山东省济南市历下区2024年中考一模英语试题

这是一份山东省济南市历下区2024年中考一模英语试题，共13页。试卷主要包含了 3)， 5分)， A等内容，欢迎下载使用。
注意事项：
本试题共9页, 满分为150分, 考试时间为120分钟。
答题前, 请考生务必将自己的班级、姓名、座位号和考号填写在答题卡规定位置, 并同时 将其填写在试题规定的位置。
答选择题时, 必须使用2B铅笔填涂答题卡上相应题目的答案标号, 修改时, 要用橡皮擦 干净, 再选涂其他答案标号；答非选择题时, 用0. 5mm黑色签字笔在答题卡上题号所提示的答 题区域作答。直接在试题上作答无效。
考试结束后, 将本试题和答题卡一并交回。
选择题部分 共100分
I. 听力测试(30分)
A)听录音, 从每组句子中选出一个你所听到的句子。每个句子听一遍。 (7. 5分)
1. A. Have a nice day. B. Let's g t the park. C. Catch yu n Sunday!
2. A. I never get up late. B. She ften wears glasses. C. He usually takes a walk.
3. A. Is this yur eraser? B. D yu have a sister? C. Can yur dream cme true?
4. A. Cindy isn't shrt. B. Bb didn't g fishing C. Amy can't play the drums.
5. A. Where is yur new bike? B. Wh likes t drink tea? C. Hw is everything ging?
B)在录音中, 你将听到五段对话, 每段对话后有一个小题, 从每小题A、B、C 中选出能回答 所给问题的正确答案。每段对话听两遍。 (7. 5分)
6. What's Bill's favrite fd?
A. Hamburgers. B. Chicken. C, Fruit salad.
7. Hw lng can Nancy watch TV after schl?
A. Half an hur. B. An hur. C. Tw hurs.
8. Hw did Eric g t schl this mrning?
A. By bus. B. By subway. C. On ft.
9. What des Lily want t be when she grws up?
A. A singer. B. A dctr. C. A teacher.
10. Wh are the tw speakers?
A. Dctr and patient. B. Waiter and custmer. C. Teacher and student.
C)在录音中, 你将听到一段对话, 对话后有五个小题, 从每小题A、B、C 中选出能回答所给 问题的正确答案。听对话前, 你将有40秒钟的读题时间；听完后, 你将有40秒钟的答题时间。 对话听两遍。 (7. 5分)
11. What did Jack d yesterday evening?
A. Did his hmewrk. B. Watched TV. C. Listened t music.
12. Which animals are NOT mentined in the cnversatin?
A. Hrses. B. Giraffes. C. Birds.
13. Hw lng has Jack been in the club?
A. One year. B. Tw years. C. Three years.
14. What des Jack invite Linda t d?
A. T jin the club. B. T plant trees. C. T prepare tls.
15. What will the weather be like n Wednesday?
A. Sunny. B. Cludy. C. Windy.
D) 在录音中, 你将听到一篇短文, 短文后有五个小题, 从每小题A、B、C 中选出能回答所给 问题的正确答案。听短文前, 你将有40秒钟的读题时间；听完后, 你将有40秒钟的答题时间。短文听两遍。(7. 5分)
16. What's Michael afraid f?
A. Being alne. B. Making mistakes. C. Ding hmewrk.
17. Which subject des Michael's new teacher teach?
A. English. B. Physics. C. Math.
18. Which prblem did Michael miss?
A. The secnd. B. The third. C. The furth.
19. Where did the teacher put the bx f pencils?
A. In Michael's hands. B. In Michael's schlbag. C. On Michael's desk.
20. Hw did Michael feel after he listened t Miss White's wrds?
A. Mre nervus. B. Mre excited. C. Less stressed.
Ⅱ. 阅读理解 阅读下列短文, 从每题 A 、B 、C 、D四个选项中, 选出一个能回答所提问题或 完成所给句子的最佳答案。(40分)
A
A mther went hme feeling very tired. Her 8-year-ld daughter ran up t her. She was waiting fr her mther and wanted t tell her smething abut her yunger brther.
“While I was painting a picture and Dad was n the phne, Tyler tk his crayns and wrte n the wall! I tld him yu wuld be angry with him fr ding it again, but I culdn't stp him. "
She asked, “He did it again? Where is yur little brther nw?”
“He is in his rm. ”
She walked t her yunger sn's rm. She called his full name as she came in. Then, she fund Tyler trying t hide under the bed. He knew that the wrst time was cming. Fr the next 10 minutes, the rm was full f the sund f her shuting abut the expensive wallpaper.
Then she went t the living rm t see what was n the wall. As she saw the wall, her eyes were full f tears at nce. It said "I lve yu Mm" with a heart n the wrd lve.
21. Hw ld was the daughter?
A. 8. B. 9. C. 10. D. 11.
22. What was the girl ding when Dad was n the phne?
A. Playing with tys. B. Painting pictures.
C. Cleaning the rm. D. Drinking milk.
23. Where did Tyler want t hide when Mm came in his rm?
A. Behind the bkcase. B. Under the quilt.
C. Under the bed. D. Behind the dr.
24. Hw did the mm feel after seeing what was n the wall?
A. She felt even angrier. B. She felt mved and srry.
C. She wanted t shut at her daughter. D. She felt srry abut the wallpaper.
25. What can we learn frm the stry?
A. It's imprtant t think befre yu act.
B. It's never t late t shw lve t ur families.
C. Lve frm yur mther ften hides in small things.
D. We'd better take time t learn frm thers' prblems.
B
26. When can peple g t the flwer sale?
A. At 8 a. m. n Mnday. B. At3 p. m. n Friday
C. At 8 a. m. n Sunday. D. At 5 p. m. n Saturday
27. Where can yu buy flwer pictures?
A. On the playgrund. B. In a classrm. C. In a garden. D. At a park.
28. What can yu buy in the sale?
A. Garden tls. B. Plant fd. C. Teapts. D. Vegetables.
29. What's the phne number f Frank?
A. 555-0216 B. 555-0924. C. 555-0593. D. 555-0765.
30. What is the purpse f the flwer sale?
A. Fr a friend's birthday B. Fr Mther's Day
C. Fr the beautiful garden. D. Fr sick kids
C
Wearable technlgy has changed hw we play, cmmunicate, and track( 跟 踪 )ur health. Althugh it has many useful purpses, the wearable technlgy f tmrrw prmises t be even mre surprising.
Eyeglasses, an inventin f the 13h century, are cnsidered the wrld's earliest wearable technlgy. Mdern wearable technlgy started t appear arund 2008 with the intrductin f fitness trackers. This frm f wearable technlgy tracks things like yur heart rate and cunts yur steps. Smartwatches came ut several years later. Besides ding the same things as fitness trackers, they als shw yu text messages and allw yu t make calls. Nwadays, yu can even buy smart clthing. Sme f them, fr example, vibrate(振动)whenever yur exercise frm is incrrect.
Wearable technlgy has ther uses, t. It allws peple t play vide games n devices like VR headsets. And peple in the medical industry have develped implantable devices. These devices are placed inside f yur bdy. One example is a pill that sends health infrmatin frm inside yur stmach t a smartphne.
Isn't all this wearable technlgy tday interesting? If yu think s, yu may find the future f wearable technlgy even mre exciting, such as self-pwered shes. Scientists are develping smart shes. They will use yur bdy as a pwer surce. They cme with batteries that can stre the energy frm yur walking. Walking in these shes wuld be like having a pwer bank n yur feet that charges with every step yu take.
Old wearable technlgy like glasses has helped cuntless peple see better. Tday, things like fitness trackers are changing hw we understand ur bdies. This makes yu wnder: in what ways will future wearable technlgy imprve ur lives?
31. What is the earliest wearable technlgy in the wrld?
A. Smart clthing. B. Eyeglasses. C. Smartwatches. D. VR headsets.
32. What can be the use f fitness trackers?
A. T make phne calls. B. T play vide games.
C. T see things clearly. D. T track the heart rate.
33. What d we knw abut self-pwered shes in paragraph 4?
A. The price f them. B. Hw they wrk.
C. The inventr f them. D. What they lk like.
34. What des the underlined wrd “This” in the last paragraph refer t ?
A. The huge prgress that wearable technlgy has made.
B. The different uses that ld wearable technlgy has.
C. Hw fitness trackers are used in the medical industry.
D. Hw interesting the self-pwered electrnics are.
35. Where is the text prbably taken frm?
A. A stry bk. B. A science magazine.
C. A business ad D. A mdern pem.
D
A few years ag, I did research n mss (苔藓)t make a living. Once I accidentally mentined my jb t my barber, he laughed at me. Then every time I gt my haircut, he culdn't get past it. My example certainly isn't a ne-ff situatin. Researchers acrss all fields f science have had similar experiences. But I feel plant scientists are frced t g thrugh such situatins especially regularly.
Many peple ask me why I am nt ding mre "useful" studies—n things like cancer(癌症)r dementia. My answer t their questins is simple. Plant science can help feed the wrld. Millins f peple wrldwide die f hunger every year. It's nt that we aren't prducing enugh fd; it's just that we are wasting a lt f it. Plant science can help t reduce this waste. One example is apples that brwn slwer. They are less likely t be thrwn away. Plants can als help us prtect ur envirnment. They are imprtant in ur fight against climate change. Mrever, discveries in plant science have als paved the way fr studies in many ther areas f science. In shrt, plant science isn't useless at all.
At an event at a lcal secndary schl, I was surprised t learn that nne f the teenagers aged frm 14 t 15 culd recgnize the rice plant. This perhaps shws the level f interest in plants amng tday's yung peple. It's very wrrying. If students aren't interested in plants, they are unlikely t study them in the future. They will never knw hw imprtant plant science is.
Schls culd and shuld d mre t change their ideas. The Rcket Science campaign(活动) was a great example. It saw six hundred thusand children becme space bilgists. The pupils swed and grew seeds that later spent six mnths n the Internatinal Space Statin. Such events are able t drum up students' interest in plant science. Unfrtunately, there are t few f them.
Plant science is much mre useful than many peple think. I hpe that mre peple, especially yung students, will take a secnd lk at it.
36. What d we knw accrding t paragraph 1?
A. The barber always laughed at her terrible haircut.
B. Studying mss was the nly way she made a living.
C. Plant scientists are usually lked dwn by thers.
D. Nne f researchers has similar experiences like her.
37. Hw can plant science be useful?
A. By prducing mre kinds f fd. B. By stpping climate change
C. By treating diseases like cancer. D. By cutting dwn fd waste
38. What des the underlined wrd “recgnize” mean in paragraph 3 ?
A. Tell. B. Ck. C. Grw. D. Water.
39. Accrding t paragraph 4, hw can we raise students' interest in plant science?
A. By giving them great examples.
B. By hlding mre scientific activities.
C. By teaching them hw t grw seeds.
D. By guiding them frm a yung age.
40. Which f the fllwing des the writer prbably advise?
A. Scientists shuld get mre hnr thrugh hard wrk.
B. Scientists are expected t d mre research n medicine.
C. Plant science shuld be mre useful than ther fields f science.
D. Teenagers culd regard plant science as their future dream jb.
Ⅲ. 阅读理解七选五 根据短文内容, 从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。(10分)
Have yu ever cme hme frm a vacatin feeling mre tired than yu were befre yu left? 41____________ Hwever, as they rush frm ne place t anther, they aren't really able t take a gd rest.
Nw, imagine living fr a week in a little French apartment, buying fresh vegetables frm the lcal market every mrning, and taking day trips t neighbring villages at yur wn pace. Des this sund great t yu? That's the magic f slw travel. This is n “fur-cities-in-seven-days" tur f Eurpe. 42 ____________
Slw travel can mean taking a bike tur frm ne village t the next. 43___________ It can als mean cvering lng distances by train instead f by air s that yu can enjy the scenery(风景) alng the way. N matter hw yu d it, the key is t slw dwn. Yu are t make the mst f each mment f yur vacatin.
Slw travel has a few advantages. It allws yu t frm a strnger cnnectin t yur destinatin. Yu will stay in ne place lng enugh t make friends with yur neighbrs and even pick yur favrite cffeehuse. Yu will really take a break frm yur stressful life.
44____________ Airplanes cause lts f pllutin. Trains, bikes and yur wn feet are better fr the envirnment. Slw travel als saves yu mney. Staying in ne place fr a week reduces yur transprtatin csts. Besides, yu may ck yur wn fd instead f eating ut fr every meal.
Sunds great? 45______________
IV. 补全对话 阅读对话, 从每题A、B、C、D 四个选项中, 选出一个最佳答案完成对话。(5分)
A:Hi, Tm. 46 ____________
B:Yes. What's up?
A:There is a traditinal art shw n Sunday. Sme f my paper cutting wrks will be shwn there. B:Ww, yu are s great! 47 _____________
A:They are abut flwers, birds and fishes. They stand fr happiness and gd luck in China. B:Hw fantastic! Where did yu learn paper cutting?
A: 48 ___________________
B:Actually, I am als interested in Chinese culture and I want t learn it. 49 ____________
A:Ofcurse, yu can. S what abut watching the shw with me first?
B: 50_______________ When and where shall we meet?
A:Let's meet at the schl gate at 9:00 in the mrning.
B:OK. See yu then.
A:See yu
46. A. Hw is yur day? B. What's the matter?
C. D yu have a friend? D. Are yu free this Sunday?
47. A. When is the art shw? B. Wh likes t watch the shw?
C. What are they abut? D. Where can yu watch them?
48. A. I learned it in ur schl art club. B. I learned it three years ag.
C. He knew nthing abut the shw. D. My mther tld me abut it.
49. A. Why d yu like art? B. Can I jin yur club?
C. Can he play cmputer games? D. What club d yu want t jin?
50. A. Thank yu s much. B. Have a gd time.
C. Srry, I can't. D. Sunds cl
V. 完形填空 阅读短文, 从每题 A 、B 、C 、D四个选项中, 选出一个能填入文章中相应空白 处的最佳答案。 (15分)
I used t be the shyest persn in the wrld. 51 I was asked t speak in class, I was t nervus t 52 much less speak. Even amng the few friends I had, my 53 made them laugh at me.
Then in the seventh grade, my sister advised me t 54 vice lessns. After thinking twice, I did. I began a series f exercising. After exercising a lt, I 55 had cnfidence in my vice.
A few mnths later, I was asked t sing fr sme ld peple. I thught I wuld d better. I pened my muth but suddenly I culdn't remember the 56 f the sng! My face turned ht. The 57 pianist whispered a prmpt(提示), and I remembered just enugh t keep singing.
I came t realize: I've embarrassed myself enugh in frnt f this 58 . There's really nthing else t lse. S in my secnd sng, I just 59 and felt the energy f the sng lift me.
And I did much better.
After that, I started singing t 60 as ludly as I culd in my wn rm. That's 61 I wuld never have dne befre.
On a recent schl trip, I was asked t sing again. It was 62 hw much peple liked my singing. One classmate 63 said that I shuld be in the schl's talent shw.
I am nt a shy persn anymre 64 has made me mre utging. Tday, I'm almst a ludmuth. I can cmmunicate with different peple 65 being afraid. I can als stand in frnt f the whle class and give a big speech. I am prud f myself.
51. A. When B. Thugh C. Because D. Unless
52. A. sit B. rest C. smile D. breathe
55. A. ludly B. hardly C. finally D. quickly
56. A. lyrics B. name C. persn D. mvie
57. A. upset B. mad C. kind D. serius
58. A. class B. crwd C. family D. team
59. A. relaxed B. wrried C. failed D. cried
60. A. yurself B. myself C. himself D. herself
61. A. everything B. anything C. nthing D. smething
62. A. bring B. interesting C. amazing D. embarrassing
63. A. ever B. just C. still D. even
64. A. Teaching B. Dancing C. Singing D. Running
65. A. withut B. behind C. beside D. arund
非选择题部分 共50分
VI. 阅读填空(共10小题；每小题1. 5分, 满分15分)
阅读下面短文, 在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
It's hard t spend enugh time n bth lessns and after-class activities. But I wanted t make it. I knew this wuld be difficult, but I didn't realize it until my classes in the high schl (66) ________ (begin).
I gt n well with ther girls. After schl, I ften had ice cream with (67) ________ (they) instead f ding hmewrk. I always finished it the next day between(68) _______(class). As a result, I gt wrse grades. I realized that I needed (69) ________ (find)sme balance.
S I made a timetable t divide my time between studying and relaxing. It was (70) ______ gd idea but I was nly able t fllw it fr a few days because it made me under t much pressure,
Later, I tk anther plan. Each week I (71)_________ (careful)listed everything I had t d. Then I made anther list f things that I culd (72) ____________ (d) if I had time.
It wrked really well. Ever since then, I (73) _________ (nt miss)any imprtant things. At the same time, I enjyed my spare time.
Planning time has never been easy fr me, (74)________ I still keep n trying. I'm glad that I've learned t balance things and it will be (75) ___________ (help)in my future life.
VI. 书面表达(35分)
第一部分 情境运用 根据所提供的图片, 用一个完整的句子提问或应答。 (10分)
76. A:________________________ ?
B:It must be Alice's.
77. A: ____________________________ ?
B: Because they are s cute.
78. A:What is the by ging t be when he grws up?
B: ____________________________________.
79. A:What were yu ding when I called yu last night?
B: _________________________________________.
80. A: ___________________________________?
B:I think they are fun t watch.
第二部分写作(25分)
“投我以桃, 报之以李。”感恩他人是中华民族的一种传统美德。Teens 杂志 社现为中英文化交流活动征稿。无论是受人之恩还是伸出援手, 一定有很多故事 令你铭记于心。请用英语完成这篇稿件。
内容包括：
1. 讲述你和他人之间发生的感恩故事；
2. 我们为何要常怀感恩之心?
注意：
1. 词数不少于100词；
2. 文章不得出现真实的人名校名等信息。
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2024 年九年级学业水平第一次模拟考试
英语试题（LX 2024.3）
参考答案及评分意见
I. 1-5 ABABB 6- 10 CACCB 11- 15 BACBA 16-20 BCBCC
II. 21-25 ABCBA 26-30 CBBAD 31-35 BDBAB 36-40 CDABD
III. 41-45 GBFEC
IV. 46-50 DCABD
V. 51-55 ADBAC 56-60 ACBAB 61-65 DCDCA
VI. 66. began 67. them 68. classes 69. t find 70. a
71. carefully 72. d 73. haven’t missed/ have nt missed 74. but 75.helpful
VII. 情境运用
76. Whse hat is this / that/ it? Wh des the hat belng t?
77. Why d yu like pandas?
78. He is ging t be an artist / a painter.
79. I was ding/washing the dishes. I was washing the plates/ding the husewrk.
80. What d yu think f/abut the races?
Hw d yu like the races?
Hw d yu feel abut the races?
表达准确， 无语言错误， 2 分；
表达较准确，有少量语法或拼写错误，1 分；
词不达意， 语句难以理解，语法或拼写难以辨识， 0 分。
作文
1）本大题共 25 分。
2）卷面书写潦草不工整，以至影响交际，可酌情扣 1－2 分。
3）拼写错误每个扣 1 分。同样错误不重复计算。
4) 书面表达可分为五个等级:
(1)20－25 分：短文内容符合所给提示。语句通顺， 语言丰富， 书写工整，语法错误较少（1－2 处）， 字数符 合要求。
(2) 16－20 分：短文内容基本符合所给提示。语句通顺，语言较丰富，书写工整，3－4 处语法错误，字数基本 符合要求。
(3) 11－15 分：短文内容基本符合所给提示。 语句尚通顺，书写较工整，语法错误较多，字数在 80 词左右。 (4) 5－10 分： 短文内容不太符合所给提示。语句不够通顺， 语法错误较多，书写一般，字数在 60 词以下。
(5) 4 分以下：明显遗漏要点，写了一些无关的内容。语法结构或词汇方面的错误较多， 词不达意。D yu lve flwers?
Cme t the
Flwer Sale fr Sick Kids
At Harringtn Schl
Saturday and Sunday, May 12 and 13
8a. m. —3p. m.
Inside the schl classrms
Outside n the playgrund
Yu can buy flwers fr many reasns In additin t flwers
—fr the garden Yu can buy:
—fr inside the hme —pts t plant yur flwers in
—fr a friend —plant fd
—fr a family member —pictures f flwers fr yur hme
Thanks fr yur effrts fr sick kids. Every cent cunts
If yu have questins abut the flwer sale, call Frank at 555-0216 r Sue at 555-0924
A. If yu d feel tired, yu'd better nt g abrad n vacatin.
B. Instead, yu will really slw dwn and experience new cultures.
C. The next time yu will take a trip, remember t try it the slw way.
D. The true meaning f travel is t visit as many places as pssible.
E. Slw travel is envirnmentally-friendlier than ther types f travel.
F. It can mean driving alng back rads instead f taking the highway.
G. Thrugh traveling, mst peple expect a break frm their stressful lives.