunlight des gd t yur brains. ___38___
    Yur bdy als needs sunlight t make vitamin D. It helps yu keep healthy. ___39___ Fr example, vitamin A is imprtant fr yur eyes and vitamin D is gd fr teeth.
    T enjy the utdrs this winter, keep warm and stay dry. ___40___ G cycling, play ftball, r g fr a walk with yur family r friends. Stay ut in the sun fr as lng as yu can, and when yu cme back, enjy a warm drink.
    A. There are many ways t make sunlight.
    B. The bdy needs vitamin t wrk prperly.
    C. Yu sleep better and feel less sad with better brains.
    D. When it’s sunny, find an utdr activity yu enjy.
    E. But spending time in sunlight helps yu stay healthy and happy.
    第二部分 非选择题(四大题;共45分)
    四、回答问题(共4小题,每小题2分;满分8分)
    阅读图文,然后根据内容回答所提问题。
    Lk at the pster and learn abut an interesting club at Rsie Bridge Schl.
    41. What is the text?
    ___________________________________________________
    42. Hw ften d the students attend the drama club?
    ___________________________________________________
    43. Hw lng des the drama chub last?
    ___________________________________________________
    44. Wh can yu study with in the drama club?
    ___________________________________________________
    五、阅读填空(共7小题,每小题1分;满分7分)
    用括号中所给词的适当形式填空
    Rules (规则) are imprtant in ur lives. Every schl ___45___ (have) its rules. Here are sme schl rules.
    Japanese schl rules
    Mst Japanese schls ask the students ___46___ (wear) unifrms. In many f the schls, if the schls dn’t allw (允许), students can’t g t the cinema, leave hme in the evening r play cmputer ___47___ (game).
    Different shes in the UK
    In sme schls, students must wear indr shes at schl ___48___ (day). S they can’t fall dwn, and wearing indr shes can keep ___49___ (they) safe. They can keep the schl clean t. Students can’t eat gum (口香糖), because peple have t spend much time ___50___ (clean) it.
    N strange hair in the USA
    Students can’t have strange hair in sme ___51___ (America) schls. But the students can have certain hairstyles (发型) in the Wrld Cup years.
    六、任务型阅读(共5小题,每小题2分;满分10分)
    阅读短文,然后按照要求完成各小题。
    Sprts can be a lt f fun. They are als a great way t get exercise and stay healthy. (A) 保持安全是重要的。 Here are three ways t take care f yurself (B) while yu are playing sprts.
    Mve and stretch (拉伸)
    Befre playing sprts, it’s gd (C) ________ get warm up. G fr a light jg. Learn the right ways t stretch. This will help yu get less hurt.
    Listen up!
    (D) Rules aren’t nly t keep the game fair (公平的) but als t keep yu safe. Listen t yur cach. He r she will keep yu and yur playmates safe in the game.
    Drink Water
    The bdy needs water. When yu sweat (出汗), yur bdy lses water. That’s why it’s (E) ________ gd idea t keep a water bttle nearby during play. (F) Take a break and drink up!
    52. 将文中画线部分(A)译成英语:
    ______________________________________________
    53. 写出文中画线部分(B)和(F)的同义词或近义词:_________;________
    54. 在文中(C)和(E)的空白处填入适当的单词:________;________
    55. 将文中画线部分(D)改写为:
    Rules are t ________ keep the game fair ________ keep yu safe
    56. 从文中找出两个在运动中保持安全的方法:________;_________
    七、书面表达(满分 20分)
    57. 每个人都有自己喜欢的东西。人们收藏自己喜欢的东西来丰富生活。你所在学校最近就这个话题展开讨论,请你写一篇文章来说明你的观点。
    内容包括:
    1.你收藏是什么;
    2.介绍此项收藏以及它对你的影响;
    3.对于收藏你未来的打算;
    注意:
    1.词数60—80词,可以适当增加内容,以使行文流畅。
    2.开头已为你写好,不计入总词数。
    Many peple have cllectins in their lives.
    _________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
    2022-2023学年上学期七年级检测试卷
    七年英语
    时间:120分钟 满分:120分
    注意事项:
    1.考生务必将考场/座位号、姓名、班级填写在答题卡相应位置上。
    2.考生应把试题答案答在答题卡上对应题目处,答在试卷上无效。
    3.选择题,需用2B铅笔涂黑在答题卡对应的选项中。
    听力试题
    (听力时间:20分钟 听力满分:30分)
    一、短对话理解(共8小题;每小题1. 5分,共12分)
    听下面8段短对话。每段对话后有一道小题,从每题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你将有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
    1. What des Jhn like ding?
    A. Making mdels. B. Taking phts. C. Flying kites.
    2. Hw ften dues Mike watch TV?
    A. Usually. B. Seldm. C. Smetimes.
    3. Which subject des Jim like best?
    A. Chinese. B. Maths. C. English.
    4. What time did Mary leave hme this mrning?
    A At 7 ’ clck. B. At 6 ’ clck. C. At 8 ’ clck.
    5. When did Linda and Le attend the Clubs Fair?
    A. Last year. B. Last mnth. C. Last week.
    6. Why d children lve winter?
    A. Because they can d ice sprts. B. Because they have a lng hliday. C. Because they can play in the snw.
    7. Where des the wman plan t g?
    A. T Shanghai. B T Hng Kng C. T Hangzhu.
    8. What are the tw speakers talking abut?
    A. B. C.
    二、长对话理解(共12小题;每小题1. 5分,共18分)
    听下面4段长对话,每段对话后有三道小题,从每题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,听完每段对话后,你将有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。
    听第9段材料。回答第9至11题。
    9. Hw des Anna g t schl every day?
    A. On ft B. By bicycle. C. By schl bus.
    10. When des the schl day end?
    A. At 4:20 p. m. B. At 4. 30 p. m. C. At 4. 40 p. m.
    11. What des Anna like ding atter schl?
    A. Playing tennis. B. Playing table tennis. C. Playing the guitar.
    听第10段材料,回答第12至14题。
    12. What des Lucy think f the Cmputer Club?
    A. Interesting B. Exciting C. Bring.
    13. Hw ften des Lucy g t the Cmputer Club?
    A. Once 3 week. B. Twice a week. C. Three times a week.
    14. Which club is Peter in?
    A. The Vlleyball Club. B. The Ftball Club. C. The Basketball Club.
    听第11段材料,回答第15至17题。
    15. What des Susan think f living in Lndn?
    A. Bad B. Cmfrtable. C. Difficult.
    16. What’s the weather like in summer in Lndn?
    A. Warm. B. Ht C. Cl.
    17. What des Susan have t take all the time in Lndn?
    A. An umbrella. B. A hat. C. A bag.
    听第12段材料,回答第 18 至20题。
    18. What des the by want t d?
    A. T make a pster abut the Earth. B. T find a bk abut the Earth. C. T clur a picture f the Earth.
    19. Hw much f the earth is cvered with water?
    A. Abut ne quarter. B. Abut tw quarters. C. Abut three quarters.
    20. What clur is fr pllutin?
    A Black. B. Blue. C. Brwn.
    笔试试题
    (笔试时间:100分钟 满分:90分)
    第一部分 单项选择(三大题;共45分)
    一、单项选择(共10小题,每小题0.5分,满分5分)
    【1题答案】
    【答案】B
    【2题答案】
    【答案】B
    【3题答案】
    【答案】A
    【4题答案】
    【答案】D
    【5题答案】
    【答案】D
    【6题答案】
    【答案】B
    【7题答案】
    【答案】D
    【8题答案】
    【答案】D
    【9题答案】
    【答案】A
    【10题答案】
    【答案】C
    二、完形填空(共10小题,每小题1分;满分10分)
    【11~20题答案】
    【答案】11. C 12. C 13. C 14. A 15. B 16. B 17. A 18. D 19. B 20. C
    三、阅读理解(共两节;满分30分
    第一节(共16小题;每小题1.5分,满分24分)
    阅读下列四篇短文. 从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
    A
    【21~24题答案】
    【答案】21. C 22. B 23. A 24. D
    【25~28题答案】
    【答案】25. D 26. C 27. C 28. D
    C
    【29~32题答案】
    【答案】29. C 30. B 31. B 32. C
    D
    【33~36题答案】
    【答案】33. B 34. A 35. C 36. D
    第二节(共4小题,每小题1.5分,共6分)
    【37~40题答案】
    【答案】37. E 38. C 39. B 40. D
    第二部分 非选择题(四大题;共45分)
    四、回答问题(共4小题,每小题2分;满分8分)
    【41~44题答案】
    【答案】41. A pster.
    42. Once a week.
    43. (Fr) an hur.
    44. Miss Byed and Cnnr Yung
    五、阅读填空(共7小题,每小题1分;满分7分)
    【45~51题答案】
    【答案】45. has
    46. t wear
    47. games 48. daily
    49. them 50. cleaning
    51. American
    六、任务型阅读(共5小题,每小题2分;满分10分)
    【52~56题答案】
    【答案】52. It’s imprtant t keep/stay safe.
    53. ①. when ②. Have
    54. ①. t ②. a
    55. ①. bth ②. and
    56. ①. mve and stretch ②. listen up/drink water (任选两个)
    七、书面表达(满分 20分)
    【57题答案】
    【答案】例文
    Many peple have cllectins in their lives. I have a lt f things t cllect, but the nly thing I lve the mst is my eraser.
    This rubber was awarded t me by the teacher because I did well in the exam. Frm then n, I didn’t want t use this eraser. There were memries f my teacher rewarding me with gd grades in this eraser!
    Later, the teacher left and she went t vlunteer teaching. S, I cherish my eraser even mre. I will cherish the things I cllect.Side A
    N. 293083
    Side B
    N. 293083
    Student Bus Card
    Name: Lilian
    Frm: April 1st, 2022
    T: June 30th, 2022
    Price: £180
    Thank yu fr travelling with us.
    Cllege: University f Chichester
    Valid (有效的) fr travel when it’s used in the bus cmpanies f Stagecach. Seasn, Gldrider and Busabut in the UK.
    If the card is fund, please return it t any Stagecach driver.
    In Brazil, the special birthday fd isn’t cake, but special candies.
    In China, peple eat lng ndles as a wish fr lng life.
    In Iceland, peple have pancakes with candies in them n birthdays.
    In Britain, peple have birthday all day. At schl, the birthday child is lifted up high and bumped (碰撞) by his classmates. This means the child can grw up happily and healthily.
    In Hlland, children nt nly get gifts, they give things t thers t. They give cakes, ckies and candies t their classmates and teachers n their birthday.
    In Mexic, it’s gd luck t give birthday greetings as early in the day as pssible. S it’s usual fr the birthday child t wake up at midnight with friends singing birthday sngs.
    In Thailand, the birthday persn hlds a tall candle. The candle is as tall as the birthday persn. It will bring gd luck t him r her.
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