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    陕西省商洛市2023-2024学年高三下学期开学英语试题

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    这是一份陕西省商洛市2023-2024学年高三下学期开学英语试题,共14页。

    注意事项:
    1.答卷前,考生务必将自己的姓名、考生号等填写在答题卡上。
    2.回答选择题时,选出每小题答案后,用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动,用橡皮擦干净后,再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时,将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。
    3.考试结束后,将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
    考试时间为 120分钟,满分150分
    第一部分听力(共两节,满分30分)
    做题时,先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后,你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
    第一节(共5 小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
    请听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
    1. What did the man have fr lunch tday?
    A. Chicken. B. Beef. C. Fish.
    2. What are the speakers talking abut?
    A. Running a bkshp. B. Buying a bk. C. Using the Internet.
    3. Where are the speakers nw?
    A. At an airprt. B. In a railway statin. C. On a flight.
    4. Wh will pst the letter prbably?
    A. Mary. B. Tm. C. Jack.
    5. What will the man d tmrrw?
    A. Shp fr clthes. B. Take a trip. C. Attend a festival.
    第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)
    请听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5 秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
    请听第6段材料,回答第6、7题。
    6. What is the main industry in the wman's hmetwn nw?
    A. Fishing. B. Sheep farming. C. Ptat grwing.
    7. What des the man think f the wman's hmetwn?
    A. It's recmmended fr travelling.
    B. It's a place with pleasant weather.
    C. It's nt a gd place t make a living.
    听第7段材料,回答第8至9题。
    8. Hw many friends des the man want t invite t the party?
    A.25. B. 14. C. 13.
    9. What d we knw abut Matt?
    A. He suggests the idea f the party.
    B. He will help with the man's party.
    C. He had a big birthday party last year.
    听第8段材料,回答第10至12题。
    10. What will turists d in Kentn tmrrw?
    A. Visit a market. B. Explre a castle. C. Tur a museum.
    11. Where will the tur start tmrrw?
    A. In Gugh Street. B. In Saxn Street. C. In Park Street.
    12. Hw much will the wman pay fr her ticket?
    A. £ 15. B. £ 17. C. £ 19.
    听第9段材料,回答第13至16题。
    13. Hw des the wman deal with her ld clthes?
    A. By thrwing them as waste.
    B. By dnating them t a charity.
    C. By putting them int the recycling bx.
    14. What d we knw abut the man?
    A. He likes t buy big furniture.
    B. He ften buys secnd-hand furniture.
    C. His s fa has been changed three times.
    15. Why did the wman buy a new TV?
    A. The previus ne was ut f date.
    B. The previus ne was damaged by the lightening.
    C. The previus ne was destryed by her children.
    16. Hw des the man sund in the end?
    A. Surprised. B. Annyed. C. Satisfied.
    听第10段材料,回答第17至20题。
    17. Wh is Valkyrie named after?
    A. A female astrnaut. B. A mvie character. C. A figure frm a mythlgy.
    18. What will astrnauts d if human-like rbts are used in space?
    A. Clean slar panels.B. Fcus n explratin.
    C. Check equipment utside the spacecraft.
    19. What is Apptrnik?
    A. A rbtics cmpany. B. A human-like rbt. C. A space center.
    20. What des the speaker mainly talk abut?
    A. NASA is develping sftware fr Valkyrie.
    B. NASA aims t put rbts in space.
    C. NASA releases a new research reprt.
    第二部分 阅读理解(共两节,满分40分)
    第一节(共15小题;每小题2分,满分30分)
    阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中,选出最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
    A
    Summer Badmintn Camp
    Our annual badmintn camps are back this June hlidays! Cme and jin us fr sme fun and actin! All camps will be held at the Chestnut Sprts Hall. There are a ttal f 4 fun-filled camps lined up fr this amazing hliday. The aim is t allw them t understand and lift their game t the next level r just fr recreatin, at the same time adding fun elements in training t build a strng interest in the sprt.
    Camps Available
    Camp Highlight
    21. Which shuld yu sign up fr if yu want t becme a natinal badmintn player?
    A. The beginner camp. B. The advanced camp.
    C. The intermediate camp. D. The recreatin camp.
    22. Wh is Adrian Gh?
    A. A summer badmintn camper. B. The badmintn camp rganizer.
    C. A badmintn wrld champin. D. A spnsr fr the summer camp.
    23. What is the purpse f the passage?
    A. T give away free badmintn bats.
    B. T prmte the special camp bttles.
    C. T invite peple t attend Mr. Gh's talk.
    D. T encurage peple t sign up fr the camps.
    B
    Catherine Krestyn furnished (布置家具) her hme mainly with hard rubbish, such as the chairs, drs and lamps, which have been cllected frm the street where she lives. And it's a way f life she's sharing with her cmmunity in the hpe f making a difference.
    Catherine leads a 6,000-strng nline grup called Brndara Hard Rubbish Rehme, where members uplad pictures f their hard rubbish piles fr eager lcals t find. She started the grup in 2022 with her childhd friend Jennie Irving, hping t build a cmmunity f thrift (节俭) where they lived. The pair have stpped mre than 7,000 kg f hard rubbish ging t landfill since they funded the grup.
    Sme items are ready as they are, like chairs and lamps, and thers take a bit f effrt t clean up, like the ld, wden drs.
    Lcal teacher Ruth Plgar discvered the grup while surfing the Internet and has since decrated her classrm with secnd-hand items, including artwrk she has rehmed frm a neighbur. "We regularly take unneeded items frm the grup and use them fr ur schl prjects," she says.
    Running the grup can be really challenging fr Catherine. But she desn't resent thse wh have t let g f their pssessins because f stressful circumstances. "If yu're dwnsizing r if yu're clearing an ld huse, quite ften yu're desperate fr access t easy ptins," she says. "Hard rubbish piles are ften that ptin."
    All Catherine wants t d is give her cmmunity a way t reduce their waste, and t send a message t thse in charge that things need t urgently change.
    "The gvernment has big targets arund sustainable develpment leading int 2030. We want t start speeding that up even sner," she says. "We're suffering frm ur wn waste really, s anything that we can all d n a practical level helps. We shuld first make lifestyle chices and be prepared t g secnd-hand."
    24. Why did Catherine set up Brndara Hard Rubbish Rehme?
    A. T create a cmmunity f thrift. B. T dnate her cllectin t charity.
    C. T cllect hard rubbish fr lcals. D. T decrate the huses fr the hmeless.
    25. What can we infer abut Ruth Plgar?
    A. She prefers secnd-hand items. B. She buys items n the Internet.
    C. She supprts Catherine's cause. D. She teaches art at a lcal schl.
    26. What des the underlined wrd "resent" in paragraph 5 prbably mean?
    A. Feel angry abut. B. Feel pleased with.
    C. Shw sympathy fr. D. Shw interest in.
    27. What des Catherine advcate in the last paragraph?
    A. Setting urselves a big gal. B. Giving thrwaway s a secnd life.
    C. Meeting the gvernment's requirements. D. Replacing ld furniture regularly.
    C
    Scientists have been experimenting with playing sunds t plants since at least the 1960s, during which time they have been expsed t everything frm Beethven t Michael Jacksn. Over the years, evidence that this srt f thing can have an effect has been grwing. One paper, published in 2018, claimed that an Asian shrub knwn as the telegraph plant grew substantially larger leaves when expsed t 56 days f Buddhist music—but nt if it was expsed t Western pp music r silence. Anther, published last year, fund that mariglds and sage plants expsed t the nise f traffic frm a busy mtrway suffered grwth difficulty.
    Plants have been evlving(进化) alngside the insects that eat them fr hundreds f millins f years. With that in mind, Heidi Appel, a btanist nw at the University f Hustn, and Reginald Ccrft, a bilgist at the University f Missuri, wndered if plants might be sensitive t the sunds made by the animals with which they mst ften interact. They recrded the vibratins made by certain species f caterpillars(毛毛虫) as they chewed n leaves. These vibratins are nt pwerful enugh t prduce sund waves in the air. But they are able t travel acrss leaves and branches, and even t neighburing plants if their leaves tuch.
    They then expsed tbacc plant—the plant bilgist's versin f the labratry muse—t the recrded vibratins while n caterpillars were actually present. Later, they put real caterpillars n the plants t see if expsure had led them t prepare fr an insect attack. The results were striking. Leaves that had been expsed had significantly higher levels f defensive chemicals, making them much harder fr the caterpillars t eat. Leaves that had nt been expsed t vibratins shwed n such respnse. Other srts f vibratin—caused by the wind, fr instance, r ther insects that d nt eat leaves—had n effect.
    "Nw speakers with the right audi files are mre ften being used t warn crps t act when insects are detected but nt yet widespread," says Dr. Ccrft. "Unlike chemical pesticides, sund waves leave n dangerus chemicals."
    28. What can we learn abut plants frm the first paragraph?
    A. They may enjy western music. B. They can't stand Buddhist music.
    C. They can react t different sunds. D. They can make different sunds.
    29. What's the basis fr Appel and Ccrft's research?
    A. Plants can make a cry fr help. B. Plants evlve alngside insects.
    C. Plants are sensitive t the sunds. D. Plants have been studied fr years.
    30. What can we infer abut plants frm Paragraph 3?
    A. They can recngnize harmful vibratins. B. They lk like labratry muse.
    C. They can threaten the caterpillars. D. They can release pisnus chemicals.
    31. What des the last paragraph mainly talk abut?
    A. Disadvantages f chemical pesticides. B. Applicatin f the experimental results.
    C. Interactin between plants and insects. D. Warning system fr widespread insects.
    D
    A physical checkup ften begins with a series f questins: What fds d yu eat? D yu smke? Getting any exercise? New research suggests anther telling indicatr culd be added t that list: What was yur cllege majr? The study finds ne's chsen field f cllege study is a statistically significant predictr f health in midlife.
    The researchers find the fur majrs assciated with the best midlife health are architecture/engineering, bilgy/life sciences, business, and—here's a surprise—cmmunicatins/jurnalism. Perhaps chasing after big stries keeps us jurnalists in shape.
    It has lng been established that peple with mre educatin tend t be healthier. But des ne's majr matter? T find ut, the researchers analyzed data frm the natinally representative American Cmmunity Survey.
    Their sample cnsisted f 3.7 millin United States-brn adults between the ages f 45 and 64—the time f life when physical functining prblems start t appear. Participants nted whether they had difficulty walking r climbing stairs, dressing r bathing. A "yes" answer in any f thse categries resulted in a grade f relatively pr health.
    The researchers fcused n the 667,362 participants wh earned a bachelr's degree, but went n further in their educatin. They nted each persn's cllege majr, which they placed int ne f 15 categries. They fund substantial differences in health acrss majrs. Tw majrs are particularly disadvantaged in midlife. The chances f pr health are 1.9 times greater amng psychlgy /scial wrk and law/public plicy majrs cmpared t business majrs. The researchers argue this is likely due t several factrs. Psychlgy majrs tend t suffer frm high unemplyment and lw earnings. Law/public plicy majrs ften enter the field f law enfrcement(执行).
    The researchers say that they have discvered assciatins, nt prf f causality(因果关系). But they make a cnvincing case that sme majrs lead peple t live healthier lifestyles than thers. Their findings might even inspire a warning cuntry sng: Mammas, dn't let yur babies grw up t be psychlgy majrs.
    32. What can be learned frm the first tw paragraphs?
    A. Smking can lead t pr health. B. Diet is mre imprtant than exercise.
    C. Physical checkups keep yu healthy. D. Cllege majr chuld be added t a checkup.
    33. Hw d researchers draw their cnclusins?
    A. By ding face-t-face interviews. B. By fllwing participants' daily rutines.
    C. By ding medical examinatins. D. By analyzing the representative data.
    34. Which f the fllwing is against midlife health accrding t the researchers?
    A. Engineering. B. Business. C. Psychlgy. D. Agriculture.
    35. What is the best title f the passage?
    A. Cllege majrs can predict midlife health.
    B. Mre majrs in cllege can imprve health.
    C. The annual physical exam is necessary t life.
    D. Peple with mre educatin tend t be healthier.
    第二节(共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分)
    根据短文内容,从短文中的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
    The philsphy that can help yu keep yur hme rganized
    Hw can we clean up ur space and keep it that way? That's a questin that Star Hansen thinks a lt abut. She's a prfessinal rganizer wh teaches classes n hme rganizing. She believes that keeping yur hme neat and tidy is a cntinual prcess. ___36___ . Here are her tidying philsphy strategies t clean up yur messes.
    Understand yur chas
    Hansen says everyne's chas tells a persnal stry. What becmes chas and where yur chas build up can say a lt abut what's ging n with yu. If yu have unwanted piles f stuff arund yur huse, ask yurself: What's making it hard t thrw them away? Fr example, a unifrm that hasn't fit fr years. ___37___ . When yu understand the reasns behind yur chas, it's a lt easier t knw what t keep and what t thrw away.
    Start small
    When it cmes t rganizing, dn't bite ff mre than yu can chew. If yu start with t big a gal, yu might get discuraged if the jb takes t lng. S dn't try t clean yur entire garage in ne afternn. ___38___ . Fr example, yu can tidy yur cupbard first and save mre cmplicated items, like yur garage, fr last. Setting realistic gals can help keep yu invested in the prcess.
    ___39___
    It's easy t be rganized the day after tidying. But what happens when yu cme hme frm a trip and are t tired t unpack yur luggage? Or when yu get the flu and are t sick t clean up? The key t staying rganized is t create practices that can be easily maintained. Make a system that wrks fr yu even when yu've gt a cld. Fr example, label strage cntainers n all fur sides s they're easier t spt. ___40___ .
    A. Make it easy t stay rganized
    B. Abandn the fancy strage bxes
    C. Instead, start with smething less challenging
    D. Maybe it reveals a lnging fr yur frmer prfessin
    E. That attitude can help yu let g f things yu dn't need
    F. Yu have t take the time t create systems that wrk fr yu
    G. Make sure yur mst used items are always the easiest t reach
    第三部分 语言运用(共两节,满分45 分)
    第一节(共20小题;每小题1.5分,满分30分)
    阅读下面短文,从短文后各题所给的A、B、C 和D 四个选项中,选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
    In Jan. 2020, Teresa Hernandez was 35 weeks pregnant. One mrning, she had a strange ___41___ —the baby wasn't mving as it usually did. She decided t g t the hspital t ___42___ everything was OK.
    When she gt there, she learned that the baby's heart rate was ___43___ . The dctrs tld her that her baby needed t be delivered ___44___ by an peratin. Hearing that, Hernandez was in cmplete ___45___ . After all, the baby was t little. But the dctrs said if the baby was ___46___ , they wuldn't be able t help if smething went wrng.
    Hernandez was ___47___ t the perating rm. On the way, she suffered frm great ___48___ . She started t cry and have truble breathing, and she knew she was having a ___49___ attack. That's when a nurse in the perating rm ___50___ t help.
    "This nurse, she tk my hand and started pressing with ___51___ . And then she ___52___ me while they were ding the peratin. And then she ___53___ ne hand n my cheek. And she started humming," Hernandez ___54___ ."I felt like my mm was there, hlding me."
    ___55___ her husband, Hernandez had n family with her. But the nurse's act f warmth brught her ___56___ . It felt like her mm ___57___ her in the hspital.
    "When yur mm is there, yu feel ___58___ . Yu feel like yu can d it. Yu feel like everything is ging t be ___59___ . And that's what I felt with her," Hernandez said. "I'm really, really ___60___fr what she did that day fr me."
    41. A. dream B. idea. C. feeling D. decisin
    42. A. prmise B. ensure C. agree D. argue
    43. A. declining B. happening C. appearing D. starting
    44. A. immediately B. gradually C. extremely D. frmally
    45. A. cmfrt B. cntrl C. excitement D. shck
    46. A. nearby B. inside C. utside D. arund
    47. A. invited B. intrduced C. rushed D. recmmerded
    48. A. anxiety B. hesitatin C. difficulty D. burden
    49. A. heart B. surprise C. pleasure D. panic
    50. A. stepped dwn B. turned ut C. stepped in D. drpped by
    51. A. surprise B. sympathy C. dignity D. cnfusin
    52. A. admired B. called C. shwed D. held
    53. A. placed B. grasped C. skipped D. cvered
    54. A. cncluded B. reprted C. reminded D. recalled
    55. A. Due t B. Instead f C. Apart frm D. As fr
    56. A. pride B. relief C. duty D. cncern
    57. A. expected B. remembered C. accmpanied D. arranged
    58. A. prtected B. affected C. educated D. respected
    59. A. exact B. right C. plain D. crazy
    60. A. desperate B. suitable C. ready D. grateful
    第二节(共10个小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)
    阅读下面短文,在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
    Suth Kreans have enjyed their first clse-up lk f new baby giant pandas at a name-revealing ceremny which is als ___61___ early cerebratin f the 100 days since the twins' birth.
    What t name the twin sisters was widely discussed amng netizens after they were brn n July 7 in theme park Everland. The names were ___62___ (ultimate) decided n thrugh tw public vting ___63___(prcedure). One is named Rui Ba, which means wise treasure, and the ther is Hui Ba, shining treasure. Half a millin panda lvers helped chse their names, with a handful f lucky fans ___64___(invite) t the ceremny. "They are even ___65___(cute) in real life than they appear nscreen," said a cllege student in attendance.
    The baby pandas, ___66___ have just begun teething and crawling, are very healthy. Everland has shared vides dcumenting the pandas' grwth nline. The twins' birth has gained 640,000 views since it ___67___(uplad). "This feels like a great pprtunity t call fr better ___68___ (preserve) f pandas," said Dnghee Chung, the head f the park's z. Chung nted that between 40% and 50%f panda births result ___69___ twins.
    Everland said it wuld mnitr the twins' health ___70___ (determine) when the twins are ready t be pen t the public.
    第四部分 写作(共两节,满分35 分)
    第一节 短文改错(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)
    假定英语课上老师要求同桌之间交换修改作文,请你修改你同桌写的以下作文。文中共有10处语言错误,每句中最多有两处。每处错误仅涉及一个单词的增加、删除或修改。
    增加:在缺词处加一个漏字符号(∧),并在其下面写出该加的词。
    删除:把多余的词用斜线(\)划掉。
    修改:在错的词下划一横线,并在该词下面写出修改后的词。
    注意:1. 每处错误及其修改均仅限一词;
    2.只允许修改10处,多者(从第11 处起)不计分。
    I flew back t New Yrk frm a spring break. My flight landed lately in the evening. I decided t taking an airprt bus t the dwntwn area s that I culd find a faster and cheap taxi t get hme. It turned ut that a bus was full f passengers but I was chatting with a few f them. I tld that it was unsafe t be waiting fr in the street t catch a taxi at midnight. One f the wman in the bus said that her car was parked near the statin. S she ffered me a ride t my hme, drp me safely and did nt accept a penny in return. I was s thankful fr his kindness.
    第二节 书面表达(满分25分)
    假定你是李华,英国学生Jack上学期曾以交换生的身份在你班学习。请你给 Jack写封邮件回忆你们在一起的美好时光,要点如下:
    1.回忆难忘的时刻;
    2.表达美好的祝愿。
    注意:
    1.词数 100 左右;
    2.可适当增加细节,以使行文连贯。
    Dear Jack,
    _____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
    Yurs,
    Li Hua
    2024 届高三开年摸底联考
    英语参考答案及评分意见
    听力部分
    1-5 ABACC 6-10 CBACA 11-15 ABCBB 16-20 ACBAB
    阅读理解
    A 篇 本文为应用文,主要内容为各类暑期羽毛球夏令营活动的招生。
    21-23 BCD
    21. B 细节理解题。根据文章中 Fr thse wh want t take up badmintn as a cmpetitive sprt 可知,想成为国家羽毛球运动员,应该报名 Advanced。
    22. C 细节理解题。根据文章 Badmintn wrld champin, Adrian Gh, will address the participants at the start f each camp.可知。
    23. D 目的意图题。根据文章中夏令营的价格、赠送礼品及联系电话等可知,本文目的是鼓励人们报名参加夏令营。
    B篇 本文为记叙文,主要内容为 Catherine 和好友 Jennie 创建勤俭节约社区的故事。
    24-27 ACAB
    24. A 细节理解题。根据文章第二段…hping t build a cmmunity f thrift where they lived.可知。
    25. C 推理判断题。根据文章第四段中…has since decrated her classrm with secnd-hand items, including artwrk she has rehmed frm a 可知,她支持Catherine 的事业。
    26. A 词义猜测题。根据第五段中“If yu're dwnsizing r if yu're clearing an ld huse, quite ften yu're desperate fr access t easy ptins,”she says.“Hard rubbish piles are ften that ptin.”可知,对那些扔掉东西的人,她并不生气。
    27. B 细节理解题。根据文章最后一段 We shuld first make lifestyle chices and be prepared t g secnd-hand.可知,她提倡旧物再利用。
    C篇 本文为说明文,主要内容为科学家发现植物可以对不同的声音作出反应。
    28-31 CBAB
    28. C 细节理解题。根据文章第一段…an Asian shrub knwn as the telegraph plant grew substantially larger leaves …suffered grwth difficulty 可知,植物会对不同的声音作出回应。
    29. B 细节理解题。根据文章第二段 Plants have been evlving(进化) alngside the insects that eat them fr hundreds f millins f years. With that in mind...可知,他们研究的基础是 Plants have been evlving alngside the insects。
    30. A 推理判断题。根据文章第三段…Other srts f vibratin—caused by the wind, fr instance, r ther insects that d nt eat leaves—had n effect.可知,植物可以识别有害的震动。
    31. B 段落大意题。本段主要讲述带有正确音频文件的扬声器更经常被用来警告作物,当发现昆虫但其尚未广泛传播时,可预先提醒植物采取行动。
    D篇 本文为说明文,主要内容为新研究发现大学专业可以对中年时期的健康产生影响。
    32-35 DDCA
    32. D 细节理解题。根据第一段中 New research suggests anther telling indicatr culd be added t that list: What was yur cllege majr? The study finds ne's chsen field f cllege study is a statistically significant predictr f health in midlife.可知,大学所学专业也可以被添加到体检中。
    33. D 细节理解题。根据文章第三段 T find ut, the researchers analyzed data frm the natinally representative American Cmmunity Survey.可知。
    34. C 细节理解题。根据文章第五段 The chances f pr health are 1.9 times greater amng psychlgy /scial wrk and law/public plicy majrs cmpared t business majrs.可知。
    35. A 主旨大意题。文章第一段提出了主题:大学专业可以预示中年健康,第二至第五段运用数据分析,进一步验证主题。
    七选五
    36-40 FDCAG
    36. F 根据下句 Here are her tidying philsphy strategies t keep yur messes at bay.可知,你需要花费时间构建有利于你的方法。
    37. D 根据上文中 What's making it hard t thrw them away? 可知,该句为上文的回答。
    38. C 根据上文 If yu start with t big a gal, yu might get discuraged if the jb takes t lng.及下文 yu can tidy yur cupbard first and save mre cmplicated items, like yur garage, fr last.可知,可以从不太难的事情开始。
    39. A 根据最后一段The key t staying rganized is t create practices that can be easily maintained.可知。
    40. G 根据该段提出的问题(旅游回来太累了怎么办?感冒了不能整理怎么办?)可知,该句也是解决问题的一部分,即确保把最常用的东西放在最容易够着的地方。
    完形填空
    41-45 CBAAD 46-50 BCADC 51-55 BDADC 56-60 BCABD
    41. C 根据下文the baby wasn't mving as it usually did.可知,她有种奇怪的感觉(feeling)。
    42. B 根据上文 the baby wasn't mving as it usually did.可知,她决定去医院确保(ensure)一切正常。
    43. A 根据上下文孩子不像往常那样动弹及需要立即手术可知,宝宝的心率正在下降(declining)。
    44. A 孩子需要立马(immediately)进行手术分娩。
    45. D 宝宝在 35周,而且心率下降,需要立马手术分娩,所以她听了后大为震惊(in cmplete shck)。
    46. B 医生说要是宝宝在肚子里面(inside)的话,要是发生意外他们是无法处理的。
    47. C 因为需要立马手术,所以 Hernandez被急忙送(rushed)到了手术室。
    48. A 根据下文她哭泣、呼吸困难可知,她感觉非常的焦虑(anxiety)。
    49. D 根据上文的各种表现,她知道自己陷入了恐慌(panic attack)。
    50. C 就在那时,手术室里的一名护士进入(stepped in)帮忙。
    51. B 根据上文护士帮忙可知,护士同情地紧紧握住她的手。
    52. D 根据下文I felt like my mm was there, hlding me 可知,医生做手术的时候护士抱着(held)她。
    53. A 然后护士把手放在(placed)她的脸上,开始哼曲子。
    54. D 引号里面的都是 Hernandez回忆(recalled)的内容,故选 D。
    55. C 根据Hernandez had n family with her.可知,除了(Apart frm)她的丈夫外。
    56. B 护士的温暖行为让她感觉到宽慰(relief)。
    57. C 护士的陪伴让她感觉到好像她的妈妈陪伴(accmpanied)在她身边。
    58. A 当妈妈在场的时候,你会感觉到受到保护(prtected)。
    59. B 你会感觉一切都会好的(right)。
    60. D 我真的很感谢(grateful)她那天为我做的一切。
    语法填空 这是一篇新闻报道,介绍在韩国动物园出生的双胞胎熊猫宝宝庆祝百日的故事。
    61. an 62. ultimately 63. prcedures 64. invited 65. cuter 66. which/wh 67. was upladed 68. preservatin 69. in 70. t determine
    61.考查冠词。此处泛指“一次庆祝”。
    62.考查副词。经过两轮公开投票,两只熊猫的名字最终确定了。
    63.考查名词。根据tw 可知,用复数。
    64.考查非谓语动词。此处为 with sb/sth dne 的复合结构,这里的 fans和 invite之间为被动关系,故用invited。
    65.考查形容词比较级。根据该句中的 than可知,这里使用cuter 表示更可爱。
    66.考查定语从句。which/wh 在此引导非限制定语从句,指代 The baby pandas。
    67.考查谓语动词。主句用现在完成时态,从句用一般过去时。
    68.考查构词法。此处应用名词作宾语。
    69.考查介词。固定短语 result in 产生,结果是。
    70.考查非谓语动词。此处为动词不定式作目的状语。
    短文改错
    71. lately 改为 late。考查副词, late in the evening 晚上较晚的时候, lately意思为“最近”。
    72. taking 改为 take。考查动词不定式, decide t d sth.决定做某事。
    73. cheap改为 cheaper。考查形容词比较级, and 连接两个并列的形容词,故用cheaper。
    74. that 后的 a 改为the。考查冠词用法,此处表特指,故用定冠词 the。
    75. but 改为 and。考查连词用法,此处为顺承关系而不是表转折,故用 and。
    76. 在 tld前面加 was。考查被动语态,这里表示有人告诉我,故用被动语态。
    77.去掉fr。考查短语动词, wait fr sb/sth.,因为 fr 后面没有宾语,故去掉。
    78. wman改为 wmen。考查名词复数, ne f…后面的名词用复数,故改为 wmen。
    79. drp 改为drpped。考查动词, drpped 和 ffered, did 为并列谓语动词,故用 drpped。
    80. his 改为 her。考查代词,根据上文指的是一位妇女,故此处用her。
    书面表达
    Dear Jack,
    I was lking at ur schl album just a few days earlier and I recalled hw great ur schl days were. Hw much fun we used t have!
    D yu remember the New Year's Day celebratin we had last year? Hw much we enjyed urselves that day! We were all very excited because that was ur last New Year's Day celebratin in schl. We all exchanged gifts and cards with each ther in class, sharing ur lving thughts with each ther and saying best wishes t everyne. I still keep thse gifts and cards with me. I really hpe that we can nce again meet smetime and wish yu success in yur studying.
    Yurs,
    Li Hua
    听力材料
    (Text 1)
    W: What d yu usually have fr lunch at yur canteen?
    M: It's different every day. I usually have beef. Tday, we can chse between chicken and fish. I preferred chicken. (Text 2)
    M: This lks like a gd bkshp. We culd get that reference bk yu need fr learning French.
    W: I'm sure it'll be cheaper n the Internet, Dad.
    (Text 3)
    M: What did the annunce r say just nw?
    W: She said, "Passengers n Flight CA101 t Hngkng please make their way t the departure gate."
    M: Really? I'm ging t take this flight.
    (Text 4)
    M:I need smene t pst this letter. Are yu free, Mary?
    W: Srry, Tm, I'm busy nw. Why dn't yu ask Jack? He is free and he is always ready t help thers.
    M: OK. Thank yu all the same.
    (Text 5)
    W: What are yu ging t d tmrrw? Let's g shpping. I need sme new clthes fr the trip.
    M: Srry, I can't. I'm ging t the music festival in the park. The Mments will be playing there.
    (Text 6)
    M: Hell, I am a reprter frm the News Daily. Can I ask yu a few questins abut yur hmetwn?
    W: Yes, please.
    M: Is farming the main industry here?
    W: Well, actually, n. There used t be a lt f sheep farming and fishing but recently a lt f peple have started grwing ptates.
    M: I see. Ah, what's the weather like?
    W: In summer, we get sme fairly nice and sunny days, with a temperature f abut 20 degrees centigrade. In winter, the average temperature is abut 8 degrees centigrade, and it gets a little wet.
    M: Sunds like a gd place.
    (Text 7)
    M: Mum, my thirteenth birthday is cming up, and I want t have a big party this year. Can I invite all my friends?
    W: Sure, Tm. Hw many friends are yu thinking f inviting?
    M: Twenty-five!
    W: That's quite a lt. Last year there were nly furteen. Why d yu want t invite s many peple?
    M: Mum, it's a special year! I'm turning thirteen, and it's a big deal. Thirteenth birthday parties are ppular. My friend Matt had a big ne last year, and all his friends and neighbrs came.
    W: I understand, but ur huse is t small fr s many peple. We'll have t find a different place t have the party. D yu have any ideas?
    M: Blue Frg is the place fr a family r friends t get-tgether. It is near ur schl.
    W: Alright. Up t yu.
    (Text 8)
    W: Hell. I'd like t find ut sme infrmatin abut the Twn and Castle tur yu rganize tmrrw. Where des the tur actually g?
    M: Tmrrw we're visiting an ld twn, Kentn, and als Leadenleigh Castle.
    W: I read abut the castle, but I dn't knw abut Kentn. What culd we d in Kentn?
    M: Tmrrw is market day there, s we'll stp and visit that. It's famus fr its market.
    W: And where des the tur bus g frm?
    M: It nrmally ges frm Saxn Street, but tmrrw we're meeting in Gugh Street. It's behind the car park near the museum.
    W: It sunds interesting. Hw much is ne ticket?
    M: A ticket csts £ 19. N, srry, I'm lking at the wrng price list. Here we are. Yes, the ticket price is £ 17 fr adults and £ 15 fr students. Yu're nt studying at the mment, are yu?
    W: I left university a lng time ag! And can I buy a ticket frm yu?
    M: Definitely. Anytime yu want.
    (Text 9)
    M: Hi, Rachel. I'm cnducting a survey n the update f husehld items. Culd yu help me with this frm? I'll take dwn yur answers briefly.
    W: Certainly, g ahead.
    M: D yu regularly srt ut yur ld clthes?
    W: Yes, fairly regularly.
    M: D yu dnate them r just thrw them?
    W: I put them in the recycling bin, and hpe they're ging t be made int smething else.
    M: It's gd t d that. What abut furniture? Hw ften d yu try t get new furniture?
    W: Almst never. It seems like a waste t thrw ut such large things. We've still gt the same sfa, kitchen table and chairs.
    M: Right. I've never been a big furniture guy. I almst nly buy secnd-hand furniture nw. What abut electrnic prducts, like getting a new TV, a new fridge, stuff like that? Hw ften d yu buy?
    W: We just wait until they break dwn. They are durable gds, but ur last TV was brken this summer. And then I bught a new ne.
    M: Really?
    W: Yes, the fact is that the lightening hit ur huse, and it was damaged.
    M: Ww. I did nt knw that culd happen.
    (Text 10)
    The American space agency NASA's human-like rbt Valkyrie lks pwerful. It stands 188 centimeters tall and weighs 136 kilgrams. Valkyrie is named after a supernatural female in a mythlgy. The r bt is being tested at the Jhnsn Space Center in Hustn. The rbt is designed t perate in severe envirnment, like areas hit by natural disasters, NASA said. But rbts like Valkyrie culd als wrk in space ne day. Engineers believe that human-like rbts will be able t wrk similarly t humans and use the same tls and equipment. NASA's Rbtics team leader Shaun Azimi said human-like rbts in space culd d dangerus jbs. Such jbs include cleaning slar panels r dealing with equipment utside the spacecraft. As a result, human astrnauts culd pay mre attentin t explratin and discvery. "We're nt trying t replace human crews, we're really just trying t take the dull, dirty and dangerus wrk ff their plates t allw them t fcus n thse higher-level activities," Azimi said. NASA is partnering with rbtics cmpanies like Apptrnik. The gal is t learn hw human-like rbts develped. Nw, Apptrnik is develping Apll, a human-like rbt whse jbs n Earth will include wrking in warehuses and manufacturing factries.Beginner: Fr thse wh want t learn basic
    badmintn skills.
    Date: 12 t 14 June 2024
    Time: 9 a. m. t 12 p. m.
    Fees: $80
    Ages: 5-8 years ld nly
    Intermediate: Fr thse wh knw the basics f playing badmintn and want t imprve their skills further.
    Date: 15 t 17 June 2024
    Time: 9 a. m. t 12 p. m.
    Fees: $100
    Ages: 7-12 years ld nly
    Advanced: Fr thse wh want t take up badmintn as a cmpetitive sprt.
    Date: 19 t 21 June 2024
    Time: 9 a. m. t 1 p. m.
    Fees: $150
    Ages: 11-12 years ld nly
    Recreatin: Fr thse wh want t make new friends while staying active.
    Date: 12 t 14 June 2024
    Time: 3 p. m. t 7 p. m.
    Fees: $60
    Ages: 13-16 years ld nly
    Guest Speaker
    Badmintn wrld champin, Adrian Gh, will address the participants at the start f each camp. He will share invaluable tips and his experience f playing badmintn cmpetitively.
    Special Camp Present
    All participants will receive ur summer badmintn camp sweater and water bttle.
    Early Bird Special
    First 20 participants t register will be given a pair f Yinex badmintn bats.
    Fr mre infrmatin, call Mr. Tan at 67892111 r visit ur website at www.sbssummer camps.cm
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