50，河北省保定市清苑区2023-2024学年七年级上学期期末英语试题

这是一份50，河北省保定市清苑区2023-2024学年七年级上学期期末英语试题，共9页。
注意事项：1．本试卷共12页，总分120分，考试时间100分钟。
2．答题前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在试卷和答题卡相应位置上。
3．答选择题时，每小题选出答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑；答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。
4．考试结束，监考人员只收答题卡，试卷由考生保留。
听力部分（第一节）
Ⅰ．听句子，选出句子中所包含的信息。（共5小题，每小题1分，计5分）
1．A．shirtsB．shrtsC．skirts
2．A．136B．163C．133
3．A．a lt fB．a cup fC．a list f
4．A．D yu knw the way t the park?
B．D yu want t get t the park?
C．What d yu knw abut the park?
5．A．Li Ming and I are in the same city.
B．Li Ming and I are nt in the same city.
C．Li Ming and I like living in cities.
Ⅱ．听句子，选出该句的最佳答语。（共5小题：每小题1分，满分5分）
6．A．Gd idea.B．Thanks.C．Gd luck.
7．A．Sure. Here yu are.B．Gd idea!C．Great!
8．A．Lily’s.B．It lks nice.C．I like it.
9．A．Have a gd time.B．Gd jb!C．I dn’t knw.
10．A．My head hurts.B．It desn’t matter.C．I think s.
Ⅲ．听对话和问题，选择正确答案。（共8小题；每小题1分，满分8分）
11．Hw is the weather tday?
A．B．C．
12．Where will the wman g this winter hliday?
A．B．C．
13．What clur are the unifrms?
A．White.B．Blue.C．Yellw.
14．What des the man want t buy?
A．Pants.B．Scks.C．Shes.
15．When will they meet?
A．At 8:00 a.m.B．At 8:20 a.m.C．At 9:10 a.m.
16．Why des the by buy a dress fr his mther?
A．Because his mther’s birthday is cming.
B．Because Mther’s Day is cming.
C．Because his mther likes dress.
17．What size des the by’s mther need?
A．Size M.B．Size L.C．Size XL.
18．Hw much is the dress?
A．100 yuan.B．150 yuan.C．200 yuan.
Ⅳ．听短文和问题，选择正确答案。（共7小题；每小题1分，满分7分）
19．Where is Jenny’s jacket?
A．On the desk.B．On the bed.C．Beside the windw.
20．What is n the desk?
A．A ruler.B．A pencil.C．An eraser.
21．What clur is the pen?
A．Yellw.B．Black.C．Brwn.
22．What time is it?
A．7:00 am.B．8:00am.C．9:00am.
23．What is Mr. Black ding?
A．Reading a newspaper.B．Writing a letter.C．Listening t music.
24．Where is Kim?
A．On a chair.B．At the desk.C．Near the windw.
25．Hw many peple are there in the Black family?
A．Tw.B．Three.C．Fur.
Ⅴ．听短文填空（共5小题，每小题1分，计5分）
笔试部分
Ⅵ．单项选择（共10小题，每小题1分，计10分）
选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
31．—What’s ______ matter?
—I have ______ headache.
A．a; theB．the; /C．/; aD．the; a
32．Mr. Wang is ur English teacher, he is ______ t us, s we all like ______.
A．friend, herB．friendly, herC．friendly, himD．friend, him
33．______ Sunday mrning, Janes has breakfast ______ eight ’clck.
A．In; atB．On; atC．On; inD．At, at
34．—Hw much ______ this pair f pants?
—______ 100yuan.
A．is; It’sB．are; They’reC．are; It’sD．is; Thse are
35．I want t g t the ______ t buy a pen, a ruler and a pencil.
A．libraryB．fficeC．streD．museum
36．—Excuse me, ______ is the Fun Time Mvie Theatre?
—G dwn this street and then turn left.
A．hwB．whereC．whenD．what
37．This mrning we have ______ classes and the ______ class is English.
A．fur; firstB．furth; firstC．furth; neD．fur; ne
38．—Linda, it’s Sunday tmrrw. Hw abut ______?
—N. Let’s ______.
A．g shpping; g fr a picnicB．ging shpping; ging fr a picnic
C．g shpping; ging fr a picnicD．ging shpping; g fr a picnic
39．—Lk ut f the windw! It ______ nw.
—Yes. It ften ______ here in winter. But I like ______ days, because I like make snwmen with friends.
A．snws; is snwing; snwyB．snw; is snwing; snw’s
C．is snwing; snws; snwD．is snwing; snw; snwy
40．—______
—He is a teacher in ur schl.
A．What des yur father likeB．What des yur father lk like?
C．What des yur father d?D．What is yur father ding nw?
Ⅶ．完形填空（共10小题，每小题1分，计10分）
阅读下面短文，掌握其大意，然后从各小题所给的四个选项中选出最佳选项。
It’s 12:00. Mum is nt at hme. N ne makes lunch fr Jenny and Frank. Frank wants t have sme bred, but Jenny desn’t 41 it.
“Hw abut making fruit salad? We have sme 42 ranges and bananas at hme.” Jenny says. “Sunds nice. 43 I als want sme cked fd.” Frank says. Jenny 44 sme rice, sme eggs and tw tmates. She has a 45 idea. “I can make tmat and egg rice fr yu. It’s very 46 .” They have lunch at 1:00 p.m. Frank 47 the tmat and egg rice is great. And the fruit salad is nice, 48 . Jenny is happy he likes them.
49 the evening, Mum cmes hme. She is happy that Jenny and Frank have a gd 50 . She says, “Great! Yu can lk after yurselves when I’m ut.”
41．A．callB．helpC．likeD．play
42．A．carrtsB．hamburgersC．breadD．apples
43．A．SB．ButC．BecauseD．Or
44．A．findsB．asksC．knwsD．takes
45．A．difficultB．gdC．relaxingD．bring
46．A．happyB．rightC．easyD．tidy
47．A．thinksB．getsC．thanksD．spells
48．A．tB．alsC．thenD．nly
49．A．AfterB．OnC．AtD．In
50．A．breakfastB．lunchC．friendD．sprt
Ⅷ．阅读理解（共15小题，每小题2分，计30分）
阅读A、B、C、D四篇材料，然后从各小题所给的选项中选出最佳选项。
A.
Mrs. Green is an English wman. She teaches English. Her English class is very interesting. She likes us and we like her, t. Mrs. Green has tw children- Mike and Jane. Mike is seven and his sister Jane is fur. Mike ges t schl but Jane desn’t. Mrs. Green likes ping-png very much. After schl we have a ping-png match. Smetimes Mrs. Green watches and jins us. She plays basketball just fr fun.
51．Jane desn’t g t schl because ______.
A．she lks beautifulB．she is sevenC．she desn’t like schlD．she is nly fur
52．Mrs. Green likes ______ very much.
A．baseballB．ftballC．ping-pngD．basketball
53．Hw many daughters des Mrs. Green have?
A．One.B．Tw.C．Three.D．N ne.
B．
54．Tim’s birthday party starts at ______.
A．3:00 pm n SaturdayB．4:00 pm n SaturdayC．3:00 pm n SundayD．4:00 pm n Sunday
55．Tara wants Oliver t bring his ______.
A．running shesB．ftballC．basketballD．High Five CD
56．Wh wants t play basketball with Linda’s brther?
A．Ben.B．Jamie.C．Emma.D．Linda.
C．
I’m Lily. I g t France with my friends. France is in the west f Eurpe. Its capital is Paris. The flag f France has 3 clurs: blue, white and red. Peple in France speak French.
On the first day, we visit the Eiffel Twer. It is a famus building in France. It is 324 metres tall. It weighs abut 10,100 tns. It has 3 flrs. When we stand at the tp f the twer, we can see many things. It is sunny, s we can see fr miles. We take many phts there. On the first and secnd flrs, there are restaurants. Peple can have meals and have a gd rest.
On the secnd day, we g t the Luvre Museum （卢浮宫博物馆） and Ntre-Dame de Paris （巴黎圣母院）. They are wrld-famus. There are many famus ld things in the Luvre Museum.
There are lts f clthes stres in Paris. The French are friendly t thers. Mst f them like animals.
57．Wh des Lily g t France with?
A．Her parents.B．Her teachers.C．Her friends.D．Her grandparents.
58．What clurs des the flag f France have?
A．Yellw, green and white.B．Blue, white and red.
C．Red, green and white.D．Black, white and red.
59．Hw many flrs des the Eiffel Twer have?
A．324.B．10,100.C．70.D．3.
60．What can peple d n the first and secnd flrs f the Eiffel Twer?
A．Have meals.B．Swim.C．Play sccer.D．Feed animals.
D．
Leaves are falling. The wind gets cld. Nvember 7 is lidng. It is the beginning f winter. Lidng is ne f the 24 slar terms （节气）. Chinese peple usually have a big meal n that day. Eating well can help peple keep warm n cld days. In the nrth, peple usually eat dumplings. In the suth, peple eat chicken, duck and fish. In the ld days, lidng was als a time fr peple t stre （存储） vegetables. At that time, there were nt many fresh vegetables t eat during winter, especially （尤其） in the nrth. There were als n supermarkets like tday. Peple had n place t buy fresh vegetables in winter. S, arund lidng peple put lts f cabbages in a cellar （地窖）. They als made fresh tmates int tmat sauce （酱）. It was gd fr eating ndles in winter.
61．What des “lidng” mean?
A．There are n leaves n the trees.B．We shuld eat a lt f fd.
C．Winter begins frm this day.D．The new year is nt far away.
62．In the nrth f China, what d peple usually eat fr lidng?
A．Dumplings.B．Fish.C．Ndles.D．Chicken.
63．In the ld days, peple stred vegetables fr winter because ______.
A．they didn’t want t g shpping in winterB．there were nt many fresh vegetables t buy
C．they didn’t knw hw t stre meatD．they didn’t like t eat fresh vegetables
64．Accrding t the passage, peple like t eat ndles with ______ in winter.
A．chickenB．cabbagesC．ptatesD．tmat sauce
65．What’s the stry mainly abut?
A．Hw Chinese peple stre vegetables fr winter.
B．Winter is time fr having big meals.
C．What Chinese peple usually d when lidng cmes.
D．The twenty-fur slar terms in China.
Ⅸ．任务型阅读（共5小题，每小题2分，计10分）
阅读短文，并按要求完成66—70题。
D yu like winter? It’s a cld seasn f a year. Here are sme things everyne shuld knw abut winter.
Winter weather
In winter, the temperature（温度）is lw. And yu can see snw smetimes. When the temperature is belw zer, water freezes（结冰）.
Winter fun
After a heavy snwfall, children play in the snw. They make snwmen and have snwball fights. Peple als enjy skiing and skating in winter.
Winter dangers（危险）
The cld weather can als be dangerus. Peple fall dwn n the ice and cars can als have traffic accidents. Sme peple als catch a cld when they stay utside.
Keeping warm
Because winter is s cld, peple have t find ways t keep warm. Peple wear heavy cats, scarfs fr their necks, glves fr their hands, and bts n their feet.
66—67题为完成句子；68题为简略回答问题；69题找出并写下全文的主题句；70题将为文中划线句子译成汉语。
66．In winter, the temperature is ______.
67．After a heavy snwfall, children can ___________________________.
68．Why d peple have t find ways t keep warm in winter?
______________________________________________________________________________
69．__________________________________________________________________________
70．__________________________________________________________________________
Ⅹ．词语运用（共10小题，每小题1分，计10分）
根据短文内容及所给提示，补全文中单词或用所给单词的正确形式填空。
Mr. Jhn is ur English teacher. He 71．______ (cme) frm Canada. He is friendly t us. His 72．______ (class) are very interesting. We usually have fun in his class, 73．______ he knws much 74．______ China and he speaks Chinese very 75．______ (gd). He is 76．______ tall and strng man. He lives in Beijing 77．______ his wife and sn. It is the 78．______ (nine) year that they stay here. They like Chinese fd. They think Chinese fd 79．______ (be) delicius. They als like 80．______ (China) peple. They want t make friends with mre peple.
Ⅺ．基础写作（包括A、B两部分，共计20分）
A）连词成句（共5小题，每小题1分，计5分）
根据所给单词或词语，完成句子。要求符合语法，语言通顺，大小写正确。（单词不得重复使用，标点已给出）
81．kung fu, he, d, can
______________________________________________________________________________?
82．run, dn’t, in, hall, the
______________________________________________________________________________.
83．did, she, g, wh, with
______________________________________________________________________________?
84．it there is, park, a, acrss frm
______________________________________________________________________________.
85．camping isn’t, cusin, the lake, his, by
______________________________________________________________________________.
B）书面表达（计15分）
86．假如你是高阳，上周五学校组织了参观活动。请你根据以下图片及文字提示写一封信给你的英国笔友Peter，告诉他你的参观活动经历及感受。
提示：（1）Where did yu g?（2）Hw did yu g there?
（3）What did yu d?
提示词：art museum（艺术博物馆），visit artwrk（艺术品），hand-painted（手绘）
注意：（1）信中须包括每幅图片的主要信息，可适当发挥，提示词语供参考。
（2）信中不得出现真实的地名、校名和人名；
（3）词数60左右。开头已给出，不计入总词数。
Dear Peter,
Last Friday we went n a schl trip.
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
Ga Yang
2023—2024学年度第一学期七年级期末调研考试
七年级英语参考答案及评分标准
评分标准：1-45小题，每小题1分，计45分；46-60小题，每小题2分，计30分。
1-5．BACAB 6-10．AAABA 11-15．BABCB 16-20．ACBBA 21-25．CBACB
26．run 27．6:45/fifteen/a quarter t seven 28．bike 29．shp 30．ges hme
31—35．DCBAC 36—40．BADDC 41-45 C D B A B 46-50．C A A D B
51—55．DCACA 56—60．BCBDA 61—65．CABDC
Ⅸ．66．lw
67．play in the snw
68．Because winter is s cld.
69．Here are sme things everyne shuld knw abut winter.
70．当他们待在外面时，有些人也会患感冒。
评分标准：①每小题2分，计10分。②凡与答案不符，但所填内容与答案意思相近且与题目要求相符者，可酌情给分。有关语法及拼写（包括大小写）等错误酌情扣分。
Ⅹ．71．cmes 72．classes 73．because 74．abut
75．well 76．a 77．with 78．ninth 79．is 80．Chinese
评分标准：①每小题1分，计10分。②凡与答案不符，但所填词语与题目要求相符者，可酌情给分。
Ⅺ．A）
81．Can he d kung fu?
82．Dn’t run in the hall.
83．Wh did she g with?
84．There is a park acrss frm it.
85．His cusin isn’t camping by the lake.
评分标准：每小题1分，计5分。与答案不符者不给分。
B）86．One pssible versin:
Dear Peter,
Last Friday we went n a schl trip. It was sunny. We visited the art museum. It is abut 20 kilmeters away frm ur schl. S we went there by bus. It tk us abut half an hur t get there. We visited sme art exhibitins at the museum. We learned a lt frm it. We als saw sme hand-painted pictures. Althugh we were tried, but we were happy. Did yu have a schl trip? Please write t me.
Yurs,
Ga Yang
评分标准：满分15分，可分5档赋分
第一档：语言表达准确，内容充实，无明显语法错误，书写美观，赋12―15分。
第二档：语言表述基本准确，内容较充实，有少量语法错误，书写整齐，赋8－11分。
第三档：语言表述不够准确，有较多语法错误，书写较差，赋5－7分。
第四档：语言表述不准确，大量语法错误影响意义表达，书写差，赋3－4分。
第五档：无任何英语描述，赋0-2分。
Infrmatin Sheet
Liu Bin’s day
After he gets up
He will 26．______.
At abut 27．______ a.m.
He will have breakfast.
After breakfast
He ges t wrk by 28．______.
At 12:00
He has lunch at the 29．______.
At 5:30 p.m.
He 30．______.
Dear Ben,
Cme t my birthday party n Sunday. Please ask yur sister t cme, t. Can yu als bring yur ftball? I can’t find mine. The birthday party is in ur garden（花园）. It begins at 3:00 pm.
Tim
Dear Oliver,
Please cme t my birthday party n Saturday. Can yu bring yur running shes? We have a race （比赛）. Mm says yu dn’t bring yur dg. Srry! The party begins at 3:00 pm.
See yu n Saturday.
Tara
Dear Linda,
Please cme t my birthday party n Saturday. Can yu please bring yur Purple Pumpkins CDs and yur High Five CD? Please ask yur brther t cme, t. Jamie wants t play basketball with him. The party is at my grandma’s huse—16 Statin Rad. It begins at 4:00 pm.
Emma
Where did yu g?
Hw did yu g there?
What did yu d?