陕西省西安市新城区2023-2024学年八年级上学期期末英语试题（）

这是一份陕西省西安市新城区2023-2024学年八年级上学期期末英语试题（），共11页。试卷主要包含了 请将各题答案填写在答题卡上， A等内容，欢迎下载使用。

英 语
注意事项：
1. 全卷满分120分，答题时间为120分钟。
2. 请将各题答案填写在答题卡上。
第一部分（听力 共30分）
Ⅰ. 听选答案（共15小题，计20分）
第一节：听下面10段对话，每段对话后有一个问题，读两遍。请根据每段对话的内容和后面的问题，从所给的三个选项中选出最恰当的一项。（共10小题，计10分）
1. A. Twice a week. B. Three times a week. C. Fur times a week.
2. A. On Friday. B. On Saturday. C. On Sunday.
3. A. Des his hmewrk. B. Plays basketball. C. Plays sccer.
4. A. An actr. B. A dctr. C. A reprter.
5. A. Lily. B. Mary. C. Shirley.
6. A. A sprts shw. B. A talk shw. C. A game shw.
7. A. Sup. B. Bread. C. Salad.
8. A. A class party. B. A welcme party. C. A birthday party.
9. A. Funny. B. Serius. C. Outging.
10. A. Because he had a bad cld.
B. Because he ate nthing this mrning.
C. Because he stayed up t d his hmewrk.
第二节：听下面两段对话，每段对话后有几道小题，请根据对话的内容，从题目所给的三个选项中选出问题的正确答案。每段对话读两遍。（共5小题，计10分）
听第11段对话，回答第11、12小题。
11. Where did Peter see a rbt?
A. At schl. B. In a park. C. On TV.
12. Hw will kids study at hme in the future?
A. Learn by themselves. B. Learn with parents. C. Learn n cmputers.
听第12段对话，回答第13至15小题。
13. Wh did Ben climb the muntain with?
A. His friend. B. His father. C. His mther.
14. Hw lng did it take Ben t reach the tp f the muntain?
A. Tw hurs. B. Three hurs. C. Fur hurs.
15. What did Amy d yesterday?
A. She lked after her little sister. 您看到的资料都源自我们平台，20多万份试卷，家威杏 MXSJ663 每日最新，性比价最高B. She did sme husewrk.
C. She studied fr the math test.
Ⅱ.听填信息（共5小题，计10分）
本题你将听到一段独白，读两遍。请根据独白内容， 用所听到的单词或短语完成下列各题。（每空不超过三个单词。）
第二部分（笔试 共90分）
Ⅲ. 完形填空（共20小题，计20分）
第一节：阅读第一篇短文，按照句子结构的语法性和上下文连贯的要求，从各小题的四个选项中选出一个最佳答案，使短文连贯完整。
The Magic Key in the Bk
Lewis gave his sn Tby a bk withut any pictures. Tby was disappinted. Lewis said, “Dear, there is 21 magic key in the bk ”Tby liked everything abut magic He pened the bk, 22 he didn't find the key “Yu wn't find it like that Yu have t read it, ”said Lewis Tby 23 reading the bk, but he stpped the next day He thught, “It's s bring There 24 n magic key Dad just wants me 25 mre ”
Tby's yunger sister began t read the bk 26 three days, she said, “I have fund the magic key! With it, I visited many places and peple. They were gr eat!” Hearing this, Tby began t read it again He 27 bred at first because there were n pictures in it But later, he fund it 28 than befre and he walked int the wrld in the stry He visited the wnderful places in the bk by 29 .
“The bk is the key!” he cried.
Frm then n, in every new bk, Tby culd see a magic 30 He enjys reading very much nw.
21. A. a B. an C. the D./
22. A. thugh B. but C. and D. because
23. A. begin B. begins C. began D. will begin
24. A. is B. are C. has D. have
25. A. read B. t read C. reading D. reads
26. A. In B. Befre C. Fr D. After
27. A. feel B. feels C. felt D. feeling
28. A. interesting B. mre interesting C. interest D. the mst interesting
29. A. him B. himself C. he D. his
30. A. bk B. bks C. key D. keys
第二节：阅读第二篇短文，理解大意，然后从各小题的四个选项中选出一个最佳答案，使短文连贯完整。
Paul is frm America He is a 13 year ld by He likes 31 n weekends There are many TV shws every day What kind f 32 des Paul like and what des he think f them? Well, Paul's favrite TV shws are sprts news and Animal Wrld. He ften watches them 33 he ges t bed Paul's favrite 34 is P E at schl. He likes playing basketball very much. Paul lves sprts news. He thinks it is very exciting because he can see a lt f famus 35 Paul 36 likes Animal Wrld. He thinks the shw is very interesting, and he can 37 a lt abut animals frm it Pandas and kalas are Paul's favrite animals Paul hpes t g t 38 t see kalas ne day As fr Healthy Living, Paul desn't mind it. He watches it when there isn't sprts news r Animal Wrld. But Paul can't 39 sap peras. He thinks they're 40 He never watches them
31. A. ging swimming B. ging shpping C. watching TV D. ding sme reading
32. A. TV shws B. sprts C. sngs D. news
33. A. s B. befre C. after D. if
34. A. teacher B. clr C. language D. subject
35. A. players B. runners C. actrs D. dctrs
36. A. just B. als C. either D. t
37. A. learn B. take C. give D. mind
38. A. China B. England C. America D. Australia
39. A. send B. mind C. stand D. prepare
40. A. interesting B. bring C. fun D. cl
Ⅳ.阅读理解（共15小题，计20分）
第一节：阅读下面A、B、C三篇材料，从所给的四个选项中选出能回答所提问题或完成所给句子的一个最佳答案。（共10小题，计15分）
A
Alvin finished a questinnaire（调查表）
Sunshine Htel
Dear Guest,
Thank yu fr sharing yur htel experience.
Name f guest: Alvin Lee
Phne number: 53216987
Time f stay: frm 6: 00 p m n Octber 18th t 11: 00 a m n Octber 22nd
Wuld yu return t ur htel fr a stay again?
Yes.
What advice will yu give?
Faster husekeeping services and high-speed Internet.
41. Hw many nights did Alvin stay in the Sunshine Htel?
A. Tw. B. Three. C. Fur. D. Five.
42. Which f the fllwing was Alvin the least happy with?
A. Fd. B. Staff expertise.
C. Timing f services. D. Check-in experience.
43. Alvin gave Sunshine Htel advice n __________.
A. husekeeping services and the Internet
B. lighting and husekeeping services
C. cleanliness and the Internet
D. cleanliness and lighting
B
Mst peple arund the wrld agree that pandas are smart and cute animals. But can they draw? Can they d anything special? I believe they can. These days a panda becmes a ppular star and helps the z where she lives get lts f visitrs.
This female panda called Yang Yang cmes frm Vienna Z, Austria. Nw she has learned t use a brush t create her wrks f art. Peple like her paintings s much that 100 f them are waiting nline fr smene t buy at $580 each.
Yang Yang's paintings will prbably help the z t make $58,000. With the mney, the z will have the chance（机会） t publish（出版） a new picture bk abut the pandas in the z. The plan will certainly cme true because Yang Yang enjys painting and can draw mre pictures.
Tw years ag, Yang Yang became a mther f twin pandas. She is a smart mther and learns t draw quickly. Many visitrs wuld like t visit the z t see Yang Yang's wnderful painting shws They make peple think f the first attempts（尝试） f a small child
Yu never knw, with such an amazing talent, this cute animal may be able t becme a great artist!
44. Which f the fllwing is true?
A. Yang Yang drew mre than 100 pictures.
B. Yang Yang cmes frm America.
C. Each f Yang Yang's paintings nline is abut $5,800.
D. Yang Yang has a twin sister.
45. What des the underlined wrd “They” refer t?
A. Yang Yang's tw kids. B. Yang Yang's painting shws.
C. The z's visitrs. D. Smart and cute pandas.
46. Where can yu prbably read this passage?
A. In a strybk. B. In a diary.
C. In a newspaper. D. In a sprts magazine.
C
I think that Earth Hur is a really gd way t let peple knw that little things they d can make a big difference t the earth.
Earth Hur started in Sydney, Australia, in March 2007. Nw, cities all arund the wrld jin in Earth Hur. During Earth Hur peple turn ff their lights, televisins and cmputers t save the earth.
A lt f energy（能源） is saved arund the wrld during Earth Hur, but peple shuld think mre than ne hur f energy saving. Peple shuld help the earth every hur f e very day. Walking t schl r the shp saves energy. Using bth sides f the paper save s energy. Turning ff the tap（水龙头） when yu brush yur teeth saves energy. When yu stp and think abut it, there are s many simple things peple can d every day t save the earth.
Being part f Earth Hur cnnects peple arund the wrld fr smething gd. I am ging t be part f Earth Hur again next year. I hpe yu will be, t.
47. When and where did Earth Hur start?
A. It started in German, in May 2007. B. It started in France, in March 2007.
C. It started in Australia, in March 2007. D. It Started in Australia, in May 2007.
48. What is Paragraph 3 mainly abut?
A. When Earth Hur began. B. What peple think f Earth Hur.
C. Hw peple can save energy every day. D. Why peple shuld prtect the earth.
49. Which f the fllwing is TRUE accrding t the passage?
A. Peple nly need t save the earth during Earth Hur.
B. Peple shuld help the earth every hur f every day.
C. Peple can write n ne side f the paper t save energy.
D. Peple shuld turn n the tap when they brush their teeth.
50. The writer writes this passage t __________.
A. ask peple t save the earth B. tell peple t save time
C. help peple live an easy life D. make peple live happier
第二节：根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。（共5小题，计5分）
I want t becme a dctr 51 I really hpe my dream f being an excellent dctr will cme true ne day But it is nt easy 52
First, be brave（勇敢的） when meeting difficulties. In the face f difficulties, I hpe that I can be a brave persn. I hpe my first idea is nt t give up, but t face them.
53 I'm ging t study medicine at a famus university and I will be really hard wrking.
Third, exercise mre 54 Withut gd physical cnditin（身体状况）, lts f knwledge reserves（知识储备） will be n paper. S I make weekly plans t exercise.
55 Then I can get clser t my dream
A. Being a dctr needs a healthy bdy.
B. I think that being a dctr is ne f the mst imprtant jbs in the wrld.
C. I usually read a lt f bks abut science in my free time.
D. All in all, I will try my best t keep these reslutins.
E. Making plans is a gd way, s I make sme reslutins.
F. Secnd, be ready t d sprts.
G. Secnd, be ready t wrk hard.
V.完成句子：根据所给汉语意思，用单词或短语完成下列英文句子。（共5小题，计10分）
56.上周我收到了妈妈的来信。
I _______________________ my mther last week
57.我们应该学会如何礼貌地拒绝别人的邀请。
We shuld learn hw t ______________________ thers’ invitatin plitely
58.请给我一些关于礼貌行为的建议。
Please give me sme ______________________ ab ut gd manners
59.宇航员在进入太空之前必须反复训练和练习。
Astrnauts have t train and practice ______________________ befre they enter space
60.如果明天天晴，我将去上一节游泳课。
If it is sunny tmrrw, I will take a ______________________
Ⅵ.短文填空：用方框中所给单词的适当形式填空，使短文完整正确。（每个单词限用一次，每空限填一个单词。）（共10小题，计10分）
think he n d astrnaut danger sell ne prbable be
Tday is January 20th, 2060 It is cnfirmed（被确认） tday that Mike will be the 61 visitr t Mars（火星）. The 38-year-ld American trader will leave the earth in January 2062, tgether with six 62 Mike will sn start his tw year training f r the trip t Mars It will be an exciting but 63 trip It will take 64 five mnths t get t Mars, and then he will spend 100 days 65 the red planet Mike is f curse very excited. “This is my dream I started dreaming f ging int the space when I 66 fur, ”he says
T be able t pay fr the expensive ticket fr the trip, Mike 67 his factry NwMike almst has nthing but the ticket, but Mike believes he is 68 the right thing Hw will Mike spend his days n Mars? “Well, if I dn't have a jb when I get back t the earth, I will spend sme time 69 f a new idea, ”he says and laughs “ And if I can take a shvel（铁铲）, I will 70 build the first htel there ”
Ⅶ.任务型阅读：阅读下面短文，根据短文内容，完成下列各题。（共5小题，计10分）
Chang’ an（《长安三万里》） is an animated film（动画电影） that tells the life f the TangDynast y, a great time in Chinese histry.
Infrmatin frm Duban
Title: Chang' an
Directrs: Xie Junwei, Zu Jing
Release date: July 8, 2023
Genre: Animatin/ Histry
Runtime: 168 minutes
Language: Chinese
Rating（评分）: （Nw, 4,190,000 peple watched it. And 391,000 peple gave their ratings.）
Cmments（评论）:
Sarah:
Li Bai and Ga Shi were real friends fr a lng time and they always helped each ther. Their friendship made me feel the warmth. I gave five stars!
Jenny:
When I watched it, my daughter recited（背诵） pems. It's really an educatinal film. Children may get interested in mre Chinese pems after watching it.
71. Hw lng is the film Chang’ an?
It's _____________________ lng
72. When was the film released?
It was released n _____________________
73. In the rating chart, hw many peple gave a fur-star rating t Chang’ an n Duban?
There were _____________________ peple
74. What made Sarah feel the warmth?
_____________________ made her feel the warmth
75. What did Jenny think f the mvie?
She thught it was _____________________
Ⅷ.补全对话（共5小题，计5分）
根据下面对话中的情境，在每个空白处填入一个适当的语句，使对话恢复完整。
A: Jacksn, 76. _____________________?
B: I usually watch TV in my free time.
A: What TV shws d yu like?
B: I like sprts shws and sitcms.
A: 77. _____________________?
B: Because they make me happy and relaxed.
A: And which d yu like better, sprts shws r sitcms?
B: 78. _____________________ I can learn sme great jkes frm sitcms. What abut yu, Eric?
A: I dn't like watching TV. I usually g camping r climb muntains if I have time.
B: 79. _____________________?
A: I usually d these with my cusin, Paul. We bth lve utdr activities. We will climb a muntain next weekend 80. _____________________?
B: Yes, I'd lve t. Call me befre yu g.
Ⅸ.书面表达（共1题，计15分）
亲爱的同学们，紧张忙碌的一个学期即将结束，丰富多彩的寒假就要来临了。怎样安排好寒假生活，过一个充实而又有意义的寒假呢?请根据以下提示，写出你的寒假计划。
要求：1. 参考以上提示内容，并将第四条补充完整；
2. 语句通顺，意思连贯，可适当发挥；
3. 文中不得出现你的任何真实信息（姓名、校名和地名等）；
4. 词数：70词左右。作文的开头结尾已给出，不计入总词数。
The winter hliday is cming. Here are my plans fr it.
______________________________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________________________
If I can carry ut the plans, I will have a clrful and meaningful winter hliday.
八年级学业水平质量监测
英语参考答案
听力部分录音稿
Ⅰ. 听选答案
第一节：听下面10段对话，每段对话后有一个问题，读两遍。请根据每段对话的内容和后面的问题，从所给的三个选项中选出最恰当的一项。
1. W: Hw ften d yu play the guitar, Tny?
M: Three times a week.
Q: Hw ften des Tny play the guitar?
2. W: I'm ging t have a birthday party n Sunday. Wuld yu like t cme?
M: Sure. Thanks fr inviting me.
Q: When is the girl ging t have her birthday party?
3. W: Hi, Peter! What d yu usually d n weekends?
M: I usually play basketball with my friends.
Q: What des Peter usually d n weekends?
4. M: Judy, I'd like t be an actr when I grw up. Hw abut yu?
W: Oh, I want t be a reprter.
Q: What des Judy want t be?
5. M: The sprts meeting is ver. Wh ran fastest?
W: Lily came first. She ran faster than Mary and Shirley.
Q: Wh ran fastest in the sprts meeting?
6. M: D yu want t watch a sprts shw with me, Grace?
W: N, it's bring. I'd like t watch a game shw.
Q: What des Grace want t watch?
7. M: Let's make sme chicken sup, Anna.
W: OK. I lve sup.
Q: What are they ging t make?
8. W: What will yu d fr yur brther's birthday, Rbert?
M: I'll invite sme f his friends and have a party fr him.
Q: What party will Rbert have?
9. M: Lucy, what d yu think f yur new math teacher?
W: He is very strict and never laughs.
Q: What is Lucy's math teacher like?
10. W: Why d yu lk s tired?
M: Oh, I just stayed up t d my hmewrk.
Q: Why des the by lk tired?
第二节：听下面两段对话，每段对话后有几道小题，请根据对话的内容，从题目所给的三个选项中选出问题的正确答案。每段对话读两遍。
听第11段对话，回答第11、12小题。
W: Peter, d yu think there will be rbts in ur hmes in the future?
M: Yes, I think every hme will have a rbt.
W: Did yu see a rbt?
M: Yes, I saw a rbt n TV, and it gave the students a lessn.
W: Well, will kids g t schl?
M: Maybe nt. Because they will study at hme n cmputers.
听第12段对话，回答第13至15小题。
W: Yu lk tired, Ben. What's up?
M: I climbed the muntain with my father yesterday.
W: Yesterday the weather was cl and cludy. It was a fine day fr climbing muntains.
M: Yes. And it tk us tw hurs t reach the tp.
W: Is the muntain very high?
M: Nt t high. We had a shrt rest during climbing. What did yu d yesterday, Amy?
W: Nthing much. I studied fr the math test all day.
M: Oh, I remember we will have a test tmrrw.
W: Are yu ready fr that?
M: Of curse. Yu knw I am gd at math.
Ⅱ. 听填信息
本题你将听到一段独白，读两遍。请根据独白内容，用所听到的单词或短语完成下列各题。（每空不超过三个单词。）
Sam's birthday is cming this Sunday. He is ging t have a birthday party at his huse this Sunday evening. Befre the party, he has many things t d. First, he needs t call his friends t invite them t the party. He hpes all his friends can cme t his party. Next, he is ging t the supermarket n Sunday mrning. He has t buy sme drinks and snacks. Then, n Sunday afternn, he has t help his mther ck fd fr the party. After the party, he has t d the dishes, clean the living rm and take ut the trash. What a busy day he is ging t have!
试题参考答案
Ⅰ. 听选答案（共15小题，计20分）
1—5 BCBCA 6—10 CACBC 11—15 CCBAC
Ⅱ. 听填信息（共5小题,计 10 分）
16. invite 17. Sunday mrning 18. ck fd 19. dishes 20. living rm
Ⅲ. 完形填空（共20小题，计20分）
21—25 ABCAB 26—30 DCBBC 31—35 CABDA 36—40 BADCB
Ⅳ. 阅读理解（共15小题，计20分）
41—43 CCA 44—46 ABC 47——50 CCBA 51—55 BEGAD
V. 完成句子（共5小题，计10分）
56. heard frm 57. refuse/ turn dwn 58. advice/suggestins 59. ver and ver again
60. swimming lessn/class
Ⅵ. 短文填空（共10小题，计10分）
61. first 62. astrnaut s 63. dangerus 64. him 65. n 66. was 67. sld 68. ding
69. thinking 70. prbably
Ⅶ. 任务型阅读（共5小题，计10分）
71.168 minutes 72. July 8, 2023 73.156400
74. Their friendship/ Ga Shi and Li Bai's friendship/The friendship
75. an educatinal film/educatinal
Ⅷ.补全对话（共5小题，计5分）
76. what d yu usually d （in yur free time）?
77. Why d yu like sprts shws and sitcms/them?
78. I like sitcms better.
79. Wh/Whm d yu （usually） d these with?
80. Wuld yu like t g with us? /Can yu g with us?
Ⅸ.书面表达（计15分）
The winter hliday is cming. Here are my plans fr it.
First, I plan t get up early and g t bed early. Because I think it is gd fr my bdy. And als I want t eat mre health y fd and d mre exercise. Then, I hpe t keep n reading. If I have mre free time, maybe I can take up sme hbbies and try t relax. Next, I want t spend mre time ding sme husewrk and care abut thers mre. If pssible, maybe I can d sme service in the cmmunity. Finally, I wuld like t watch sme educatinal mvies with my parents because I want t spend mre time with them.
If I can carry ut the plans, I will have a clrful and meaningful winter hliday.When
What t d
Befre the party
Call his friends t 16 them t the party.
G t the supermarket n 17 .
Help his mther 18 fr the party.
After the party
D the 19 .
Clean the 20 .
Take ut the trash（垃圾）.
Htel services
please circle:
5—excellent 4—very gd
3—gd 2—OK 1—pr
Check-in（登记入住）
5
④
3
2
1
Staff expertise（员工专业技能）
5
4
③
2
1
Fd
5
4
③
2
1
Timing（时间安排） f services
5
4
3
②
1
Htel envirnment
Lighting
⑤
4
3
2
1
Music
5
④
3
2
1
Cleanliness
⑤
4
3
2
1
寒假计划
1. 早睡早起， 健康饮食， 锻炼身体；
2. 坚持读书， 发展兴趣， 适当放松；
3. 勤做家务， 关爱他人， 服务社区；
4 ……（自主发挥）