77，河北省石家庄市桥西区2023-2024学年七年级上学期期末英语试题

这是一份77，河北省石家庄市桥西区2023-2024学年七年级上学期期末英语试题，共7页。试卷主要包含了收卷时只收答题卡， A等内容，欢迎下载使用。
注意事项：1.本试卷总分100分，考试时间90分钟。
2.答题前，考生务必将学校、考场号、姓名、班级、准考证号填写在答题卡相应的位置上。
3.答选择题时，每小题选出答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标
4.收卷时只收答题卡。
听力部分
I.听句子，选出句子中所包含的信息。（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分）
1. A. a penB. a bkC. a bx
2. A. black T-shirtB. blue T-shirtC. white T-shirt
3. A. have rice fr lunchB. have rice fr supperC. have rice fr breakfast
4. A. The cmputer is n the table. B. I like playing cmputer games.
C. There is a cmputer under the table.
5. A. I want t sing a sng. B. What's yur favrite subject?
C. I like music best.
II.听句子，选出该句的最佳答语。（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分）
6. A. It's fine, thanks. B. I'm OK. C. Gd evening.
7. A. They are bks. B. I am Tm. C. They are my friends.
8. A. That sunds fun. B. Thank yu. C. Yes, I d.
9. A. Yes, I like it. B. Because it's easy. C. What's wrng?
10. A. It's time. B. It's Tuesday. C. What time is it nw?
III.听对话和问题，选择正确答案。（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分）
11. What are they talking abut?

ABC
12. What is Linda ging t d?

ABC
13. Where is the dictinary?
A. On the sfa. B. On the desk. C. In the schlbag.
14. Hw is Jim's first day f schl?
A. It's gd. B. It's nt very gd. C. We have n idea.
15. Which subject is difficult fr Jenny?
A. English. B. Math. C. Chinese.
IV.听短文和问题，选择正确答案。（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分）
16. Hw many pencils are there in the bag?
A. Tw. B. Three. C. Fur.
17. What clr is the bag?
A. Yellw and brwn. B. Orange and green. C. Blue and white.
18. What subject des Mike like best?
A. P. E. B. Histry. C. Cmputer.
19. What des Mike think f vlleyball?
A. Bring. B. Relaxing. C. Interesting.
20. Why desn't Mike's father want him t play cmputer games?
A. It's t bring. B. It isn't fun. C. It is bad fr his study.
V.听短文填空（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
笔试部分
VI.单项选择。（共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分）
26. My mther is _______________English teacher. She teaches well.
A. aB. anC. theD. /
27. I have a little sister, and _______________name is Alice.
A. herB. sheC. myD. his
28. There _______________a lt f peple in the park.
A. amB. isC. areD. be
29. I dn't have a ftball, _______________my brther Sam des.
A. sB. andC. rD. but
30. My gegraphy class is _______________Friday.
A. inB. atC. nD. fr
31. —_______________d yu live?
—I live in Beijing.
A. WhenB. WhereC. HwD. What
32. The students ften _______________basketball at schl.
A. playB. playsC. playingD. played
33. —_______________peple are there in yur family?
—There are five.
A. Hw manyB. Hw muchC. What clrD. Hw ld
34. Lk! The ld man _______________a kite in the park.
A. flyingB. fliesC. are flyingD. is flying
35. Kim _______________t schl with his friends yesterday.
A. walksB. walkC. walkedD. walking
VII.完形填空（共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分）
This is uncle Wang. He wrks in a 36 shp in the middle f the city. Many kids like reading there. The shp is nt 37 frm his hme. 38 is nly abut three kilmeters away. 39 uncle Wang seldm (很少) ges t wrk 40 bus. He usually ges there n a bike, smetimes n ft. It 41 him thirty minutes t 42 there by bike and fifty minutes n ft. Tday his 43 is brken. He wants t walk there. Nw he is having 44 . He leaves 45 at ten minutes t eight. He desn't want t be late. S it is twenty minutes earlier than usual.
36. A. vegetableB. fruitC. bkD. sprts
37. A. farB. nearC. bigD. small
38. A. HeB. SheC. ThisD. It
39. A. ButB. SC. BecauseD. Why
40. A. inB. nC. byD. frm
41. A. takesB. bringsC. hasD. wants
42. A. cmeB. findC. giveD. get
43. A. busB. bikeC. schlbagD. desk
44. A. lunchB. supperC. breakfastD. class
45. A. hmeB. schlC. shpD. library
VIII.阅读理解（共10小题，每小题2分，满分20分）
A
Hell, friends! I am Bb. It's Mnday tday. I was very busy yesterday. In the mrning, I gt up early and had a quick breakfast. Ten I had a math class. After math class, I went t the library and read bks. I like t read bks there. It was 12 'clck, I went hme by bus. I had lunch with my family. In the afternn, I did my hmewrk. When I finished it, it was t late. I was very tired and I went t bed late.
46. What day was it yesterday?
A. Mnday. B. Sunday. C. Saturday. D. Tuesday.
47. Which ne is right?
A. gt up→read bks→ ad a math class
B. had a math class→had breakfast→read bks
C. had breakfast→ ad a math class→read bks
D. read bks→had breakfast→had a math class
48. Wh did Bb have lunch with?
A. His friends. B. His teacher. C. His classmates. D. His family.
B
D yu knw there are tw kinds f ftball games? One is American ftball, the ther is sccer.
In China, many yung men like playing sccer. It is very ppular. But the Chinese dn't call it sccer. We call it ftball. There are eleven players in a team. And the ball is rund (圆的). Only the galkeeper (守门员) plays he ball with his hands. The ther players can't play the ball with their hands.
In the USA, sccer is nt very ppular. They like playing American ftball mre than playing sccer. There are als eleven players in a team. The ball is nt rund. It is val-shaped (椭圆形的). All the players can play the ball with their hands and feet. And the gal (球门) is bigger than the gal f sccer games. American ftball is quite different frm sccer.
49. Hw many kinds f ftball games are there in the wrld?
A. Only ne. B. Tw. C. Three. D. Fur.
50. Which is NOT right?
A. American ftball is different frm sccer. B In the USA, sccer is nt very ppular.
C. American ftball is pt rund. D. Players can use hands t play sccer.
51. The gal f American ftball is _________than that f sccer.
A. biggerB. smallerC. higherD. lwer
C
I am Sam frm N. 10 Middle Schl. I think it's very imprtant fr us t be healthy. Nw I'll tell yu hw I can be healthy. I ften eat fruit and vegetables. I dn't like t eat hamburgers. They are nt gd fr my health. I have a balanced diet (均衡饮食). Many fds are imprtant, such as rice, meat, eggs, vegetables and fruit. I like t eat apples. As the saying says, “An apple a day keeps the dctr away.” And I als like ding sprts. I like running in the mrning. I play basketball in the afternn with my friends. And smetimes I play ping-png with my family at the gym n Saturdays. I think I'm healthy and strng. What abut yu?
52. Why desn't Sam like hamburgers?
A. Because he likes fruit and vegetables.
B. Because he thinks they are gd fr health.
C. Because he thinks they are nt healthy.
D. Because he desn't like them frm a child.
53. What des Sam like t d in the mrning?
A. Play basketball. B. Play baseball. C. Read English. D. G fr a run.
54 When des Sam play ping-png?
A. In the afternn. B. In the evening. C. On Saturdays. D. On Sundays.
55. What is the best title fr the passage?
A. Fruit and Vegetables are HealthyB. T be Healthy is very Imprtant
C. Ding Sprts is Gd fr Yur HealthyD. Having an Apple a Day is Imprtant
IX.任务型阅读（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分）
There are sme rules (规则) in ur schl. We must wear schl unifrms (校服) in the schl every day. We must wear sprts shes in PE classes. Bys can't have lng hair. We shuldn't be late fr schl.
The library is a gd place fr reading. We shuldn't talk in the schl library. Readers shuld keep the reading rm clean r quiet. If we have any questins in class, we shuld put up hands first. We shuld stand up when we answer teachers' questins. We mustn’t fight (打架) against thers.
If smene desn’t bey the rules (遵守规则), he will be punished (惩罚).
56～57题完成句子：58～59题简略回答问题；60题找出并写下全文的主题句。
56. The students must wear ____________in PE classes.
57. All the students shuldn't ____________fr schl.
58. If yu have any questins, what shuld yu d first?
____________________________________________________________________________________________.
59. Hw many rules des the writer tell us abut the library?
____________________________________________________________________________________________.
60. _________________________________________________________________________________________._
X.词语运用（共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分）
根据短文内容及所给提示，在文中的空白处填写一个正确的单词。
My name is Eric. I am 11 years ld. I am tall. I am 61. ____________ (friend). I wear 62. ____________ (glass). I like sprts and I like 63. ____________ (dg) very much. Nw I live in 64. ____________tall building with my family. My new hme is n the 65. ____________ (five) flr. There is a big bed and a cmputer in 66. ____________ (me) new rm. 67. ____________fur years ag, it 68. ____________ (be) different. I was nt tall. I didn't wear glasses. I was quiet. I ften 69. ____________ (stay) at hme. I didn't like P. E. I thught it wasn't 70. ____________ (interest). At that time, I lived in a small huse. There was n cmputer in my ld rm.
XI.基础写作（包括A、B两部分，A部分5分，B部分15分，满分20分）
A）连词成句（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分）
将所给词语连成句子，标点已给出。要求：符合语法，语句通顺，大小写正确，
词语不得重复使用。
71. a questin, can, ask, yu, I
___________________________________________________________________________________?
72. birthday, is, when, yur
___________________________________________________________________________________?
73. birthday, 22nd, my, n, August, is
___________________________________________________________________________________.
74. a, party, let's, birthday, have
___________________________________________________________________________________.
75. gd, s, sunds, that
___________________________________________________________________________________.
B）书面表达（满分15分）
假如下周有外国小朋友到你校参观学习，现在学校招募接待员，请写一篇自我介绍的文章，向学校提出申请。
内容提示：
1.基本信息：年龄，性格；
2.最喜欢的科目；
3.最喜欢的运动。
要求：1、要点齐全，并适当发挥； 2、词数60个左右；
3、文中不得出现考生的真实姓名和学校名称。
My name is Li Lei. ___________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
2022-2023学年度第一学期期末学习监测
七年级英语答案
选择题1～45，每小题1分。
听力：1～5.CBAAC6~10. BCABC11~15. ABCAB 16~20. BCBAC
21. 32/thirty-tw22. nice/beautiful/gd23. clck24. pictures25. chairs
单项选择：26～30.BACDC31~35. BAADC
完形填空：36～40.CADBC41~45. ADBCA
阅读题46～50，BCDBD51~55. ACDCB
46～55：每小题2分。
任务型阅读：
56. sprts shes57. be late58. We shuld put up hands first. / Put up hands first.
59. Tw/260. There are sme rules in ur schl.
词汇运用：
61. friendly62. glasses63. dgs64. a65. fifth
66. my67. But68. was69. stayed70. interesting
连词成句：
71. Can I ask yu a questin?72. When is yur birthday?
73. My birthday is n August 22nd. 74. Let's have a birthday party.
75. That sunds s gd.
书面表达：
My name is Li Lei. I am 13 years ld. My birthday is June 5th. I am a nice by / girl. I am friendly and helpful. I study very hard at schl.
My favrite subject is English. I like it because it is interesting. I can play the pian, but nt very well. I lve swimming and I am gd at it. I think it is interesting.
I'm ne f the best students in my class. My teachers all say I am a gd student. I believe I can d the jb well. Thanks. Hw ld
Classrm
On the wall
New things
21. _______________years ld.
It is s 22. _______________.
There is a 23. _______________and fur 24. _______________.
The desks and 25. _______________.