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    湖南省邵阳市新邵县2023-2024学年八年级上学期期末考试英语试题

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    这是一份湖南省邵阳市新邵县2023-2024学年八年级上学期期末考试英语试题,共9页。试卷主要包含了 Wh is T Tm?等内容,欢迎下载使用。

    温馨提示:本试卷共四道大题,总分100分,考试时间100分钟。
    I. 听力技能(两部分,共20小题,满分20分)
    第一节 听音辨图(共5小题,每小题1分,满分5分)
    根据你所听到的内容,从A、B、C三个选项中选择正确图片。
    1. When des Grace usually watch talk shws?
    A. B. C.
    2. What des Diana want t be when she grws up?
    A. B. C.
    3. What is the man getting ready fr?
    A. B. C.
    4. Hw will Cle g t schl?
    A. B. C.
    5. Wh is T Tm?
    A. B. C.
    第二节(共15小题,每小题1分,满分15分)
    听下面6段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有2-3个小题,从题中所给A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项回答问题。
    听下面的对话,回答第6~7小题。
    6. What is the relatinship between the tw speakers?
    A. Mther and sn. B. Teacher and student. C. Classmates.
    7. What will the by d first?
    A. Watch the sprts shw. B. Clean his rm. C. D his hmewrk.
    听下面的对话,回答第8~9小题。
    8. When did Bb g t the Summer Palace?
    A. Last weekend. B. Last mnth. C. Last year.
    9. Wh did Bb g with?
    A. His family. B. His classmates. C. His friends.
    听下面的对话,回答第10~11小题。
    10. Hw lng des it take t ck the sup?
    A. 10 minutes. B. 30 minutes. C. 40 minutes.
    11. What shuld Andy add in the end?
    A. Sme salt. B. Sme water. C. An nin.
    听下面的对话,回答第12~14小题。
    12. When will the prgram abut rbts begin?
    A. At 7: 40 p. m. B. At 8: 00 p. m. C. At 8: 40 p. m.
    13. What CANNOT rbts d accrding t the wman?
    A. Drive trains. B. Help peple in danger. C. Help t build cars.
    14. Where des the wman get the infrmatin abut the rbts?
    A. In the newspaper. B. On TV. C. In a bk.
    听下面一段对话,完成15-17小题。
    15. Wh is taller, Mark r Tny?
    A. Mark. B. Tny. C. Mark is as tall as Tny
    16. What des Tny lk like?
    A. He has brwn eyes and black hair. B. He has black eyes and shrt hair.
    C. He has black eyes and brwn hair.
    17. Where is Tny living nw?
    A. In Kunming. B. In Changsha. C. In America.
    听短文选答案听下面一段独白,完成18-20小题。
    18. When is the Schl Music Festival?
    A. On Nvember 9th. B. On Nvember 19th. C. On December 9th.
    19. What shuld the students d befre ging int the hall?
    A. Buy sme fd. B. Write dwn their names. C. Shw their ID cards.
    20. Hw many rules in the passage des the girl say abut?
    A. Three. B. Fur. C. Five.
    Ⅱ. 阅读技能(共20小题,计30分)
    第一节 阅读理解(共16小题,每小题1. 5分,满分24分)
    阅读下列材料,从每题所给的A、B、C三个选项中,选出最佳选项。
    (A)
    21. Ze wants t becme a(n)________.
    A. dctr B. engineer C. teacher
    22. Wh lves children?
    A. Ze B. Paige C. Janne
    23. Where des Tm want t live?
    A. In France. B. In England. C. In Greece.
    24. The underlined wrd “that” refers t(指代) “________”.
    A. reading B. being happy C. being a writer
    (B)
    A lng time ag, there were tw talented bys, Jhn and Je. They shwed great talents frm an early age, and they did better than thers arund.
    They grew up but they chse different ways. Jhn used all f his talents t find a gd jb. He tk part in many activities and visited the mst imprtant peple and places. Everyne thught that he wuld be the mst imprtant persn in the wrld.
    But the secnd yung man, Je, was different. He always tk a heavy respnsibility(责任). He was always busy lking fr ways t help thers.
    One day, sme bad things happened. Jhn didn't knw what t d. But Je tried his best t slve the prblems. He thught f sme gd ways and didn't let the bad things affect(影响) the peple in his twn. Frm then n, he was mre famus than Jhn.
    Jhn then knew that a persn's talents are nt nly fr himself. He learned that peple shuld always help each ther.
    25. What did Jhn use his talents t d?
    A. Help thers. B. Find a gd jb. C. Make thers happy.
    26. Why was Je mre famus than Jhn?
    A. Because he had a gd jb. B. Because he visited many places.
    C. Because he always helped ther peple.
    27. What d yu think f Je?
    A. Successful. B. Respnsible. C. Hard-wrking.
    28. What can we learn frm this passage?
    A. A persn's talents are nly fr himself. B. We must learn hw t be famus.
    C. We shuld always help each ther.
    (C)
    D yu knw the mvie Rbt? It tells us a stry abut the future.
    The year is 2035 and rbts are just as cmmn as mbile phnes. Peple depend n their rbts t d lts f things, fr example, babysitting, ding husewrk and taking their dgs fr a walk. Rbts have t bey(听从) humans' rders(命令) because their designers make them d s. A plice fficer called Spner hates(厌恶) rbts. He desn't think humans can get n well with their rbts at all! But the scientist Susan has different pinins(观点).
    Susan wrks n rbts' mind and she thinks ne day rbts will becme mre pwerful(强大的) than humans and help humans t make prgress(进步).
    When Spner and Susan wrk tgether, they find that smething is wrng with the wrld's rbts. A few rbts have their wn thughts and they're trying t get ut f humans' cntrl(控制). Of curse these rbts' dream desn't cme true.
    Humans wrk hard t cntrl their rbts again and they succeed at last.
    29. The stry will happen in ________.
    A. 2010 B. 2020 C. 2035
    30. The underlined phrase “depend n” in this article means ________.
    A. 依靠 B. 相信 C. 取决于
    31. Spner is a ________and Susan is a ________.
    A. scientist; prfessr B. plice fficer; scientist C. plice man; dctr
    32. Which f the fllwing is NOT true accrding t this article?
    A. The mvie Rbt talks abut the future. B. Peple use their rbts t d everything.
    C. A few rbts want t get ut f humans' cntrl.
    (D)
    The 19th Asian Games, tk place in September, 2023 in Hangzhu, China. At the Games, China finished first n the medal tally(奖牌榜) and gt the mst gld medals and the mst silver medals. Three lvely Mascts(吉祥物) cme t Hangzhu Asian Games. D yu want t make friends with them? Let's knw mre abut them.
    The blue ne is Chenchen, standing fr(代表) the Beijing-Hang Grand Canal(京杭大运河). Its clr is a symbl f science and technlgy(科技). Its name is frm the Gngchen Bridge. It is gd at ball games.
    Cngcng stands fr Liangzhu City. Its name cmes frm Jade Cng(玉琮). Its yellw clr is the clr f earth and harvests(丰收). It is gd at pwer prjects(项目).
    Lianlian is green, the clr f life and nature. During the Games, Lianlian will take us arund West Lake, because it stands fr West Lake. Its name cmes frm the ltus leaf(莲). It des well in water sprts.
    33. Where did the The 19th Asian Games take place?
    A. In New Yrk B. In Beijing C. In Hangzhu
    34. Hw many mascts are there in Hangzhu Asian Games?
    A. Tw B. Three C. Fur
    35. What is Chenchen gd at?
    A. ball games B. pwer prjects C. water sprts
    36. What's the best title f this article?
    A. Mascts f Hangzhu Asian Games B. The 19th Asian Games
    C. Gld medals and silver medals
    第二节 语篇还原(共4小题,每小题1. 5分,满分6分)
    根据短文内容,从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。
    Yu must knw Singe's Day (Nv. 11) in China. Many peple, prbably even yur parents stay up late that night. They g shpping nline t get big discunts(折扣). Well, the US has smething like it called Black Fridays.
    37 It fell n Nvember 29 this year. It is ne f the biggest shpping days in the US. Stres ffer deep discunts. but they have a limited(有限的) number f items. Peple want t start shpping fr Christmas gifts, s they g shpping n this day t save mney. 38 S when there was a lt f black ink n the page, it meant the shp sld a lt.
    Shpping n Black Friday takes place at actual (实体) stres. 39 Starting arund 4 a. m, thusands f peple crwd utside f stres and malls. 40 When the drs pen, they rush t the shelves. Smetimes they fight ver things because there are nly a few left. Televisins and cmputers are sme f peple's favrite things t buy.
    A. They stand in line fr hurs.
    B. In sme ways, Singles' Day is like Black Friday.
    C. It's called Black Friday because shps used t recrd(记录) sales with black ink.
    D. Black Friday is the Friday after Thanksgiving.
    E. It is different frm Singles' Day.
    Ⅲ. 语言运用(共两节,满分25分)
    第一节 完形填空(共10小题,每小题1. 5分)
    阅读下面短文,从短文后各题所给的A、B、C三个选项中,选出可以填入空白处的最佳答案。
    Americans like t travel(旅游) n hlidays. Tday mre and mre travelers in America are 41 nights at small huses r inns(小旅馆) instead f(而不是) 42 . They get a rm fr the night and the 43 fr the next mrning. Rms fr the night in private(私人的)hmes with breakfast have been 44 with travelers in Eurpe fr many years.
    In the past five t ten years, these bed-and-breakfast places have becme ppular in America. Many f these American inns are ld buildings. Sme have nly 45 rms. 46 are much larger. Sme inns d nt prvide(提供) telephnes in the rms, 47 thers d. Staying at an inn is much different 48 staying at a htel. Usually the cst(费用) is much 49 . Staying at an inn is almst like visiting smene's hme. The wners are glad t tell abut the area and the interesting places t 50 . Many travelers say they enjy the chance t meet the lcal(当地的) families.
    41. A. taking B. wrrying C. spending
    42. A. htels B. hmes C. villages
    43. A. sprt B. breakfast C. lunch
    44. A. expensive B. new C. ppular
    45. A. little B. few C. a few
    46. A. Other B. The ther C. Others
    47. A. s B. but C. because
    48. A. frm B. f C. in
    49. A. mre B. less C. fewer
    50. A. livers B. players C. travelers
    第二节 语法填空(共10小题,每小题1分,共10分)
    阅读下面短文,在空白处填入一个适当的单词或括号内单词的适当形式,使短文意思完整,行文连贯。
    Life tday is much easier than it was hundreds f years ag. But there is 51 prblem—pllutin. cmes in many 52 (way). We smell it, drink it and even hear it.
    The 53 (many) peple, the mre pllutin. Many years ag, there 54 (be)nt many peple, s the pllutin was nt very serius. When peple used up the land(陆地), they mved t a new place. But we can't d that nw.
    What will the future be like? Sme 55 (science) say that the pllutin will be mre serius. The city will be mre crwded, 56 there will be mre peple and cars. At last, the earth will be a 57 (danger) place fr humans. They have t leave the earth and lk fr anther planet t live n.
    Luckily, many cuntries are 58 (make) rules t fight pllutin nw. They ask peple t take the subway r bus t wrk. They als ask peple t plant mre trees. Thanks t 59 (they), I think ur earth will be 60 (gd)than nw.
    51._________ 52. _________ 53. _________ 54. _________ 55. _________
    56. _________ 57. _________ 58. _________ 59. _________ 60. _________
    IV. 读写综合(共两节,满分25分)
    第一节 任务型阅读(共5小题,每小题2分,共10分)
    It's difficult when a gd friend isn't arund. Maybe because yu have mved t a different schl r a different class r yu are ill at hme. Yu may feel unhappy withut friends. 61. 你想交新朋友吗? But d yu knw hw? Hw d yu get alng with peple? Here are sme suggestins fr yu.
    Greet peple. Greet peple and hpe they have a gd day. Whatever time f a day it is. It never hurts anyne. It als makes peple think that yu are utging and friendly.
    Smile. Smiling is the simplest way t make thers like yu. There's a great reasn why it takes fewer muscles t smile than t cry. Nature just wishes us t smile mre.
    Help peple. Simple actins like helping peple carry smething r pen a dr, shw yur kindness. Just as the saying ges “64. A true friend reaches fr yur hand and tuches yur heart.”
    Respect(尊重) thers. Everyne is different frm each ther. The wrld is full f differences. S learn t respect thers. It's the nly way that ther peple will respect yu.
    61. 将划线部分翻译成英文。
    _______________________________________________________________________________________________
    62. Hw many suggestins des the writer give?
    _______________________________________________________________________________________________
    63. Why des smiling take fewer muscles than crying?
    _______________________________________________________________________________________________
    64. 将划线部分翻译成中文。
    _______________________________________________________________________________________________
    65. Hw d yu make ther peple respect yu?
    _______________________________________________________________________________________________
    第二节 话题写作(共1小题,满分15分)
    66. 随着科技的进步,AI技术已经深人到我们的日常生活中,机器人的应用也越来越广泛,外形也越来越多样化,甚至一些机器人的外形与人类的外形已经十分相像。如果你作为一个机器人的设计者,你希望机器人有什么样的外形?它能做什么样的事情?请你以My Rbt为题写一篇作文。
    要求:①文章必须包含提示中的所有要点,可适当整合或发挥;②文中不能出现真实姓名和校名;③词数80左右。
    My Rbt
    _______________________________________________________________________________________________
    _______________________________________________________________________________________________
    _______________________________________________________________________________________________
    _______________________________________________________________________________________________
    2023年下期八年级期末质量检测
    英语答案
    1-5 ACBBA 6-10 ACACC 11-15 ABCAA 16-20 CABCA
    21-25 ABCCB 26-30 CBCCA 31-35 BBCBA 36. A 37-40 DCEA
    41-45 CABCC 46-50 CBABC
    51. a 52. ways 53. mre 54. were 55. scientists
    56. because 57. dangerus 58. making 59. them 60. better
    61. D yu want t make new friends?
    62. Fur
    63. Because Nature just wishes us t smile mre.
    64. 真正的朋友是一个可以援手帮助并感动你心扉的人。
    65. Learn t respect thers.
    66. 略
    听力原文
    I. 听力技能
    第一节. 听音辨图。根据你所听到的内容,选择正确图片。
    1. A: Hi, Grace! When d yu usually watch talk shws?
    B: I usually watch talk shws at 9: 00 p. m.
    2. A: Gd mrning, Diana! What d yu want t be when yu grw up?
    B: Gd mrning, Jack! I want t be a ck when I grw up.
    3. A: What are yu ding, Peter?
    B: There will be a talent shw n TV next Sunday. I am getting ready fr it.
    4. A: Lk! Cle is trying t catch the schl bus ver there.
    B: Yes. He will be late fr class.
    5. A: Is that Sam playing the guitar?
    B: N, that’s Tm. Sam has lnger hair than Tm.
    第二节,听下面6段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有2-3个小题,从A,B,C三个选项中选出最佳选项回答问题。
    听下面的对话,回答第6~7小题。
    A: Mm,can I g t Lily's birthday party tmrrw?
    B: Sure. But yu must finish yur hmewrk first.
    A: OK! I’ll d it right nw.
    听下面的对话,回答第8~9小题。
    A: Bb! Where did yu g n vacatin last weekend?
    B: I went t the Summer Palace. It was a fantastic trip.
    A: Great Did yu g with yur family ?
    B: N. I went there with my friends.
    听下面的对话,回答第10~11小题。
    A: Susan, I want t make Russian Sup,can yu tell me hw t make it?
    B: Sure! First, buy sme beef and vegetables. Then, cut them up.
    A: What’s next?
    B: Ck the beef fr 30 minutes, then add all the vegetables and ck fr anther 10 minutes.
    A: That’s all?
    B: N, ne mre thing, finally, dn’t frget t add sme salt.
    听下面的对话或独白,选择最佳答案
    听下面的对话,完成第12~14小题。
    A: Le, what time is it?
    B: It’s 7: 40 p. m.
    A: Oh, I must g hme nw. I want t watch the prgram abut rbts at 8: 00. I like rbts very much.
    B: Great. I like them, t. Can yu tell me smething abut them?
    A: Of curse. There are all kinds f rbts in the wrld nw. Sme can fly planes r drive trains. Sme can help peple in danger.
    B: Really? Are yu sure rbts can fly planes?
    A: Yes. I read the news in the newspaper.
    听下面的对话,完成第15~17小题。
    A: Is that Mark?
    B: N, that is Tny. Mark is taller than Tny. And Tny has black eyes and brwn hair.
    A: Is Tny living in Changsha?
    B: N, he is living in Kunming.
    听下面一段独白,完成第18-20小题。
    Hell, bys and girls. Next Sunday, Nvember 19th is ur Schl Music Festival. We will have a schl shw in the schl music hall n that day. If yu g there, yu will have a great time. But there are als sme rules fr yu t remember. First, please shw yur ID card befre yu g in. Secnd, please dn’t bring any fd int the hall. If yu d, the teachers wn’t let yu in. Third, please keep quiet during the shw, r thers will be angry. Welcme t the shw and enjy yurselves. That’s all, thank yu. Ze, 12, France
    I want t be a dctr when I am lder because I like t help peple and make them feel better.
    Paige, 13, England
    I'm ging t be an infant(婴幼儿) schl teacher. I lve children and lve the idea teaching them. This jb is the best ne fr me.
    Janne, 13, America
    In the future, I wuld lve t be a writer. Writing makes me really happy. I lve reading, t. But if that desn't cme true, a musician is als OK.
    Tm, 14, England
    I want t be an engineer, and I want t live in Greece(希腊).
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