56，河北省沧州市吴桥县2023-2024学年七年级上学期期末测试英语试题

这是一份56，河北省沧州市吴桥县2023-2024学年七年级上学期期末测试英语试题，共9页。试卷主要包含了 A等内容，欢迎下载使用。
本试卷共8页，满分120分，考试时间为90分钟。
请在答题纸上作答。
听力部分
Ⅰ.听句子，选出句子中所包含的信息（共5 小题； 每小题1 分，满分5分）
1. A. classrmB. labC. playgrund
2. A. pencilB. pencil bxC. pen
3. A. yuB. mayC. name
4. A. have lessnsB. plan the lessnsC. get bks
5. A. May I brrw yur pen?B. May I buy yur pen?C. May I keep yur pen?
Ⅱ.听句子，选出该句的最佳答语（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
6. A. Yes.B. Dn’t say like this.C. Thanks.
7. A. Fur.B. Green.C. It’s a dress.
8. A. Black.B. Here yu are.C. Three.
9. A. Black.B. Here yu are.C. Three.
10. A. They are new.B. N, they aren’t.C. White and black.
Ⅲ.听对话和问题，选择正确答案（共8小题；每小题1分，满分8分）
11. What’s that?
A. B. C.
12. What’s n the bkcase?
A. B. C.
13. What clur is the eraser?
A. It’s black.B. It’s white.C. It’s red.
14. What are they talking abut?
A. Table.B. An English bk.C. A pencil case.
15. Where is the English bk?
A. It’s in the backpack.B. It’s n the table.C. It’s n the chair.
16. Wh likes basketball?
A. Jack.B. Gina.C. Tm.
17. Wh has a sccer ball?
A. Tm.B. Gina.C. Jack.
18. What des Tm like?
A. Sccer.B. Basketball.C. Baseball.
Ⅳ.听短文和问题，选择正确答案（共7小题；每小题1分，满分7分）
19. When des Nick g t schl?
A. At six.B. At six thirty.C. At nine.
20. Where des Nick have lunch n Sundays?
A. At schl.B. At hme.C. In the restaurant.
21. What des Nick like ding after supper?
A. He likes playing cards.B. He likes listening t the radi.
C. He likes reading bks.
22. What animals des Tm like best?
A. Mnkeys.B. Lins.C. Tigers.
23. Hw many pandas are there in the z?
A. Tw.B. Three.C. Six.
24. What are the birds ding?
A. They are sleeping.B. They are eating bananas.
C. They are talking t the lins.
25. Where are the elephants?
A. They are in the frest.B. They are under the tree.
C. They are near the mnkeys.
Ⅴ.听短文填空（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
笔试部分
Ⅵ.单项选择，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
31. Where is yur brther? I want t give ________ a bk
A.meB. yuC. himD. her
32. Tday is my birthday. I get a lt f presents ________ my friends
A. frB. inC. ffD. frm
33.—Danny, ________ yur father at hme?
—Srry, I dn’t knw.
A. amB. isC. areD. be
34.—Where can I eat the fd?
—Yu can eat it here ________ yu can take it hme
A. andB. butC. rD. s
35. I have ________ fr lunch, but I dn’t have ________ meat
A. sme; smeB. any; anyC. sme; anyD. any; sme
36. Andy is a ________ singer. Everyne knws him
A. busyB. bringC. quietD. famus
37. My daughter ________ an eraser. I want t buy ne fr her
A. haveB. hasC. dn’t haveD. desn’t have
38. — ________ is the Science Museum?
— I dn’t knw. Let’s lk fr it n the map.
A. HwB. WhereC. WhatD. When
39. Dn’t talk n the phne. Yu ________ a car
A. are drivingB. driveC. are missingD. miss
40. — Dn’t frget t take yur bag when yu ________ the bus
—OK,I wn’t.
A. get ffB. take ffC. turn ffD. shw ff
Ⅶ.完形填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
阅读下面短文，从各小题所给的四个选项中选出最佳选项。
Summer and winter are tw 41 seasns in a year. It’s ht in summer 42 it’s cld in winter.
In summer, the 43 are lng and the nights are shrt. It 44 dark late in the evening. It’s ht and sunny, s peple usually 45 sunglasses when they g ut. Mst 46 like this seasn because there is a lng schl hliday in summer. They can d lts f 47 things during the hliday.
Winter cmes after autumn. It gets dark early in the evening. The night s usually 48 at abut half past five. It’s cld and windy in winter. s peple must wear warm clthes, scarves and glves. It ften snws in winter and a lt f peple like t 49 in winter. Children lve this seasn because they can 50 snwball fights. D yu like this seasn?
41. A. busyB. differentC. famusD. magic
42. A. andB. sC. rD. because
43. A. mnthsB. daysC. weeksD. dates
44. A. cmesB. takesC. staysD. gets
45. A. wearB. rderC. giveD. sell
46. A. driversB. dctrsC. studentsD. farmers
47. A. easyB. quietC. interestingD. bring
48. A. finishB. passC. makeD. begin
49. A. g shppingB. g skatingC. g swimmingD. g bating
50. A. haveB. findC. setD. shw
Ⅷ.阅读理解（共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分）
阅读A、B、C、D四篇材料，然后从各小题所给的四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
D yu like children? Can yu teach English? My twelve-year-ld daughter is ill. She can’t g t schl fr sme days. We need a wman teacher fr ur child.
Fr the wrk yu will:
☆ teach frm 3:00 p. m. t 5:00 p. m. every day
☆ play with ur daughter
☆ tell her stries in English
☆ wrk at ur hme
We live at N.6 Beihai Street, The pay （工资） is 50 yuan an hur.
D yu want t knw mre? Please call Mrs. Yang at 8234345.
51. The teacher needs t teach fr ________ every day
A. an hurB. tw hursC. three hursD. five hurs
52. The teacher desn’t need t ________.
A. play with the childB. tell stries t the child
C. teach at the child’s hmeD. teach the child in the mrning
53. Which f the fllwing is right?
A. The daughter is eleven years ld.B. The teacher lives n Beihai Street.
C. The teacher can get 100 yuan a day.D. Mrs. Yang’s number is 8334345.
B
Let’s get t knw a twins’ （双胞胎） family. Lk at the picture. They are the twins, their mther and their father. The twins’ names are Lucy and Lily. They are furteen. They are in the same class in N. 3 Middle Schl and they are all gd students. Their father Mr. King is a teacher. He is thirty-nine. He teaches English in a schl near his hme. Their mther Mrs. King is a dctr. She is the same age （年龄） as Mr. King. Nw, they are all at hme. They are very happy.
54. Hw many peple are in the twins’ family?
A. Three.B. Fur.C. Five.D. Six.
55. What des Mr. King d?
A. A teacher.B. A wrker.C. A farmer.D. A driver.
56. Hw ld is Mrs. King?
A. Thirty.B. Thirty-tw.C. Thirty-three.D. Thirty-nine.
C
David is eight. One day his friend Rse says t him, “This Sunday is my birthday. D yu want t cme t my birthday party?” David says, “Yes.”
On Sunday, his mther says t him, “Yu can g t the party, but yu must be plite （有礼貌）. Dn’t ask fr any fd. Smene will give yu sme.” “All right, Mum.” David answers and he ges t Rse’s huse n his bike.
There are many children at the party. They play tgether fr sme time, and then Rse’s mther gives them sme fd, but she frgets David. He waits and waits, and then he takes his plate （盘子） up and says, “D yu want a nice clean （干净的） plate?”
57. The birthday party is in ________.
A. Rse’s huseB. David’s huseC. Rse’s schlD. David’s schl
58. David ges t the party ________.
A. by carB. n ftC. by bikeD. with his mther.
59. David is Rse’s ________.
A. friendB. classmateC. brtherD. father
60. Wh gives David fd at the party?
A. Rse.B. Rse’s mther.C. N ne.D. Himself.
D
Nw peple in England, the U. S. and many ther cuntries celebrate Mther’s Day.
Mther’s Day is n the secnd Sunday f May. On this day, children give flwers, cards, chclate and ther things t their mthers, but they dn’t give mney t them. And they als make presents fr their mthers. And sme f them get up early t ck breakfast fr their mthers. They als help their mthers d husewrk. They want t shw their lve t their mthers. They knw if they have n mthers, they can’t live a happy life.
Many peple in China celebrate this festival fr their mthers because they want t shw their lve t their mthers, t. In every Chinese family, the mther lks after the children, des the husewrk and cks meals fr the family, s she is quite hard wrking and she is always busy in the family. Nw mre and mre peple celebrate Mther’s Day in China.
61. When is Mther’s Day?
A. On the first Sunday f May.B. On the secnd Sunday f May.
C. On the first Sunday f February.D. On the secnd Sunday f February.
62. What presents d mthers usually get n Mther’s Day?
A. Flwers, mney and cards.B. Flwers, mney and chclate.
C. Flwers, cards and chclate.D. Mney, cards and chclate.
63. On Mther’s Day, children dn’t ________.
A. make presentsB. ck breakfastC. get up lateD. d husewrk
64. The underlined wrd “hard wrking” means “________” in Chinese
A.勤劳的B.聪明的C.美丽的D.困难的
65. Why d many Chinese peple celebrate this festival fr mthers?
A. Because they knw Mther’s Day.B. Because their mthers are very busy.
C. Because they have mthers.D. Because they lve their mthers very much.
Ⅸ.任务型阅读（共5小题：每小题2分，满分10分）
阅读下面短文，按要求完成66-70题。
Where des Harry cme frm? He’s frm England. Nw let’s learn smething abut England.
England is the biggest part in the U. K. in England, yu can feel fur seasns in ne day, It can be sunny, rainy, r windy at any time f a day. It is sunny when yu get up, but it can be rainy. S dn’t frget t take an umbrella with yu.
In England. stres pen frm 9:00 a. m. t 5:30 p. m. frm Mnday t Friday. On weekends, stres pen frm 10:00 a. m. t 4:00 p. m. But a lt f stres dn’t pen n Sundays. Banks and ther places pen frm 10:00 a. m. t 5:00 p. m. If yu want t g t parks, yu can get there at any time f a day. In England, yu can take the bus, the subway （地铁） r the taxi t the places where yu want t g.
Englishmen g t a restaurant every mnth. They als like fast fd like hamburgers, fish and chips.
66题完成句子；67、68题简略回答问题；69题找出并写下全文的主题句；70题将画线句子译成汉语。
66. The biggest part in the U. K. is _______________________________.
67. When can we g t the parks in England?
____________________________________________________________________________
68. Hw ften d Englishmen g t a restaurant?
____________________________________________________________________________
69. _________________________________________________________________________
70. _________________________________________________________________________
Ⅹ.词语运用（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入一个适当的单词（有提示词的，填入所给单词的正确形式）。
On Sunday, my sister and I g t the z, We g there 71. __________ ft. This is ur 72. __________ (tw) time t the z. We g dwn this street 73. __________ then turn left. Then we can see the z. It is next t 74. __________ museum. In the z, sme 75. __________ (mnkey) are playing in the trees. They lk very 76. __________ (fun). Sme tigers are running n the grass Lk! Sme pandas are 77. __________ (eat) the bamb. I like pandas very much. I think they are 78. __________ (lve). But my sister desn’t like the z. She 79. __________ (think) these animals in the z feel lnely. She says they miss 80. __________ (they) hmes in the frest. D yu think s?
Ⅺ.基础写作（包括A、B两部分，A部分5分，B部分15分，共20分）
A）连词成句（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
将所给词语连成句子，要求符合语法，语句通顺、大小写正确，词语不得重复使用。句末标点已给出。
81. Danny, at, watching TV, hme, is,
_____________________________________________________________________________________________.
82. music, her, wh, teacher, is
_____________________________________________________________________________________________?
83. speak, there, peple, English
_____________________________________________________________________________________________.
84. be, dn’t, fr, schl, late
_____________________________________________________________________________________________.
85. yu, Australia, what, knw, abut, d
_____________________________________________________________________________________________.
B）书面表达（满分15分）
86.假设你是李明，在网上认识了美国朋友 Mike。请根据下列要点提示给 Mike 写一封电子邮件谈谈你最喜欢的季节。要点提示：
1. What seasn d yu like best?2. What’s the weather like in it?
3. What d yu like t d in it?4. What hliday is in it?
5. What d yu d during the hliday?
要求：1.语句通顺，语法正确；2.文中不能出现真实的人名、地名和学校名；3.词数：80左右（电子邮件的开头已给出，不计入总词数）。
Dear Mike,
Let me tell yu smething abut my favurite seasn.
_________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________Yurs,
LiMing
沧州市2023—2024学年度第一学期期末教学质量评估
七年级英语试题参考答案及评分标准（冀教版）
听力部分
Ⅰ~Ⅳ.听力选择题（每小题1分，计25分）
1. C2. B3. C4. B5. A
6. C7. B8. C9. A10. B
11. B12. B13. B14B15. B
16. B17. C18. A19. B20. B
21. B22. A23. A24. C25. B
Ⅴ.听短文填空（每小题1分，计5分）
26. Natinal27. utside28. leaves29. painting30. pem
笔试部分
Ⅵ.单项选择（每小题1分，计10分）
31. C32. D33. B34. C35. C
36. D37. D38. B39. A40. A
Ⅶ.完形填空（每小题1分，计10分）
41. B42. A43. B44. D45. A
46. C47. C48. D49. B50. A
Ⅷ.阅读理解（每小题2分，计30分）
51. B52. D53. C54. B55. A
56. D57. A58. C59. A60. C
61. B62. C63. C64. A65. D
Ⅸ.任务型阅读（每小题2分，计10分）
66. England
67. At any time f a day.
68. Every mnth. /They g t a restaurant every mnth.
69. Nw let’s learn smething abut England.
70. 所以别忘了随身带一把伞。
Ⅹ.词语运用（每小题1分，计10分）
71. n72. secnd73. and74. a75. mnkeys
76. funny77. eating78. lvely79. thinks80. their
Ⅺ.基础写作
A) 连词成句（每小题1 分， 计 5分）
81. Danny is watching TV at hme.
82. Wh is her music teacher?
83. Peple there speak English. / Peple speak English there.
84. Dn’t be late fr schl.
85. What d yu knw abut Australia?
B）书面表达（满分15分）
86. One pssible versin:
Dear Mike,
Let me tell yu smething abut my favurite seasn. I like autumn best. It is always cl and sunny in autumn. S I ften g t the park with my family. We enjy watching different leaves in the park. The Mid-Autumn Festival is in autumn. We have a three-day hliday. My parents usually take me t visit my grandparents. We ften have a big meal tgether. We als eat mncakes. They are very delicius. What’s yur favurite seasn? Write t me sn.
Yurs,
Li MingInfrmatin Sheet
Bb desn’t g t schl n 26 Day
Bb is having a picnic with his friends 27 the city
There are green 28 and beautiful flwers
Jim is 29 the clurful wrld
Jack is reading his favurite 30 .