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武汉大学附属外国语学校2022-2023学年上学期期末调研七年级英语试卷
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这是一份武汉大学附属外国语学校2022-2023学年上学期期末调研七年级英语试卷，共15页。试卷主要包含了听力测试，选择填空，情景交际，完形填空，阅读理解，选词填空，七选五，阅读短文，按要求填词，书面表达等内容，欢迎下载使用。
一、听力测试 (共三节)
第一节 (共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分)
听下面5个问题。每个问题后有三个答语，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每个问题后，你都有5秒钟的时间来作答和阅读下一小题。每个问题仅读一遍。
1. A. Sally. B. In Wuhan. C. Srry.
2. A. 87452536. B. January 5th. C. $15.
3. A. Lily’s. B. Yellw. C. Friday.
4. A. At six thirty. B. In June. C. On the chair.
5. A. Friday. B. Ms. Xie. C. English.
第二节 (共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分)
听下面5个对话。从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出你所听到的单词。听完每个对话后，你都有5秒钟的时间来作答和阅读下一小题。每个对话仅读一遍。
6. A. sweater B. skirt C. shes
7. A. five B. fifth C. fifteen
8. A. Tuesday B. Sunday C. Saturday
9. A. basketball B. baseball C. ftball
10. A. cabbage B. carrts C. candies
第三节 (共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
11. What clr is Mary’s jacket?
A. Red. B. Blue. C. White.
12. Where are the tw speakers?
A. At hme. B. At a stre. C. At schl.
13. Hw ld is the by?
A. 10. B. 13. C. 30.
14. What fruit des Frank like?
A. Apples. B. Bananas. C. Oranges.
15. Hw much are the pen and the ntebk?
A. 9 yuan. B. 10 yuan. C. 11 yuan.
第四节 (共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分)
听下面3段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间，每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话，完成16～18三个小题。
16. When des Rick’s schl start?
A. At 7: 00. B. At 7: 30. C. At 8: 00.
17. Why des Rick have lunch at hme?
A. Because he desn’t like the fd at schl.
B. Because his hme is near the schl.
C. Because there is n restaurant in his schl.
18. What’s Rick’s favrite subject?
A. English. B. Chinese. C. Math.
听下面一段对话，完成第19～21三个小题。
19. What are Mary and Jhn late fr?
A. The vlleyball game. B. The tennis game. C. The basketball game.
20. When d they have an English test?
A. This Thursday. B. This Friday. C. Next Friday.
21. Wh is gd at English
A. Mary. B. Alan. C. Jhn.
听下面一段读白，完成第22～25四个小题。
22. Lisa’s grandma dances with __________ in the park.
A. her ld friends B. her husband C. her children
23. Lisa’s grandma ges t the art club t __________.
A. draw picturesB. have painting lessns C. enjy beautiful pictures
24. Lisa’s grandma studies English __________.
A. every Mnday and TuesdayB. n Saturday mrningC. n Sunday mrning
25. Every time Lisa visits grandma, they wuld have meals __________.
A. at hmeB. in a fast fd restaurantC. in a Chinese fd restaurant
二、选择填空 (每小题1分，共15分)
26. The stressed syllable in the wrd “afternn’ is __________
A. afternn B. afternn C. afternn D. afternn
27. The letter “u” in the wrd __________ is prnunced differently (发音不同) .
A. music B. uncle C. lunch D. ugly
28. — Hw are yu ding?
—__________.
A. Fine, thank yu. B. That’s OK. C. Hw d yu d? D. That’s all right.
29. —Jim, are thse bks __________?
—Yes, they are __________ bks, Mr. Zhu. He will pick them up sn.
A. yurs; yur B. hers; his C. his; his D. yurs; mine
30. — D yu knw that __________ ne-year-ld baby girl can speak three languages?
— That’s great. Maybe her parents cme frm different cuntries.
A. a B. an C. the D. I
31. —Must I d my hmewrk in class?
—N, yu needn’t. Yu __________ d it after class.
A. must B. can C. need D. can’t
32. My aunt has fur daughters. Amng them __________ birthday is n the same day.
A. Kate’s and Jane’s B. Kate’s and Jane
C. Kate and Jane’s D. Kate and Janes’
33. Lk! Five __________ teachers are watching thse __________ students playing sccer.
A. wmen; girl B. wmen; girlsC. wman; girl D. wman; girls
34. They will leave fr the U. S. __________ the mrning __________ January 4th
A. in; in B. fr; f C. n; f D. n; in
35. — Jack, tmrrw is Saturday. Hw abut ging t the mvies?
—__________.
A. That’s rightB. That sunds great C. Gd luck! D. OK, g ahead.
36. —Jhn’s birthday is cming.
— Let’s __________ a gift fr him.
A. think abut B. thank fr C. ask fr D. take ut
37. __________ cmes befre Octber and it’s the __________ mnth f the year.
A. September; nineth B. Nvember; eleventh
C. September; ninth D. Nvember; eleven
38. —My grandpa gets well frm Cvid withut medicine.
—Great! I guess he must eat __________ and sleep __________.
A. gd; well B. healthy; well C. healthily; gd D. healthily; well
39. —Wh is the ld man ver there?
— That’s my math teacher. He __________ ld, but he’s nly 40.
A. sunds B. lks C. sees D. grws
40. — I dn’t knw __________ his e-mail address (地址) is __________.
— Let me write it fr yu.
A. what B. wh C. when D. hw
三、情景交际 (每小题1分，共10分)
(1) 从B栏中选出与A栏相搭配的答语。
A B
41. Hw much are these scks? A. Ms. Lin.
42. When is yur birthday? B. Science.
43. What’s her favrite subject? C. Tw dllars.
44. Wh is yur music teacher? D. Because it’s fun.
45. Why des Frank like P. E. ? E. On August 5th.
(2) 补全对话，根据其内容选择适当的句子，使对话完整、流畅。
A. Hw abut this pair?
B. I’ll take it.
C. I need a pair f jeans.
D. D yu have dark blue jeans?
E. Hw much is it?
A: Can I help yu?
B: 46
A: What abut these jeans? They are cmfrtable (舒适) and they are fit fr sprts.
B: They lk nice, but I dn’t like the clr. 47
A: Yes. 48
B: I like this ne. 49
A: 200 yuan.
B: OK, 50
四、完形填空 (每小题1分，共10分)
Michael is a middle schl student. He has a math 51 next Mnday. It is nt a(n) 52 subject fr him, s he spends three days t study (学习) 53 it. He is 54 these days. He lcks (锁) himself in his 55 . He lcks his phne and cmputer in the bkcase. There is a radi n his desk. He thinks music can 56 him study.
After tw days he can’t slve (解) a math 57 and he needs help. He 58 Kevin fr help because he is gd at math, and Kevin cmes t help him 59 Sunday mrning. After that, Steve is ready fr (为 ... 做好准备) the test.
The tw-hur test finishes and Steve is happy because he thinks he can 60 high grades.
51. A. teacher B. party C. lessn D. test
52. A. difficult B. easy C. big D. small
53. A. abut B. fr C. n D. at
54. A. tidy B. busy C. happy D. free
55. A. family B. classrm C. bedrm D. stre
56. A. listen B. help C. let D. make
57. A. bk B. mdel C. class D. questin
58. A. thanks B. meets C. asks D. knws
59. A. in B. n C. at D. fr
60. A. play B. lse C. get D. buy
五、阅读理解 (每小题2分，共30分)
A
61. What time des New City Z pen?
A. At 9: 00 p. m. B. At 10: 00 p. m. C. At 9: 00 a. m. D. At 11: 00 a. m.
62. At 2: 45 in the afternn, visitrs can have a clse lk at __________.
A. elephants B. bears C. wlves D. mnkeys
63. With a __________, visitrs can take the mini-train.
A. hand stamp B. 1-Day Pass C. yearly card D. bus ticket
64. The underlined wrd “Vilatrs” in the material means peple wh __________.
A. visit the z B. lk after the animals
C. feed (喂养) the animals D. dn’t buy the z tickets
65. The passage may be __________.
A. an ad B. a letter C. a ntice D. a stry
B
64-year-ld Zhang Guimei is a teacher. She helps yung girls frm pr families in Yunnan t g t schl. When Zhang was 17, she began t teach in a middle schl in Huaping Cunty. Once, she gt ill but had n mney fr the treatment (治疗) . With the help f the peple there, she gt healthy. “I must d smething fr them,” Zhang said.
After that, she came up with an idea f a free-tuitin (学费) high schl. In 2002, she had a six-year jurney t cllect (筹集) mney. In 2008, Zhang set up (创办) Huaping Girls HighSchl. Nw, abut 1, 600 girls frm the schl went t universities (大学). “Thanks t Zhang, she makes us girls frm pr families g and see the wrld utside,” said Yang Qian, a graduate (毕业生) frm Zhang’s schl.
Zhang’s stry mves many peple. T help her, 46 graduates frm Yunnan Nrmal University ges t her schl each year.
66. What des Zhang d t help thse yung girls?
A. She becmes a teacher. B. She gives them mney.
C. She helps them t g t schl. D. She helps pr families.
67. Why des Zhang want t help peple in Huaping Cunty?
A. Because she teaches there. B. Because she has n mney
C. Because she wants the treatment. D. Because she gt help frm peple there.
68. What des the underlined phrase “came up with” mean?
A. 实现 B. 想出 C. 拿出 D. 隐藏
69. Hw wuld the Yunnan Nrmal University help Zhang?
A. By giving mre jbs t her students.
B. By giving all her students a gd educatin (教育).
C. By giving mney t her schl.
D. By helping her schl with teaching wrk.
70. Which f the fllwing can be the BEST title fr the passage?
A. A Gd Schl B. A Wnderful Dream
C. A Great Teacher D. Pr Girls
C
As COVID-19 spreads in the wrld, many cuntries are changing (改变) their habits f greetings. Frenchmen tuch each ther’s faces. But nw, this habit may have t stp. A Frenchman said that lking int a persn’s eyes can be enugh.
In Brazil, chimarra is a different drink. A grup f clse friends pass (传递) the tea arund in a cup, and everyne takes turns (轮流) t drink it. But nw, peple are tld nt t share it.
Australians are quite free when it cmes t greetings. “G’day (你好), mate”, a handshake, and smile will be enugh. But nw Australians are tld t take a pat (拍) n the back.
Peple in Iran shake hands t greet with ne anther. But tday, COVID-19 has made “ftshake” a new way f greeting.
71. Peple in many cuntries change ways t __________.
A. fight Cvid B. stay at hmeC. say “hell” D. be different
72. This passage mainly intrduces fur new __________.
A. freign cuntries B. special drinksC. lcal languages D. greeting habits
73. If yu meet yur friend Jenny in Australia this year, yu’d better __________ as a greeting.
A. tuch her face B. pat her backC. share a drinkD. lk int her eyes
74. Frm the passage, we learn that “ftshake” has been a new way f greeting in __________.
A. France B. Brazil C. Australia D. Iran
75. Which f the fllwing can be the BEST title fr the passage?
A. Saying “hell” B. Greeting habits
C. Changing greeting habits D. Peple in different cuntries
abut/ fr / fun / need / funny / sale / sell
六、选词填空，七选五 (共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分)
76. Our Chinese teacher, Mrs. Wang, is great __________.
77. Cme and buy yur clthes at ur great __________.
78. What d yu __________ fr yur party?
79. David asks the vlleyball star, Cindy Smith, __________ her eating habits.
80. We have sme interesting things __________ yu this term.
七、阅读短文，按要求填词 (10分)
In summer, when it rains (下雨), we can’t g ut and d s___________ (81). We just stay at hme and it’s very b___________ (82). But in winter, if it snws we h___________ (83) a lt f things t d. Fr example, we can make a snwman (雪人). It is e___________ (84) t make a snwman. We just l___________ (85) a snwball rll (滚) n the grund until it’s big enugh. N___________ (86), we rll anther (又一个) snwball as (作为) the h___________ (87) f the snwman. Then put (放) the s___________ (88) snwball n the big snwball. It is a snwman nw.
Yu can als have snwball fights (打雪仗). After the snw, a lt f peple g___________ (89) t the playgrund. They thrw (投) small snwballs t each ther. It’s very r___________ (90). It makes peple warm and healthy. A lt f peple like it, especially bys.
八、书面表达 (15分)
假如你是Lucy, 想给你在美国的朋友Anna发一封电子邮件，告诉她你的中学生活。内容包括：
1. 每天7：50到校，6：00放学：
2. 最喜欢周四，因为下午只有两节课；
3. 最喜欢的学科是地理，经常在地理方面帮助同学；
4. 放学后和同学一起运动，保持身体健康；
5. 补充一两点相关信息或想法。
注意：
1. 文中不得透露个人姓名和学校名称；
2. 词数：60-80：
3. 内容连贯，不要逐条翻译；
4. 开头已给出，不计入总词数。
参考词汇： get t 到达 help sb. with sth. 帮某人做某事 d sprts 运动
Dear Anna,
Hw’s it ging? I’m glad t tell yu smething abut my middle schl life. _________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Yurs,
Lucy
武大外校2022-2023学年度第一学期期末调研
七年级 英语试卷 参考答案
一、听力部分 (共25小题，每小题1分，满分25分)
略
二、选择填空 (共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分)
26-30 CAACA31-35 BCACB36-40 ACDBA
三、完情景交际填空 (本题共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分)
41-45 CEBAD46-50 CDAEB
四、完形填空 (本题共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分)
51-55 DBBBC56-60 BDCBC
五、阅读理解 (本题共15小题，每小题2分，满分30分)
61-65 CBACC66-70 CDBDC71-75 CDBDC
六、词与短语填空 (本题共5小题，每小题2分，本题共10分)
71. fun72. sale73. need74. abut75. fr
七、阅读理解填词 (本题共10小题，每小题1分，本题共10分)
76. sprts77. bring78. have79. easy80. let
81. Next82. head83. small84. g / get85. relaxing
八、书面表达 (本题共1小题，满分15分)
略
一、听力测试 (共三节)
第一节 (共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分)
听下面5个问题。每个问题后有三个答语，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每个问题后，你都有5秒钟的时间来作答和阅读下一小题。每个问题仅读一遍。
1. A. Sally. B. In Wuhan. C. Srry.
2. A. 87452536. B. January 5th. C. $15.
3. A. Lily’s. B. Yellw. C. Friday.
4. A. At six thirty. B. In June. C. On the chair.
5. A. Friday. B. Ms. Xie. C. English.
第二节 (共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分)
听下面5个对话。从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出你所听到的单词。听完每个对话后，你都有5秒钟的时间来作答和阅读下一小题。每个对话仅读一遍。
6. A. sweater B. skirt C. shes
7. A. five B. fifth C. fifteen
8. A. Tuesday B. Sunday C. Saturday
9. A. basketball B. baseball C. ftball
10. A. cabbage B. carrts C. candies
第三节 (共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
11. What clr is Mary’s jacket?
A. Red. B. Blue. C. White.
12. Where are the tw speakers?
A. At hme. B. At a stre. C. At schl.
13. Hw ld is the by?
A. 10. B. 13. C. 30.
14. What fruit des Frank like?
A. Apples. B. Bananas. C. Oranges.
15. Hw much are the pen and the ntebk?
A. 9 yuan. B. 10 yuan. C. 11 yuan.
第四节 (共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分)
听下面3段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间，每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话，完成16～18三个小题。
16. When des Rick’s schl start?
A. At 7: 00. B. At 7: 30. C. At 8: 00.
17. Why des Rick have lunch at hme?
A. Because he desn’t like the fd at schl.
B. Because his hme is near the schl.
C. Because there is n restaurant in his schl.
18. What’s Rick’s favrite subject?
A. English. B. Chinese. C. Math.
听下面一段对话，完成第19～21三个小题。
19. What are Mary and Jhn late fr?
A. The vlleyball game. B. The tennis game. C. The basketball game.
20. When d they have an English test?
A. This Thursday. B. This Friday. C. Next Friday.
21. Wh is gd at English
A. Mary. B. Alan. C. Jhn.
听下面一段读白，完成第22～25四个小题。
22. Lisa’s grandma dances with __________ in the park.
A. her ld friends B. her husband C. her children
23. Lisa’s grandma ges t the art club t __________.
A. draw picturesB. have painting lessns C. enjy beautiful pictures
24. Lisa’s grandma studies English __________.
A. every Mnday and TuesdayB. n Saturday mrningC. n Sunday mrning
25. Every time Lisa visits grandma, they wuld have meals __________.
A. at hmeB. in a fast fd restaurantC. in a Chinese fd restaurant
二、选择填空 (每小题1分，共15分)
26. The stressed syllable in the wrd “afternn’ is __________
A. afternn B. afternn C. afternn D. afternn
27. The letter “u” in the wrd __________ is prnunced differently (发音不同) .
A. music B. uncle C. lunch D. ugly
28. — Hw are yu ding?
—__________.
A. Fine, thank yu. B. That’s OK. C. Hw d yu d? D. That’s all right.
29. —Jim, are thse bks __________?
—Yes, they are __________ bks, Mr. Zhu. He will pick them up sn.
A. yurs; yur B. hers; his C. his; his D. yurs; mine
30. — D yu knw that __________ ne-year-ld baby girl can speak three languages?
— That’s great. Maybe her parents cme frm different cuntries.
A. a B. an C. the D. I
31. —Must I d my hmewrk in class?
—N, yu needn’t. Yu __________ d it after class.
A. must B. can C. need D. can’t
32. My aunt has fur daughters. Amng them __________ birthday is n the same day.
A. Kate’s and Jane’s B. Kate’s and Jane
C. Kate and Jane’s D. Kate and Janes’
33. Lk! Five __________ teachers are watching thse __________ students playing sccer.
A. wmen; girl B. wmen; girlsC. wman; girl D. wman; girls
34. They will leave fr the U. S. __________ the mrning __________ January 4th
A. in; in B. fr; f C. n; f D. n; in
35. — Jack, tmrrw is Saturday. Hw abut ging t the mvies?
—__________.
A. That’s rightB. That sunds great C. Gd luck! D. OK, g ahead.
36. —Jhn’s birthday is cming.
— Let’s __________ a gift fr him.
A. think abut B. thank fr C. ask fr D. take ut
37. __________ cmes befre Octber and it’s the __________ mnth f the year.
A. September; nineth B. Nvember; eleventh
C. September; ninth D. Nvember; eleven
38. —My grandpa gets well frm Cvid withut medicine.
—Great! I guess he must eat __________ and sleep __________.
A. gd; well B. healthy; well C. healthily; gd D. healthily; well
39. —Wh is the ld man ver there?
— That’s my math teacher. He __________ ld, but he’s nly 40.
A. sunds B. lks C. sees D. grws
40. — I dn’t knw __________ his e-mail address (地址) is __________.
— Let me write it fr yu.
A. what B. wh C. when D. hw
三、情景交际 (每小题1分，共10分)
(1) 从B栏中选出与A栏相搭配的答语。
A B
41. Hw much are these scks? A. Ms. Lin.
42. When is yur birthday? B. Science.
43. What’s her favrite subject? C. Tw dllars.
44. Wh is yur music teacher? D. Because it’s fun.
45. Why des Frank like P. E. ? E. On August 5th.
(2) 补全对话，根据其内容选择适当的句子，使对话完整、流畅。
A. Hw abut this pair?
B. I’ll take it.
C. I need a pair f jeans.
D. D yu have dark blue jeans?
E. Hw much is it?
A: Can I help yu?
B: 46
A: What abut these jeans? They are cmfrtable (舒适) and they are fit fr sprts.
B: They lk nice, but I dn’t like the clr. 47
A: Yes. 48
B: I like this ne. 49
A: 200 yuan.
B: OK, 50
四、完形填空 (每小题1分，共10分)
Michael is a middle schl student. He has a math 51 next Mnday. It is nt a(n) 52 subject fr him, s he spends three days t study (学习) 53 it. He is 54 these days. He lcks (锁) himself in his 55 . He lcks his phne and cmputer in the bkcase. There is a radi n his desk. He thinks music can 56 him study.
After tw days he can’t slve (解) a math 57 and he needs help. He 58 Kevin fr help because he is gd at math, and Kevin cmes t help him 59 Sunday mrning. After that, Steve is ready fr (为 ... 做好准备) the test.
The tw-hur test finishes and Steve is happy because he thinks he can 60 high grades.
51. A. teacher B. party C. lessn D. test
52. A. difficult B. easy C. big D. small
53. A. abut B. fr C. n D. at
54. A. tidy B. busy C. happy D. free
55. A. family B. classrm C. bedrm D. stre
56. A. listen B. help C. let D. make
57. A. bk B. mdel C. class D. questin
58. A. thanks B. meets C. asks D. knws
59. A. in B. n C. at D. fr
60. A. play B. lse C. get D. buy
五、阅读理解 (每小题2分，共30分)
A
61. What time des New City Z pen?
A. At 9: 00 p. m. B. At 10: 00 p. m. C. At 9: 00 a. m. D. At 11: 00 a. m.
62. At 2: 45 in the afternn, visitrs can have a clse lk at __________.
A. elephants B. bears C. wlves D. mnkeys
63. With a __________, visitrs can take the mini-train.
A. hand stamp B. 1-Day Pass C. yearly card D. bus ticket
64. The underlined wrd “Vilatrs” in the material means peple wh __________.
A. visit the z B. lk after the animals
C. feed (喂养) the animals D. dn’t buy the z tickets
65. The passage may be __________.
A. an ad B. a letter C. a ntice D. a stry
B
64-year-ld Zhang Guimei is a teacher. She helps yung girls frm pr families in Yunnan t g t schl. When Zhang was 17, she began t teach in a middle schl in Huaping Cunty. Once, she gt ill but had n mney fr the treatment (治疗) . With the help f the peple there, she gt healthy. “I must d smething fr them,” Zhang said.
After that, she came up with an idea f a free-tuitin (学费) high schl. In 2002, she had a six-year jurney t cllect (筹集) mney. In 2008, Zhang set up (创办) Huaping Girls HighSchl. Nw, abut 1, 600 girls frm the schl went t universities (大学). “Thanks t Zhang, she makes us girls frm pr families g and see the wrld utside,” said Yang Qian, a graduate (毕业生) frm Zhang’s schl.
Zhang’s stry mves many peple. T help her, 46 graduates frm Yunnan Nrmal University ges t her schl each year.
66. What des Zhang d t help thse yung girls?
A. She becmes a teacher. B. She gives them mney.
C. She helps them t g t schl. D. She helps pr families.
67. Why des Zhang want t help peple in Huaping Cunty?
A. Because she teaches there. B. Because she has n mney
C. Because she wants the treatment. D. Because she gt help frm peple there.
68. What des the underlined phrase “came up with” mean?
A. 实现 B. 想出 C. 拿出 D. 隐藏
69. Hw wuld the Yunnan Nrmal University help Zhang?
A. By giving mre jbs t her students.
B. By giving all her students a gd educatin (教育).
C. By giving mney t her schl.
D. By helping her schl with teaching wrk.
70. Which f the fllwing can be the BEST title fr the passage?
A. A Gd Schl B. A Wnderful Dream
C. A Great Teacher D. Pr Girls
C
As COVID-19 spreads in the wrld, many cuntries are changing (改变) their habits f greetings. Frenchmen tuch each ther’s faces. But nw, this habit may have t stp. A Frenchman said that lking int a persn’s eyes can be enugh.
In Brazil, chimarra is a different drink. A grup f clse friends pass (传递) the tea arund in a cup, and everyne takes turns (轮流) t drink it. But nw, peple are tld nt t share it.
Australians are quite free when it cmes t greetings. “G’day (你好), mate”, a handshake, and smile will be enugh. But nw Australians are tld t take a pat (拍) n the back.
Peple in Iran shake hands t greet with ne anther. But tday, COVID-19 has made “ftshake” a new way f greeting.
71. Peple in many cuntries change ways t __________.
A. fight Cvid B. stay at hmeC. say “hell” D. be different
72. This passage mainly intrduces fur new __________.
A. freign cuntries B. special drinksC. lcal languages D. greeting habits
73. If yu meet yur friend Jenny in Australia this year, yu’d better __________ as a greeting.
A. tuch her face B. pat her backC. share a drinkD. lk int her eyes
74. Frm the passage, we learn that “ftshake” has been a new way f greeting in __________.
A. France B. Brazil C. Australia D. Iran
75. Which f the fllwing can be the BEST title fr the passage?
A. Saying “hell” B. Greeting habits
C. Changing greeting habits D. Peple in different cuntries
abut/ fr / fun / need / funny / sale / sell
六、选词填空，七选五 (共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分)
76. Our Chinese teacher, Mrs. Wang, is great __________.
77. Cme and buy yur clthes at ur great __________.
78. What d yu __________ fr yur party?
79. David asks the vlleyball star, Cindy Smith, __________ her eating habits.
80. We have sme interesting things __________ yu this term.
七、阅读短文，按要求填词 (10分)
In summer, when it rains (下雨), we can’t g ut and d s___________ (81). We just stay at hme and it’s very b___________ (82). But in winter, if it snws we h___________ (83) a lt f things t d. Fr example, we can make a snwman (雪人). It is e___________ (84) t make a snwman. We just l___________ (85) a snwball rll (滚) n the grund until it’s big enugh. N___________ (86), we rll anther (又一个) snwball as (作为) the h___________ (87) f the snwman. Then put (放) the s___________ (88) snwball n the big snwball. It is a snwman nw.
Yu can als have snwball fights (打雪仗). After the snw, a lt f peple g___________ (89) t the playgrund. They thrw (投) small snwballs t each ther. It’s very r___________ (90). It makes peple warm and healthy. A lt f peple like it, especially bys.
八、书面表达 (15分)
假如你是Lucy, 想给你在美国的朋友Anna发一封电子邮件，告诉她你的中学生活。内容包括：
1. 每天7：50到校，6：00放学：
2. 最喜欢周四，因为下午只有两节课；
3. 最喜欢的学科是地理，经常在地理方面帮助同学；
4. 放学后和同学一起运动，保持身体健康；
5. 补充一两点相关信息或想法。
注意：
1. 文中不得透露个人姓名和学校名称；
2. 词数：60-80：
3. 内容连贯，不要逐条翻译；
4. 开头已给出，不计入总词数。
参考词汇： get t 到达 help sb. with sth. 帮某人做某事 d sprts 运动
Dear Anna,
Hw’s it ging? I’m glad t tell yu smething abut my middle schl life. _________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Yurs,
Lucy
武大外校2022-2023学年度第一学期期末调研
七年级 英语试卷 参考答案
一、听力部分 (共25小题，每小题1分，满分25分)
略
二、选择填空 (共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分)
26-30 CAACA31-35 BCACB36-40 ACDBA
三、完情景交际填空 (本题共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分)
41-45 CEBAD46-50 CDAEB
四、完形填空 (本题共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分)
51-55 DBBBC56-60 BDCBC
五、阅读理解 (本题共15小题，每小题2分，满分30分)
61-65 CBACC66-70 CDBDC71-75 CDBDC
六、词与短语填空 (本题共5小题，每小题2分，本题共10分)
71. fun72. sale73. need74. abut75. fr
七、阅读理解填词 (本题共10小题，每小题1分，本题共10分)
76. sprts77. bring78. have79. easy80. let
81. Next82. head83. small84. g / get85. relaxing
八、书面表达 (本题共1小题，满分15分)
略
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