57，河北省石家庄市赵县2023-2024学年八年级上学期期末英语试题

这是一份57，河北省石家庄市赵县2023-2024学年八年级上学期期末英语试题，共11页。试卷主要包含了 A等内容，欢迎下载使用。

注意事项：
1.答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、班级等信息填写在答题卡相应位置上。
2.答选择题时，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其它答案标号。写在本试卷上无效。
3.答非选择题时，用黑色碳素笔在答题卡上各题的答题区域内作答，在试卷上作答无效。
4.考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
听力部分（30分）
Ⅰ.听句子，选出句子中所包含的信息（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
1. A. magazineB. magicianC. machine
2. A. hang utB. help utC. hear frm
3. A. an expensive giftB. a surprise partyC. a serius prblem
4. A. Ms. Smith will g back t the US sn.
B. Ms. Smith is leaving the US sn.
C. Ms. Smith went back t the US sn.
5. A. Larry and I are in different classes.
B. Larry and I are quite different.
C. Larry always disagrees with me.
Ⅱ.听句子，选出该句的最佳答语（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
6. A. It is gd fr health.B. Yes, I d.
C. I always exercise.
7. A. That’s great.B. Yu lk nice.C. Small.
8. A. Only ne.B. Tw spns.C. Three bananas.
9. A. Srry.B. Sure, I’d lve t.C. N, I can’t.
10. A. Sure.B. It was great.C. OK, gd idea.
Ⅲ.听对话和问题，选择正确答案（共8小题；每小题1分，满分8分）
11. Where did the by g n vacatin?
A. B. C.
12. What des the by want t be in the future?
A. B. C.
13. Hw ften des Frank g swimming?
A. Once a week.B. Twice a week.C. Three times a week.
14. What is Billy ging t be when he grws up?
A. A teacher.B. A tennis player.C. A dctr.
15. Wh is Billy’s first teacher?
A. His brther.B. His uncle.C. His father.
16. When will they have the party?
A. This Thursday.B. Next Tuesday.C. Next Thursday
17. Wh will cme t the party?
A. Sme teachers.B. Sme parents.C. Students’ friends.
18. What will Danny d at nce?
A. Write a letter.B. Buy gifts.C. D hmewrk.
Ⅳ.听短文和问题，选择正确答案（共7小题；每小题1分，满分7分）
19. Where will Anna take the trip?
A. T the beach.B. T the farm.C. T the cuntryside.
20. What des Anna have t d n the weekend?
A. Take different lessns.B. D the husewrk.
C. Lk after her brther.
21. Why did Anna write this letter?
A. T invite Tina t take a ne-day trip.
B. T tell Tina her plan fr the weekend.
C. T ask Tina t help her slve prblems.
22. What did Bb think at first?
A. He shuld make a paper ball.
B. He culd easily win the game.
C. He shuld make friends with Jim.
23. Why did sme classmates laugh at Jim?
A. Because his paper plane was ugly.
B. Because his paper plane culdn’t fly.
C. Because he nly prepared a piece f paper.
24. Wh was the winner f the game?
A. Jim.B. Bb.C. Mr. White.
25. What lessn did Bb learn?
A. Old habits die hard.
B. A questin can have different answers.
C. We shuld think carefully befre making a decisin.
Ⅴ.听短文填空（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
My New Year’s Reslutins fr 2024
笔试部分（90分）
Ⅵ.单项选择（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
31. T prtect his eyes, he_______ uses electrnic prducts（电子产品）.
A. alwaysB. ftenC. usuallyD. hardly ever
32. Jane was t excited t say _______ when she heard the gd news.
A. smethingB. anythingC. nthingD. everything
33.Ding Taichi（太极）can help peple imprve _______ in health.
A. myselfB. itselfC. urselvesD. themselves
34. Gu Ailing _______ snwbarding. And she wn lts f medals in this sprt.
A. is ready frB. is sure abutC. is talented inD. is similar t
35. Yur handwriting will nt imprve _______ yu get enugh practice.
A. unlessB. ifC. becauseD. s
36. Mike called and he _______ us t wear nice clthes t the party. But I dn’t have any.
A. tellsB. tldC. will tellD.is ging t tell
37. — Can yu g t the mvies with me this weekend?
— Srry, I have an English test next Mnday and I _______ study fr it.
A. mustB. mustn’tC. canD. can’t
38. Bth Tim and Tm are gd at sprts. But Tim is much _______.
A. strngB. strngerC. strngestD. the strngest
39. Jhn is waiting fr me. We _______ t the bkstre tgether.
A. wentB. gC. will gdD. were ging
40.—What d yu think f the TV prgram, Natinal Treasure?
—_______. I can really learn a lt frm it.
A. It’s bringB. It’s wnderfulC. I can’t stand itD. I dn’t mind it
Ⅶ.完形填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
阅读下面短文，从各小题所给的四个选项中选出最佳选项。
“My favrite superher（超级英雄）is ...” Sebastian stpped and had a lk at his teacher.
“G n, Sebastian.” Mrs. Evans, the teacher said 41 a smile.
“My favrite superher is my mm,” he 42 n. “She is a street sweeper. She is the mst 43 persn in the wrld. She gt up early in the mrning and wrked all day lng. But she had an accident last week and had t 44 at hme, s I’m helping ut”
He tk a deep breath and then went n.
“I raked the leaves utside and realized hw 45 it was. A real superher desn’t have t g n adventures （险）. Real heres take care f their families, and I hpe t grw up and be half the her my mm is. Thank yu.”
All his classmates were 46 . They were t mved t say a wrd.
A few days later, Sebastian was filling in fr his mther again.
While 47 , he saw several cars pulling up in the street.
“Sebastian!” He heard Mrs. Evans’ vice. He wndered why Mrs. Evans was here. But a bigger 48 came when his classmates gt ut f the cars with rakes, brms, and trash bags.
Befre he knew it, his classmates were raking leaves and picking up trash.
“What’s happening?” Sebastian asked them.
“We’re helping ut. We were s tuched by yur stry that we 49 t d smething.” One girl explained cheerfully.
Sebastian lked at everyne, nt knwing hw t express his 50 .
“I’m s prud f yu, Sebastian. Lk what yu have inspired,” Mrs. Evans added, lking at all the kids wrking hard just like Sebastian did. “Yu and yur classmates are my favrite superheres.
41. A. inB. withC. byD. at
42. A. readB. readsC. readingD. reader
43. A. hnestB. carefulC. easy-gingD. hard-wrking
44. A. stayB. wrkC. playD. hide
45. A. interestingB. cmfrtableC. hardD. scary
46. A. sleepyB. quietC. excitedD. bred
47. A. sweepingB. waitingC. drivingD. talking
48. A. jyB. fearC. wrryD. surprise
49. A. refusedB. decidedC. learnedD. dreamed
50. A. sadnessB. lnelinessC. thankfulnessD. kindness
Ⅷ.阅读理解（共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分）
阅读A、B、C、D四篇材料，然后从各小题所给的四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Sidney is a swan（天鹅）.He lives in East England. His best friend is Bb, a 39-year-ldbuilder. Bb fund Sidney in May when he walked alng the river. The baby swan had tw large wunds（伤）n his neck.
Bb tk the bird hme and gave him fd t eat. He named him Sidney and tk care f him.
In July, Bb tk him t a wildlife（野生动物）center. This way, Sidney culd live in a mre natural（自然的）envirnment, but three mnths later, wrkers at the center asked Bb t take the swan back. They fund that Sidney was nt nappy at the center and didn’t sleep much.
When Sidney heard Bb’s vice（声音）, he ran ver t him right away. “I felt like a prud（自豪的）father seeing him cme hme,” Bb tld the Daily Mail.
（ ）51. Where did Bb find Sidney?
A. At hme.B. At the center.C. By the river.D. Near the center.
（ ）52. Wh lked after Sidney at last?
A. The wrkerB. Bb.C. N ne.D. his farther.
（ ）53. Which is the best title accrding t the passage?
A. Little Swan.B. Bb and Sidney.
C. Little Swan wants t g hme.D. Little Swan’s Dream.
B
A gal is smething yu want t reach.
First, decide what yur gal is. Fr example, d yu want t pass a test? D yu want t be a dctr? When yu have decided n yur gal, write it dwn n paper and lk at it every day. Then decide what yu must d t succeed.
Many peple never reach their gal because they think it is impssible. But yu must always believe that yur gals are pssible, dn’t think, “This test is difficult. I’ll prbably fail.” Instead, think, “This test is difficult, but I’ve wrked hard and I will pass it.”
Mst peple are successful at things they enjy. S always try t enjy yur wrk. Keep lking at the gal yu wrte n paper and think hw happy yu will be when yu succeed. Think abut that happiness while yu are wrking and yu will enjy yur wrk.
54.Which f the fllwing best shws the structure（结构）f the passage?
A. B. C. D.
55. What des the underlined wrd “it” refer t in Paragraph 2?
A. The test.B. The paper.C. The gal.D. The jb.
56. Where culd we prbably read this passage?
A. A science bk.B. A medicine instructin.
B. A sprts magazine.D. An educatin newspaper.
C
If yu have t describe（描述）yurself t smene else, what will yu say? It can be difficult t see yurself frm the utside, but knwing wh yu are, r being self-aware, can help yu understand feelings and make friendships clser.
Self-awareness means having a gd understanding f ur wn character. If yu’re self-aware, yu may knw that yu lve playing an instrument because yu d well in it, and music makes yu happy, r that yu like watching TV better n yur wn because it helps yu relax.
Knwing what yu like and dislike, what yu are gd r bad at allws yu t make better decisins abut friendships, schlwrk and build cnfidence. The WHO（Wrld Health Organizatin）says self-awareness is ne f ten imprtant life skills that help yung peple live healthier and happier lives. Being self-aware desn’t mean nly thinking f yurself. By understanding yur wn feelings, yu will better understand ther peple t.
Hw d yu learn t be self-aware? It is a gd way t ask questins. Ask yurself questins that start with “What” instead f “Why”. Fr example, if yu dn’t understand why yu keep arguing with a friend, ask yurself what yu disagree n instead f why yu’re arguing.
Learning t be mre self-aware is a skill. Yu learn it as yu grw. S be bld and try ut new things, like playing a new sprt r listening t different kinds f music. Dn’t be afraid t dislike smething -- discvering what yu dn’t like is a key part f learning mre abut yurself.
57. Which f the fllwing statements shws yu are self-aware?
A. Knwing yur persnality well.
B. Knwing yu prefer watching TV.
C. Knwing hw t play an instrument.
D. Knwing hw t make friendships clser.
58. Why des WHO believe self-awareness an imprtant skill?
A. It helps t make better decisins.
B. It helps the yung build cnfidence.
C. It stps yu nly thinking f yurself.
D. It helps imprve yung peple’s lives.
59. What is the 4th paragraph mainly abut?
A. The way f being self-aware.B. The reasn f being self-aware.
C. The result f being self-aware.D. The prblem f being self-aware.
60. Where can we prbably read the passage?
A. In an advertisement.B. In a health magazine
C. In a histry bk.D. In a news reprt.
D
“What d I Want t Be When I Grw Up?” I lked at my blank page. All I wrte dwn was the title. The rest f the class were all busy writing. “Yu have five minutes t finish.” Ms. Clark said. “I want t be a teacher when I grw up because...” I just wrte a few lines when the bell went ff. My friend Lisa tld me she wanted t be an astrnaut. I laughed when pictured Lisa flating（漂浮）in space.
After schl, I tld my grandpa my real dream. “Yu prmise nt t laugh. I didn’t write it n the schl paper.” I said, “I want t be an actress.” He didn’t laugh. Instead he asked, “Why?” “I just d, that’s all, mre than anything in the wrld. I’d be really gd.” “OK. Angela, I nce dreamed t be a reprter. We’d better find ut if yu have any talent in acting. Yu need drama lessns, and I knw just the right persn - Jane Rzzi, a friend f mine.” “Fantastic!” I culdn’t believe my luck. I gave him a big hug. “I’d better check with yur Mum and Dad first t make sure they dn’t mind their daughter taking Jane Rzzi’s acting class.” grandpa said.
N prblem there. Next evening, sitting in my grandpa’s car, my stmach felt tight and my muth was dry. He was driving me t my first acting lessn. “She is kind and gentle. Dn’t be nervus.” Grandpa tld me.
He was right. I liked Jane immediately. She tld me I was talented and my vice was gd. I just needed t get luder. After that we did sme breathing and vice exercises. I practiced day after “Yu have a natural talent and, with hard wrk and luck, yu will make it.” I always bear jane’s wrds in my mind. Nw I am an actress n the stage. Ww! Hw my life has changed since I first stared at that blank piece f paper!
61. Why didn’t Angela write her real dream at schl?
A. Ms. Clark didn’t like it.
B. Her parents wuldn’t agree.
C. She was afraid that thers will laugh at her.
D. She culdn’t decide it when she was at schl.
62. Which f the fllwing culd best describe Angela?
A. Lazy and quiet.B. Outging and lud.
C. Talented and hard-wrking.D. Clever and beautiful.
63. The underlined wrd “pictured” means ______.
A. imaginedB. imprvedC. inventedD. invited
64. Which f the fllwing is NOT the reasn fr Angela’s success?
A. Her talent.B. Her hard wrk.
C. Grandpa’s help.D. Her classmates’ help.
65. What is the best title fr the passage?
A. A Lucky GirlB. A Dream Cme True
C. My Dear GrandpaD. The Best Acting Teacher
Ⅸ.任务型阅读（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
阅读下面短文，按要求完成66～70题。
Can yu ck? If s, what dishes are yu gd at cking? Fr students, being able t ck becmes a skill they can get frm the schl curse（课程）. Since September, 2022 , students have started t take labr classes（劳动课程）at schl Besides cking, they als need t learn hw t plant vegetables, feed chickens r ducks and repair（修理）the TV sets r lights.
Students learn three kinds f curses. The first kind is abut ding chres（琐事）, including cleaning, cking and repairing. It will be nrmal fr students t ck in the classrm. The next kind is abut making smething by hand and using new technlgies（科技）, such as 3D printing and laser cutting（激光切割）.The third ne is service wrk. Students can vlunteer t d smething in the neighbrhd.
Mst parents welcme such curses. They think it is necessary fr kids t learn sme life skills. Liu Fang, a mther f a 6-year-ld by in Zunyi, agrees t have the classes. Fr the past years, she has taught her sn t d chres and make dishes fr the family. Liu said, “He shuld share husewrk with ther family members.” These labr classes can make students becme independent early. And they can als help t develp students’ labr skills.
66-67题完成句子；68题简略回答问题；69题找出并写下第2段的主题句；70题将文中画线句子译成汉语。
66. Students have started t have labr classes frm _______, 2022.
67. Mst parents think it is necessary fr kids t ______.
68. What des the first curse “ding chres” include（包含）?
________________________________________________________________________.
69. ________________________________________________________________________.
70. ________________________________________________________________________.
Ⅹ.词语运用（共10小题；每小题l分，满分10分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入一个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
A few years ag, my father 71. _______（buy）a parrt. It has black feathers and can learn t say 72. _______（sme）wrds it is taught. Every mrning, it greets my parents 73. _______（warm）. This brings the great 74. _______（happy）t my parents. My parents live in the cuntryside. They have three sns-my tw brthers and me. Hwever, all f us are in different 75. _______（city）. Fr my parents, the happiest time f the year is the gathering at the Spring Festival. Fr mst f the year, my parents nly speak t each ther. They feel a bit 76. _______（alne）smetimes. 77. W_______ the parrt at hme, they feel much 78. _______（gd）. The parrt is like their 79. _______（fur）sn. It usually stays in a cage. Smetimes my parents let it fly ut f the cage，but it always returns t the cage. In the daytime, it talks a lt and talks ludly. But at night when my parents fall 80. _______（sleep）, it always keeps quiet.
Ⅺ.基础写作（包括A、B两部分，A部分5分，B部分15分，共20分）
A）连词成句（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分）
将所给词语连成句子，要求符合语法，语句通顺，大小写正确，词语不得重复使用，句末标点已给出。
81. tmrrw, me, is, full, quite, fr
_______________________________________________________________.
82. he, help, his, parents, has, t
_______________________________________________________________
83. will, be, there, peace, wrld
_______________________________________________________________?
84. can, my, yu, party, cme t
_______________________________________________________________?
85. Cindy, his, gift, getting, lks frward t
_______________________________________________________________.
B）书面表达（满分15分）
自主学习，是学生打开知识大门的金钥匙。
学校英文网站正在开展以“自主学习（autnmus learning）”为主题的征文活动。假如你李华，请用英语写一篇短文投稿，谈谈你寒假期间将如何进行自主学习，以及这样做的原因。
提示词语：make a timetable, ask... fr help, a strng will, gal, keep trying
提示问题：·What will yu d t be an autnmus learner this winter vacatin?
·Why will yu start autnmus learning?
注意：1.语法正确，意思连贯，书写规范，要点齐全，可适当发挥；
2.文中不得出现真实的地名、校名和人名；
3.字数80左右，文章开头已给出，不计入总词数。
My Autnmus Learning Plan fr Winter Vacatin
I will start autnmus learning this winter vacatin. _____________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
2023—2024学年度第一学期期末学业质量检测八年级
英语试卷参考答案及评分标准（KA）
Ⅰ.听句子，选出句子中所包含的信息（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
1—5: CABAB
Ⅱ.听句子，选出该句的最佳答语（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
6—10: BCBBC
Ⅲ.听对话和问题，选择正确答案（共8小题；每小题1分，满分8分）
11—15: ACABC16—18:CBA
Ⅳ.听短文和问题，选择正确答案（共7小题；每小题1分，满分7分）
19—21: ACC22—25: BCAB
Ⅴ.听短文填空（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
26. During 27. imprve 28. weekly 29. utging 30. plants
Ⅵ.单项选择（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
31—35: DBDCA36—40: BABCB
Ⅶ.完形填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
41—45: BADAC46—50: BADBC
Ⅷ.阅读理解（共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分）
（A）51—53:CBC （B）54—56: BCD （C）57—60: ADAB （D）61—65: CCADB
Ⅸ.任务型阅读（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
66. September
67. learn sme life skills
68. Cleaning, cking and repairing.
69. Students learn three kinds f curses.
70.他们还可以帮助培养学生的劳动技能。
Ⅹ.词语运用（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
71. bught 72. any 73. warmly 74. happiness 75. cities
76. lnely 77. With 78. better 79. furth 80. asleep
Ⅺ.基础写作（包括A、B两部分，A部分5分，B部分15分，共20 分）
A）连词成句（共5小题,每小题1分，满分5分）
81. Tmrrw is quite full fr me.
82. He has t help his parents.
83. Will there be wrld peace?
84. Can yu cme t my party?
85. Cindy lks frward t getting his gift.
B）书面表达（满分15分）
86. One pssible versin:
I will start autnmus learning this winter vacatin. First f all, I will make a vacatin plan and put it up n the wall. Maybe it’s better fr me t start with small tasks, like reading English bks fr 30 minutes every day. Secnd, I will set a timetable fr my daily activities t help me make full use f time. What’s mre, if I have difficulties in learning, I will ask my teachers r friends fr help n WeChat, In rder t imprve my learning efficiency, I am ging t study with my friends tgether.
I believe I can benefit a lt frm autnmus learning. It will nt nly help me t develp a strng will, but als help me t achieve my gals. I will keep trying t be a successful autnmus learner.
26. _______ the cming 12 mnths, I am ging t:
☆27. _______ myself t be a better student
☆make sme plans fr my schlwrk 28. _______
☆ read mre bks
☆be mre 29. _______ and stand up fr myself
☆help ut the wrld
☆ grw mre 30. _______ and make friends with animals