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    江西省赣州市大余县2023-2024学年九年级上学期期末检测英语试题()(1)

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    江西省赣州市大余县2023-2024学年九年级上学期期末检测英语试题()(1)

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    这是一份江西省赣州市大余县2023-2024学年九年级上学期期末检测英语试题()(1),共10页。试卷主要包含了 B等内容,欢迎下载使用。
    说明:1.全卷满分120分,考试时间120分钟。
    2.请将答案写在答题卷上,否则不给分。
    听力部分(20分)
    一、听力测试。(20分)
    现在是试听时间。请听一段对话,然后回答问题。
    What is the by ging t buy?
    A. Sme juice. B. Sme ranges. C. Sme apples.
    答案是C。
    A)请听下面5段对话,每段对话后有一小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。听完每段对话后,你都将有10秒钟的时间回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。(5分)
    1. What can the girl play?
    A. The guitar. B. The vilin. C. The pian.
    2. Hw ften des Nick g t the English Reading Club?
    A. Twice a week. B. Once a mnth. C. Twice a mnth.
    3. What des the man think f the sweater?
    A. It’s t big. B. It’s very cheap. C. It’s very expensive.
    4. Which bus des the man take t the z?
    A. N.138. B. N. 308. C. N.318.
    5. Wh did Tm visit the Great Wall with?
    A. His friends B. His teachers C. His parents
    B)请听下面4段对话。每段对话后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。听每段对话前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话读两遍。(每小题1分)
    请听第1段对话,回答第6、7小题。
    6. Where is the by ging?
    A. T a theater. B. T a park. C. T a museum.
    7. Hw lng is it pen n Mnday?
    A. Fr 6 hurs. B. Fr 7 hurs. C. Fr 8 hurs
    请听第2段对话,回答第8、9小题。
    8. What are the evening discussins abut?
    A. Ppular music. B. Cuntry music. C. Jazz music.
    9. Hw ften d they meet?
    A. Once a week. B. Twice a week. C. Three times a week.您看到的资料都源自我们平台,家威鑫 MXSJ663 低至0.3元/份 请听第3段对话,回答第10至第12小题。
    10. Where did Wendy g several days ag?
    A. England. B. France. C. Thailand.
    11. Wh are the gentlest?
    A. The British. B. The Germans. C. The French.
    12. Hw many ways are there t greet each ther?
    A. Tw. B. Three. C. Fur.
    请听第4段对话,回答第13至第15小题。
    13. Can Kitty g t the party?
    A. Yes, she can. B. N, she can’t. C. We dn’t knw.
    14. Wh buys Kitty clthes?
    A. Her mther. B. Her father. C. Herself
    15. What is Kitty allwed t d?
    A. Chse her wn clthes. B. Watch TV. C. Stay up late studying.
    C)请听下面一段独白,根据独白内容完成下列句子,每个空格不超过3个单词。将答案填写到答题卡的相应位置。听独白前你将有50秒钟的时间阅读句子内容。独白读两遍。(每小题1分)
    16. Karen went t Lndn in 2021 with her .
    17. They left at night and after flying fr abut hurs.
    18. Fr the first three days, there was a .
    19. Luckily, the weather n the furth day.
    20. When they flew back, the temperature was degrees Celsius.
    二、单项填空(8分)
    请阅读下面各题,从题中所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。(每小题1分)
    21. —Must I clean the rm nw? — .Yu can clean it tmrrw.
    A. Yes, yu must. B. Yes, yu can. C. N, yu needn’t. D. N, yu mustn’t.
    22. — have yu lived in Jianye District?
    —Fr almst ten years
    A. Hw lng B. Hw ften C. Hw far D. Hw sn
    23. Culd yu please tell me ? I want t buy sme bks.
    A. where is the bkstre B. where the bkstre is
    C. where was the bkstre D. where the bkstre was
    24. —What’s the f yur great success?
    —Believe in yurself and stick t what yu’re ding.
    A. prblem B. pleasure C. methd D. chance
    25. Dn’t be afraid t make mistakes while speaking English, yu will never really imprve yur spken English.
    A. r B. and C. s D. but
    26. —As I knw, yur friend Jeff is very humrus.
    —Yes. He is persn I knw.
    A. Funnier B. the funniest C. mre serius D. the mst serius
    27. —Hell! Can I speak t Jenny, please?
    —Srry, she isn’t in. Can I a message?
    A. take B. read C. check D. receive
    28. There’s a large library in Dalian. It in 1907.
    A. builds B. built C. is built D. was built
    三、完型填空(26分)
    A)请先阅读下面短文,掌握其大意,然后从各小题所给的A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出可以填入相应空白处的最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。(每小题1分)
    D yu listen t music when yu are sad? Des yur favrite sng make yu feel 29 ? Maybe yu listen t music when yu feel 30 . Des the music help yu feel better?
    Arund 400 BCE, Hippcrates, the Greek" Father f Medicine", played music fr his 31 . In ancient times, peple in China, Egypt, India, and Rme als used music t 32 peple get better. In Wrld War I and Wrld War II, dctrs played music fr sldiers wh had emtinal(感情的)prblems because they 33 in the war.
    And tday, many dctrs 34 use music t help peple. Fr example, sme dctrs play music fr patients in the 35 after surgery(外科手术). It helps their bdies becme 36 . If patients listen t Mzart, they will 37 need less medicine.
    38 will happen when we listen t music? And why des it make us have s many different emtins? As humans, we need fd, water and 39 frm ther peple t live. But d we need music?
    In ne scientific study, different peple listened t different 40 f music while scientists lked at what happened t the listeners' bdies. When a persn liked a 41 , the heartbeat was faster and the bdy became 42 . Als , the brain 43 mre dpamine(多巴胺). Dpamine is a chemical that gives us a feeling.
    With this study, scientists learned that music can make us feel gd.
    29. A. gd B. sad C. healthy D. lnely
    30. A. silk B. sick C. happy D. sad
    31. A. clthes. B. jbs C. dgs D. patients
    32. A. help B. arrive C. keep D. deal
    33. A. trained B. fught C. fight D. cried
    34. A. really B. and C. still D. will
    35. A. hspital B. schl C. library D. ffice
    36. A. bad B. kind C. healthy D. strng
    37. A. hardly B. prbably C. really D. als
    38. A. What B. Hw C. Which D. Why
    39. A. lve B. wealth C. fame D. health
    40. A. kind B. kinds C. happy D. terrible
    41. A. sing B. sng C. sang D. sngs
    42. A. warmer B. ht C. cld D. fine
    43. A. ges B. has C. lses D. makes
    B)请先阅读下面短文,掌握其大意,然后用方框中所给词的适当形式填空,并将答案填写到答题卡的相应位置。每个词限用一次。(每小题1分)
    Mike went t the Animal Wrld with his father last Sunday. It was a 44. day and they went there by subway. It tk them thirty minutes 45. there and they spent five yuan n each ticket. First, they went t 46. the tigers. They lked 47. and cute. Then they went t see the 48. . They were lucky 49. the zkeeper invited them t feed the elephants with bananas. Mike was a little 50. at first, but it turned ut t be fun. After 51. , they went t see the mnkeys. They fund several mnkeys eating fd 52. . They were s 53. in mnkeys that they tk many phts f them. Althugh they were tired at last, they had great fun. Mike’s father 54. him that they wuld g there again.
    A)请阅读下面短文,根据短文内容从每小题所给的A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出最佳选项,并在答题卡上将选项涂黑。(每小题2分)
    A
    ( )55. Lily is 13 and her little brther Tm is 6, last weekend, Lily and Tm went t Bletchley Park with their parents. Hw much d they have t pay?
    A. 25 B. 30 C. 26 D. 36
    ( )56. When can we visit Natinal Railway Museum?
    A. On weekdays. B. On Sundays. C. On Saturdays. D. Every day.
    ( )57. Where can Allen g shpping?
    A. NRM B. A3600 Stratfrd Rad C. Bletchley Park D. Yew Tree Farm
    B
    Kaitlin Riffel's dream t end pverty(贫困)started when she was visiting her father, wh wrked fr the hmeless.
    "I never realized there were peple in the wrld wh didn't have a hme r fd befre," said Kaitlin, wh is nw sixteen. "I knew there was smething I had t d abut that."
    At age eight, she started raising mney t build a playgrund. "It tk me tw years," Kaitlin said. "We wanted t d smething t make a difference."
    In 2014, When Kaitlin was thirteen, she visited Central America, and saw peple ging hungry and families living in huses made f cardbard. That year, she set Kids n a Missin, which has helped hundreds f peple there."
    The rm was smaller than my bedrm, but there wuld be eight peple living in each ne," Kaitlin said. "We als gt t see the dirty rivers that thse peple were drinking ut f."
    Prviding clean drinking water, fd and clthes fr peple living in pverty is nw an imprtant task fr Kids n a Missin. "This yung lady is changing the hearts f peple, and als changing the wrld," said the headmaster f Kaitlin's schl.
    ( )58. What is Kaitlin's father's jb?
    A. He builds playgrunds. B. He sells fds.
    C. He visits schls. D. He helps hmeless peple.
    ( )59. When did Kaitlin set Kids n a Missin?
    A. In 2009. B. In 2011. C. In 2014. D. In 2017.
    ( )60. What was peple's life like in Central America accrding t Kaitlin?
    A. Their drinking water was dirty. B. They lived in strng huses.
    C. Their bedrms were very big. D. They had enugh fd and clthes.
    ( )61. What can we infer frm the headmaster's wrds?
    A. Kaitlin ften changes schls fr her study.
    B. Kaitlin is always ready t give and help.
    C. Kaitlin has many chances t travel arund.
    D. Kaitlin has a serius prblem with her heart.
    ( )62. What might be the best title fr the text?
    A. Schl life in America B. Gift frm a headmaster
    C. Father's duty in the family D. Girl's dream t end pverty
    C
    Fr thse f yu wh live in Nrthern China - d yu knw where yur water cmes frm? In fact, mst f yur water cmes frm the Yangtze River, thanks t the Suth-t-Nrth Water Diversin prject.
    The wrld's largest water diversin prject(引水工程)transfers(转移)water frm the Yangtze River in the suth t dry areas in Nrthern China thrugh eastern, middle and western rutes(路线). The prject was first suggested abut 70 years ag. It started with the cnstructin(建造)f the eastern rute in 2002 and the middle rute in 2003, while the western rute is still in its pre-cnstructin stage.
    The middle rute, which mainly brings water t Beijing, began supplying(供应)water in 2014. The eastern rute, which feeds areas like Tianjin and Shandng Prvince, began supplying water in 2013. S far, these tw rutes have transferred nearly 30 billin cubic metres f water t ver 40 cities and 260 cunties in Nrthern China, including Beijing, Tianjin, Hebei and Henan Prvince, accrding t Jiang Xuguang. This amunt f water is enugh t fill West Lake in Hangzhu abut 2,140 times. "The water frm the suth has becme a lifeline fr these cities," Jiang said. The middle rute has prvided ver 73 percent f Beijing's tap water supply. It has benefited(使受益)ver 12 millin peple, mre than half f the city's ttal ppulatin.
    Zha Feiyan, a Beijing resident, said there were ften thick mineral depsits(矿物沉淀)at the bttm f teapts befre the new water came t Beijing. "Since then, the taste f tea has imprved," Zha said.
    ( )63. In Nrthern China, where des mst f the water cme frm?
    A. The yellw river B. the sea C. the lake D. The Yangtze River
    ( )64. The underlined phrase "these cities" refers t .
    A. cities in the cast B. cities in the middle
    C. cities in the nrth D. cities in the suth
    ( )65. What can we knw frm the last paragraph?
    A. The water in Beijing is enugh B. Peple in Beijing have benefited a lt
    C. There were thick mineral depsits in water D. Zha Feiyan likes water in Beijing
    ( )66. What d peple wh live in Nrthen China think f the prject?
    A. satisfied B. angry C. srry D. wrried
    ( )67.Which f the fllwing best shws the structure f the passage?
    A. B.
    C. D.
    D
    Sftware(软件)develpers(发明者)in the USA have created a game called Osm Cding Jam. The game is designed t help children use the creative side f their minds when learning t cde(代码). Children can play the game n iPads.
    Tanya Ddge is the mther f tw children wh play the game. Accrding t her, these activities give her children imprtant skills fr the future, "It's an analytical(分析的)skill" said Ddge.
    But the develpers believe writing cde is nt just an analytical skill. "We want t explre(探究)the creative side f cding that I think is ften nt as explred," said Felix Hu, an Osm engineer. Hu added, "The clest part is that we're teaching kids hw t be creative with cde and that's a really imprtant thing that kids shuld get cmfrtable with because cding is creative."
    Hu als sees many parents wh feel that sftware cde is a secnd language that children need t learn t succeed in future jbs. Tanya Ddge agrees. She said, think yu're ging t have t understand the idea f cding will wrk well in the future." Hu als explains that very ften kids grw up net understanding hw a cmputer wrks. He says by breaking it dwn t a lwer level, kids can understand that the cmputer isn't as smart as they think it is.
    ( )68. What is Osm Cding Jam fr?
    A. Helping kids learn sftware B. Helping kids lean t cde fast.
    C. Helping children learn designing. D. Helping kids becme mre creative.
    ( )69. What is Tanya Ddge's pinin f Osm Cding Jam?
    A. It needs t be imprved B. It can help kids play well.
    C. It is f great help t tday's kids. D. It is nt perfect in training kids' analytical skills
    ( )70. The writer wrte this passage
    A. t tell hw t learn t cde well B. t tell abut a new game fr kids
    C. t encurage kids t learn t study well D. t shw the imprtance f creativity
    ( )71. The underlined wrd “He” refers t .
    A. Sftware develpers B. Osm Cding Jam C. Felix Hu D. Tanya Ddge
    ( )72. What can we learn frm the passage?
    A. If smene desn't learn Maths well, he r she can't write cde.
    B. Creativity cmes frm writing cde in daily life.
    C. Writing cde is just a skill which helps kids t analyze things well
    D. A lt f parents agree that sftware cde will be useful fr their kids' future jbs.
    E
    Dumplings are the traditinal fd fr the Spring Festival in China.73. D yu knw why they are s ppular?
    74. They usually made dumplings in the shape f Chinese gld ingts(金锭), because they hped fr a rich life in the cming year.
    75. Fr example, sugar dumplings will make peple's life happy and sweet in the future. Peanut(花生)dumplings can bring peple a lng and healthy life. Anyway, peple eat dumplings with their best wishes.
    On Spring Festival Eve, every family makes dumplings ready early. When the midnight cmes, the whle family will sit tgether and eat the dumplings.76. It means that the New Year cmes at this time. And it sunds the same as the Chinese wrd fr dumplings: jiazi(饺子).77.
    五、补全对话(5分)
    请阅读下面的对话,根据对话内容从方框中选择恰当的句子填入空白中,使对话通顺、合理,意思完整,并在答题卡上将其序号涂黑。(每空一句,每小题1分)
    A: 78 ?
    B: I'll have exams in tw mnths, dctr. I can't sleep well and always feel tired.
    A: D yu always think abut it?
    B: Yes, all the time. 79 And I wrry abut being late fr schl.
    A: Yu will be OK. Dn't wrry s much. Hw ften d yu exercise?
    B: 80 .
    A: Yu need sme mre time t relax. Yur health is mre imprtant than study.
    B: 81 ?
    A: Sure. There is nthing serius with yu. I think yu'd better spend mre time with yur friends, d mre exercise and talk with yur parents r teachers. 82 .
    B: Thanks.
    六、书面表达(15分)
    83.保安大叔的双语广播让不少市民和游客惊叹不已,他对英语的学习热情也激励着所有英语学习者。你校正举办题目为“Hw t imprve English writing”的征文活动。请你用英语写一篇短文进行投稿,内容包括:1.你的英语写作存在哪些困难;
    2.你是如何解决英语写作困难的;
    3.就如何提高英语写作水平提出建议。
    要求:1.不得出现考生的真实姓名和校名。
    2.语句连贯,词数100词以上。作文的开头已给出,不计入总词数。
    Hw t imprve English writing
    Writing is very imprtant in English learning. Many students are afraid f writing
    2023-2024学年度上学期期末检测
    九年级英语试题参考答案及评分意见
    听力材料
    A)请听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。在答题卡上将该项涂黑。听完每段对话后,你都将有10秒钟的时间回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。(每小题1分)
    1. M: Can yu play the guitar?
    W: N, I can't. But I can play the pian very well.
    2. W: What d yu think f the English Reading Club, Nick?
    M: It's helpful. I g there every Mnday and Wednesday.
    3. M: Excuse me, hw much is this sweater?
    W: One hundred and ninety-nine dllars, Sir.
    M: One hundred ninety-nine dllars; that's very expensive.
    4. M: Excuse me, can yu tell me the way t the z?
    W: Sure, it’s a little far. Frm here yu can take N. 308 bus.
    5. W: I didn’t see yu last week. What did yu d, Tm?
    M: I visited the Great Wall with my parents. And we ate Peking duck.
    B)请听下面4段对话。每段对话后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。听每段对话前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话读两遍。(每小题1分)
    请听第1段对话,回答第6、7小题。
    W: Hell? Can I help yu?
    M: Yes, please. My family just mved here. I plan t visit Fun Time Park tmrrw. D yu knw the pening time?
    W: Sure. Let me check. Tmrrw is Mnday. It pens at 10 a.m. and it clses at 5 p.m.
    M: Oh right. Thanks.
    请听第2段对话,回答第8、9小题。
    M: Hi, Ann! I hear yu started evening discussins n ppular music. Hw's it ging?
    W: Pretty well. I must say I've learned a lt. But it wuld be better t have smene wh knws mre abut ppular music. Wuld yu like t jin us, Tm?
    M: Certainly! When d yu usually meet?
    W: Every Saturday evening.
    M: I have ther things t d n Saturday evenings.
    W: What abut Friday evenings?
    M: OK.
    请听第3段对话,回答第10至第12小题。
    M: Hi, Wendy! I heard that yu went t France several days ag.
    W: Yeah. The beautiful cuntry and there are lts f custms there.
    M: Wuld yu like t tell me sme?
    W: OK. Cmpare with the British and the Germans, the French are the gentlest.
    M: Hw d yu greet each ther?
    W: They have three ways. One is t shake hands. One is t kiss n the side f the face. The last ne is t have a big hug with their arms.
    M: That sunds interesting. I'll g there next mnth.
    W: Have a nice trip.
    M: Thanks.
    请听第4段对话,回答第13至第15小题。
    M: Hi, Kitty. Are yu ging t the party tnight?
    W: N, my parents wn't allw me t g t the party. There are lts f rules at my huse.
    M: Like what?
    W: Well, I'm nt allwed t watch TV at hme.
    M: Really? But there are many shws.
    W: Yu're right. I'm nt allwed t chse my wn clthes, either. Usually, mm buys clthes fr me.
    M: Are yu allwed t have a pet?
    W: Oh, yes. M: What else are yu allwed t d?
    W: My parents say I can stay up late studying.
    C).请听下面一段独白,根据独白内容完成下列句子,每个空格不超过3个单词。将答案填写到答题卡的相应位置。听独白前你将有50秒钟的时间阅读句子内容。独白读两遍。(每小题1分)
    Hi, I am Karen. Let me tell yu smething abut my trip t Lndn. I went t the trip t Lndn in 2021 with my family. We left at night and after flying fr abut 12 hurs, we arrived at Heathrw Airprt in the mrning. Fr the first three days, there was a heavy rain, and the highest temperature was nly 9 degrees Celsius. Luckily, the weather changed n the furth day, and we had a sunny Wednesday. The last tw days were quite dry, and it was cludy in the afternn. When we flew back, believe it r nt, the temperature went up t 35 degrees Celsius and it was very ht.
    九年级英语试题答案
    听力:1-5 CACBC 6-10 BBAAB 11-15 CBBAC
    16. family 17. 12/twelve 18. heavy rain 19.changed 20. 35/ thirty-five
    单选:21-25 CABCA 26-28 BAD
    完形填空:29-33 ABDAB 34-38 CACBA 39-43 ABBAD
    44. sunny 45. t get 46. see 47. strng 48. elephants 49.because
    50. afraid 51. lunch 52. happily 53. interested 54. prmised
    阅读理解:55-57 CAD 58-62 DCABD 63-67 DCBAB
    68-72 DCBCD 73-77 CEBFG
    补全对话:78-82 ACGBF
    作文范文:
    Hw t imprve English writing
    Writing is very imprtant in English learning. Many students are afraid f writing.
    I like English very much, but I used t have truble writing in English. I culdn’t write articles. I was very wrried abut it. S I asked my teacher fr help. With the help f my teacher, I knew hw t d it. At the same time, my deskmate als helped me learn English writing. Besides, I read the text every day and then lked fr gd mdel cmpsitins t recite. Slwly, my writing has imprved.
    In my pinin, if yu want t imprve yur English writing, yu shuld first turn t yur teacher fr help. Secnd, yu have t wrk hard, and the mst imprtant thing is persistence.sunny, elephants, afraid , lunch, see, prmise, interest, happy, because, strng, get
    Bletchley Park
    Opening Hurs: Every day(Christmas & New Year's Day)
    Weekdays 9:30 am-5 pm, Weekends 10:30 am-5 pm
    Price:
    Adults £ 10 Children(12-16)£ 6
    Children under 12 Free Tickets bught nline 20% ff
    NRM(Natinal Railway Museum)
    Opening Hurs:
    Weekdays 10:00am---6:00pm
    Museum Admissin(门票费): FREE Tel: 08448 153 139
    Fr big trains, bigger stries and the biggest free day ut, cme t the wrld's largest railway museum. Best f all it's free
    Yew Tree Farm
    Add: A3400 Stratfrd Rad
    Tel: 01564 792 701
    Free admissin
    Opening Hurs; Tue.-Sun.10 am-5 pm.
    A mdern shpping village made up f sixteen beautiful huses and a cffee shp in a yard ffering all kinds f prducts frm arund the wrld.
    A. It's my favrite festival.
    B. Dumplings with different fds in them have different meanings.
    C. Almst everyne eats them that day
    D. The dumplings are delicius.
    E. In the ld days, peple thught eating dumplings culd make their wishes cme true.
    F. The midnight is als called "jia zi(交子)".
    G. S eating the dumplings is als a way t welcme the New Year.
    A. What's the matter?
    B. Can yu give me sme advice?
    C. I wrry abut my exams.
    D. What can we see there?
    E. I am sure we will enjy a fun day there.
    F. And yu will be better sn
    G. Twice a week.

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