湖北省天门市2023-2024学年八年级上学期期末考试英语试题（含答案）

这是一份湖北省天门市2023-2024学年八年级上学期期末考试英语试题（含答案），共10页。
本卷共8页, 满分120分, 考试时间120分钟
注意事项：
1. 答题前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在试卷第1页装订线内和答题卡上。
2. 选择题的答案选出后，必须使用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，先用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。非选择题答案必须使用0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔填写在答题卡对应的区域内，写在试卷上无效。
3. 考试结束后，请将本试卷和答题卡一并上交。
一、听力。(共20小题，每题1.5分，计30分)
第一节：听下面五段小对话，根据你所听到的对话，选择与其内容相符的图片。每段对话读两遍。
A B C

D E F
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
第二节：听下面四段对话或独白，每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话或独白读两遍。
请听第1段材料,回答第6至7小题。
6. When did Mike watch The Best Perfrmer?
A. Yesterday mrning. B. Yesterday afternn. C. Yesterday evening.
7. Why des the girl like sitcms?
A. Because they’re fantastic. B. Because they’re mre interesting.
C. Because they have gd perfrmers.
请听第2段材料，回答第8至9小题。
8. Hw ften des Lucy clean her rm?
A. Every day.B. Once a week.C. Once a mnth.
9. What did Lucy d last Sunday?
A. She cleaned her rm.B. She visited her grandparents. C. She did her hmewrk.
请听第3段材料，回答第10至12小题。
10. What des Kate think f making milk shakes?
A. Easy. B. Difficult. C. Bring.
11. Hw many strawberries d they need?
A. Three. B. Fur. C. Five.
12. Hw sn will they enjy the milk shake?
A. In five minutes. B. In ten minutes. C. In fifteen minutes.
请听第4段材料，回答第13至15小题。
13. What des Lin Hua like ding?
A. Reading. B. Singing. C. Running.
14. What is Qi Fan like?
A. Quiet. B. Outging. C. Shy.
15. Why des Andy like Lin Hua and Qi Fan?
A. Because they are friendly t him.
B. Because they are bth hard-wrking.
C. Because they bring ut the best in him.
第三节：听下面一段独白，根据独白内容，写出表格中所缺单词，每空仅填一词。独白读两遍。
二、单项选择：从每小题的四个选项中选出一个可以填入空白处的最佳选项。（共15小题，每题1分，计15分）
21. —D yu think English is useful language?
—I think s. We can use it t talk with peple frm different cuntries.
A. a B. the C. an D. /
22. They are preparing an English exam.
A. at B. with C. fr D. f
23. The teacher asked five students, but f them culd answer the questin.
A. allB. bthC. nneD. everyne
24. —Is the reading rm fr all peple?
—N. Yu can’t get in yu shw yur student ID card.
A. thugh B. if C. unless D. when
25. —Helen is ill and the dctr says her illness is the f eating unhealthy fd.
—Sunds terrible!
A. result B. advice C. habit D. hbby
26. —I stayed at hme and watched TV all day. —It that yu had a bring weekend.
A. seems B. lks C. feels D. tastes
27. —Is the yung man in a white T-shirt ur new math teacher? —He be. I’m nt sure.
A. must B. can’t C. mightD. shuld
28. We are all busy s we have time t get tgether than befre.
A. muchB. mreC. littleD. less
29. —Yu’re talking t ludly. I’m afraid yu will wake up the baby.
—Srry, I will speak mre .
A. quietly B. clearlyC. seriuslyD. cmfrtably
30. We have n mre vegetables in the fridge(冰箱). I and buy sme.
A. g B. went C. will g D. was ging
31. —I’ll let it g because it’s s difficult.
—Yu can’t just the prblem. Yu shuld have a try.
A. hang ut withB. lk frward t C. be sure abut D. run away frm
32. — I believe “Nthing is impssible t a willing heart.”
— yu dn’t give up, yu will make prgress(进步) little by little.
A. As lng as B. As sn as C. As much as D. As well as
33. — will yur grandmther cme back frm the hspital? —In ne week.
A. Hw lngB. Hw sn C. Hw ften D. Hw much
34. —I fell and brke my left leg yesterday. — , be careful next time.
A. Never mindB. Nthing seriusC. It desn’t matterD. Srry t hear that
35. —What a fantastic sng! It brings the gd ld days back t me. —________. I feel the same.
A. I’m afraid s. B. Yu are quite right. C. I’m nt sure. D. I dn’t think s.
三、完形填空：阅读下面短文，然后从每小题的四个选项中选出一个可以填入短文中相应空白处的最佳选项。（共15小题，每题1分，计15分）
“What’s wrng, dear?” said Mrs. Smith t the little by, Tm Blair, wh had tears in his eyes.
“We have all gt a 36 called Little Jim t learn,” said Tm, “and the ne wh says it best will get a 37 frm the teacher. But I dn’t think I can learn it.”
“Why nt?” said Mrs. Smith.
“It is s lng and hard fr me. And ther bys always 38 me, and call me ‘Slw Tm’,” said Tm in a 39 vice.
“Well, dear, dn’t mind 40 thers say,” said Mrs. Smith kindly. “Lk at that snail(蜗牛) n the wall, hw 41 it is! But if yu watch it, yu will see it will get t the tp at last. When yu feel like lsing heart, 42 the snail n the wall.”
At last, the day came. The teacher called up the bys t repeat(复述) the pem. When five r six bys had tried, it came t Tm’s turn. 43 Tm gt up, there was a laugh because mst f the bys thught he wuld fail(失败). But he did nt 44 a wrd. And his heart was full f 45
when the teacher said, “Well dne, Tm Blair!” After the rest f the class had tried, the teacher said Tm had dne 46 , and he gave him the prize. “And nw tell me,” said the teacher, “hw yu learned the pem s 47 ?”
“Please, sir, it was the snail n the wall that 48 me hw t d it,” said Tm. “I saw it crawl up(爬行) the wall bit by bit. It did nt stp, nr turn back, but went n and n. And I thught I wuld d the same with my task. S I 49 learned it bit by bit, and did nt give up.”
“Nw, bys, let us give a gd 50 fr Tm Blair and the snail n the wall,” said the teacher. And the ld huse rang with a lud, lng cheer(欢呼). Fr all were glad that “Slw Tm” had gt a prize at last.
36. A. letter B. pem C. bk D. passage
37. A. watch B. prize C. snail D. chclate
38. A. laugh at B. agree withC. wait frD. lk after
39. A. sad B. big C. kind D. sweet
40. A. hw B. why C. what D. when
41. A. slw B. fast C. stupid D. clever
42. A. listen t B. knck nC. shut atD. think f
43. A. If B. WhetherC. But D. When
44. A. use B. miss C. make D. catch
45. A. happiness B. pain C. pity D. surprise
46. A. wrst B. least C. mst D. best
47. A. wellB. hardC. lateD. fast
48. A. gt B. made C. taught D. rdered
49. A. even B. just C. never D. nce
50. A. party B. scre C. welcmeD. cheer
四、综合填空：阅读下面短文,根据上下文、所给首字母填入适当的内容（1个单词）或括号内单词的正确形式。（共10小题,每题1.5分,计15分）
Birthday means party, dress, flwers, sweets, gifts and s n. A birthday party is a time 51
(have) a lt f fun and relax yurself. My birthday falls n O 52 18th.
On the mrning f my birthday, I gt all my family members’ 53 (wish). At schl, I gave sweets t my classmates and teachers. All my classmates sang the birthday sng fr me. My friends gave me birthday gifts.
On the evening f my birthday, my parents held(举办) a birthday party 54 was fully decrated(装饰) with flwers, clrful ballns(气球), lamps(灯) and ribbns(丝带). Seeing all the things, I was 55 (surprise) and excited.
I tk ff my schl unifrm and put 56 a new dress. I cut the cake while all thers arund me sang the birthday sng. All the guests greeted(迎接) me with beautiful gifts. My parents 57 (buy) me a cmputer as a gift.
We all enjyed the party which c 58 my grwth. We played many interesting games. The guests were served cffee and snacks. Then my friends and I sang sngs and danced tgether 59 (happy). Everyne had dinner at arund 10:00 p. m. and then the party was ver. It was a wnderful party.
Nw I’m lking frward t 60 (g) t my friends’ birthday parties. I believe they will be wnderful, t.
五、阅读理解：A—C篇，先阅读图表或短文，然后从每小题的四个选项中选出一个与图表或短文内容相符的最佳选项；D篇，先阅读短文，然后根据短文内容，从方框中所给的六个句子中选出能填入短文空白处的最佳选项。(共15小题，每题2分，计30分)
A
61. Peple can’t g t Sweet Tmates n ________ fr a meal.
A. Sunday B. Tuesday C. Mnday D. Thursday
62. Mr. and Mrs. Black visited Sweet Tmates with their tw kids, Sara, aged 10 and Tm, aged 5. Hw much shuld they pay fr the meal?
A. ¥ 110. B. ¥ 120. C. ¥ 150. D. ¥ 180.
63. Where is the passage frm?
A. A nvel. B. A newspaper. C. A math bk. D. A stry bk.
B
Dear Mike,
My schl is abut t hld a basketball cmpetitin. Many f my classmates cheer(加油) fr ur players and watch them practice every day. I dn’t always have time t cheer with them, since I’m s busy with my schlwrk. But I feel like I will be left ut if I dn’t jin them. What shuld I d?
Adam
Dear Adam,
This des sund like a difficult situatin(情境). On the ne hand, it can be fun t cheer fr yur team, and f curse it’s nice t hang ut with yur friends and cheer alng with them. They prbably wish that. Yu culd be there t have fun with them. But yur studies are als imprtant. Yu need t get gd grades in schl.
Actually, that makes me wnder—why d yur classmates have time t cheer fr the team, but yu dn’t? Shuldn’t they als be busy with their schlwrk? Maybe yu can ask them hw they manage t have s much free time. Or maybe yu just need t use sme mre time in the evenings t catch up n yur wrk. If yu can finish mre schlwrk at hme, yu shuld have mre time t cheer with yur friends later. Hpefully yu can cheer fr yur team sn.
Mike
What is Adam wrried abut?
A. He can’t play basketball well.B. He can’t jin the cheering team.
C. He has t much hmewrk t d.D. His classmates dn’t like him anymre.
What des Mike advise Adam t d?
A. T ask classmates fr help.B. T stay up late ding hmewrk.
C. T spend mre time n basketball.D. T cheer fr the team with his friends later.
Which pinin(观点) des Mike prbably agree with mst?
A. Teenagers need team life.B. Everybdy has lts f prblems.
C. Peple shuld try t slve prblems.D. Students need friends t share wrries with.
C
Henry is ging thrugh a very hard time. His wife has just passed away. He feels that life withut her is hpeless. Fr mnths, Henry sits in his huse, ding nthing. His family try t encurage(鼓励) him t d new things and enjy life, but they’re nt successful.
Henry’s neighbr, an ld wman named Lisa, sees him frm her yard ne day. She has nt seen him utside in days! She asks him t cme clser t the fence(篱笆) next t her huse.
“Hell, Henry! Just lk at this fence. It is falling apart. Yu are a strng man. Can yu help me fix(修) this fence?” Lisa asks.
Henry is angry inside. He is the ne wh needs help right nw. He thinks the ld lady is being kind f rude(无礼的). But she is t ld t fix the fence herself, s he agrees.
Henry wrks n the fence fr days. Lisa brings him range juice while he wrks. When he finishes, she thanks him. Henry smiles fr the first time in mnths.
“What a wnderful jb! Culd yu please paint it fr me?” Lisa says t him.
Henry cannt believe she is asking fr mre help. Desn’t she knw hw sad he is? But because he respects her, he agrees. He wrks hard and paints the fence in the ht sun, but Lisa’s range juice and encuragement are helpful. As their neighbrs pass by, they all tell Henry what a beautiful jb he has dne. Henry feels very happy.
Henry n lnger feels that life is hpeless. He finally realizes that Lisa wasn’t being rude. She knws that staying busy can help us frget ur sadness. He helped her, but she truly saved him.
67. Henry felt that life was hpeless because .
A. he lst his wife B. he had nthing t d
C. he was ut f his jb D. his family wrried abut him
68. Which f the fllwing shws hw Henry’s feelings changed ver time?
A. Sad—angry—happy—thankful B. Sad—upset—thankful—wnderful
C. Unhappy—respectful—bred—sad D. Respectful—wnderful—thankful—sad
69. What des the underlined wrd “realizes” mean?
A. Frgets B. Plans C. Understands D. Prvides
70. What can we learn frm the stry?
A. Gd helps thse wh help themselves.
B. It is gd t make friends with neighbrs.
C. We can save ur wn lives in many ways.
D. We can keep away frm sadness by staying busy.
D
Music Makes Yu Pretty Smart.
Many studies shw music makes yu smart when yu learn it at an early age. 71
Studies shw learning music at an lder age can d wnders fr yur mind, t.
Music Builds Yur Cnfidence(自信).
When yu are in a bad md(情绪), yu culd play fr just ne persn r yur friend.
72 Als, yu will bring that cnfidence int ther areas f yur life.
Music Brings Yu Clser t Peple.
73 Many f us can enjy sngs in languages we can nt speak r understand. Yu will be surprised at hw music can bring yu clser t peple, especially if yu need t meet and spend the time with peple frm ther cuntries. Fr example, if yu dn’t knw what t talk abut, ask the ther persn what his/her favrite sng is, and if yu are knwledgeable in music, yu will have a nice talk.
Music Makes Yu a Team Player.
74 And when they d, it is imprtant t always listen t yur teammates and watch their facial and bdy language. Then yu can decide hw yu want t play yur instrument(乐器) t make the shw successful.
75 If yur parents want yu t learn a music instrument, what will yu chse?
六、书面表达。(计15分)
76. 假如你叫李华，N.5中学八年级学生。今年寒假要去参加一场冬令营活动。届时，你将作为代表在开营仪式上发言。请你从性格、爱好、参加此次活动的目的以及梦想等方面作自我介绍。
要求：
1. 80词左右，可适当发挥；
2. 开头和结尾已给出，不计入总词数；
3. 文中不得出现与个人相关的真实信息。
Hell, everyne! I’m Li Hua, a Grade 8 student in N.5 Middle Schl.



That’s all. Thank yu.
天门市2023-2024学年度第一学期期末考试八年级
英语试题参考答案及评分标准
一、试题参考答案：
（一）听力。（共20小题，每小题1.5分，计30分）
1—5ACBDE6—10CBBBA11—15CBABC
16. Prepare17. pieces18. Break19. salt20. simple
（二）单项选择。（共15小题，每题1分，计15分）
21—25 ACCCA 26—30 ACDAC 31—35 DABDB
（三）完形填空。（共15小题，每题1分，计15分）
36—40 BBAAC 41---45 ADDBA 46---50 DACBD
（四）综合填空。（共10小题，每题1.5分，计15分）
51. t have 52. Octber 53. wishes 54. which/that 55. surprised
56. n 57. bught 58.celebrated 59.happily 60. ging
（五）阅读理解。（共15小题，每题2分，计30分）
61—63CCB64—66DAA 67—70 AACD
71—75 BEACD
（六）书面表达。(计15分)
76.例文：
Hell, everyne! I’m Li Hua, a Grade 8 student in N.5 Middle Schl.
I’m very glad t cme t the winter camp. I’m utging and friendly, s I have lts f friends. I like ging muntain climbing. I think it is quite an exciting activity. I ften climb muntains with my friends nce a week. By taking part in the winter camp, I hpe t imprve my English and make mre friends at the same time. As fr my dream, I want t be a writer when I grw up. Because I lve reading bks.
I’m lking frward t getting t knw all f yu sn.
That’s all. Thank yu.
二、试题评分说明：
（一）选择题类：所有选择题类试题，错选、漏选或多选均不给分。
（二）非选择题类：非选择题类试题，可能存在多种答案，凡符合题意，且在语义、语法、语用上都正确的其他答案，应予评分。大小写错误不扣分。
（三）书面表达:
1. 评分原则：
（1）采用整体印象评分法。评分时，先整体阅读短文，根据其内容和语言，初步确定其所属档次，然后在该档次内选择合理的分数。
（2）注重内容表达。评分时要重点看短文所传达的信息是否有效，能否完成题目要求。
（3）如果短文词数少于80或出现真实的人名和地名，降1档次评分。
2. 评分标准：
Hw t make tmat egg sup?
First
16 three tmates and tw eggs.
Secnd
Cut the tmates int 17 .
Next
18 the eggs. Mix them up.
Then
Pur them int the ht water and add sme 19 .
Finally
Ck them fr abut five minutes.
Opinin
(观点)
The sup is 20 and delicius.
Salad & Fruit & Vegetables
Eat as much as yu can in Sweet Tmates!
Say gdbye t any meat, enjy fruit and vegetables!
Adult ¥ 60
Child ¥ 30 (age 6—10) free (age under 6)
• First five n the 2nd Sunday each mnth—get ne free delicius chclate
Opening hurs:
11:00 a.m. — 10:00 p.m. (Tuesday—Friday)
10:00 a.m. — 11:00 p.m. (Saturday—Sunday)
Clsed n Mnday
Our stres in Beijing:
• Xidan: (010) 2332 6531
• Wangfujing: (010) 2369 1473
A. Music is a special language.
B. But what if we already passed early age?
C. Musicians ften play with ther musicians.
D. All in all, music is a very imprtant part f ur life.
E. After finishing a shw, yu will feel better abut yurself.
F. Did yu knw that playing an instrument can help yur brain wrk better?
档 次
评 分 标 准
第一档
(13～15分)
要点齐全，语句通顺，行文流畅，能够清楚表达自己的意思,使用了较为丰富的语法结构和词汇，基本没有语言知识错误。
第二档
(10～12分)
要点齐全，句子比较通顺，行文比较连贯，能够比较清楚表达自己的意思，但有少许语言知识错误。
第三档
(7～9分)
能写出部分要点，意思表达基本清楚，但有些句子不够通顺，行文欠连贯，有较多语言知识错误。
第四档
(4～6分)
只能写出与主题相关的少许句子，基本不能成文，语言知识错误过多，表达不清楚，影响理解。
第五档
(0～3分)
只能写出与主题相关的个别句子、零散词汇。