四川省凉山州宁南县初级中学校2023-2024学年九年级下学期开学考试英语试题
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这是一份四川省凉山州宁南县初级中学校2023-2024学年九年级下学期开学考试英语试题,共10页。试卷主要包含了 A等内容,欢迎下载使用。
试卷说明:满分:150分 考试时间:120分钟
注意事项:
1.答题前,考生务必将自己的姓名、座位号、准考证号用0.5毫米的黑色签字笔填写在答题卡上,并在答题卡背面上方填涂座位号,同时检查条形码粘贴是否正确。
2.选择题使用2B铅笔涂在答题卡对应题目标号的位置上;非选择题用0.5毫米黑色签字笔书写在答题卡对应题目标号的框内,超出答题区域书写的答案无效;在草稿纸、试题卷上答题无效。
A卷(选择题 满分100分)
听力(每小题 1.5 分,满分30分)
Ⅰ. 听句子,选择恰当的应答语。句子读两遍。(共 5 小题;每小题 1.5 分,满分 7.5 分)
1. A. Of curse nt. B. Thank yu. C. Sure, here yu are.
2. A. By listening t BBC. B. It sunds great! C. I’ve learned a lt that way.
3. A. Yes, I’d lve t. B. What a pity! C. It’s really bad.
4. A. It is interesting. B. Yes, a little. C. That’s right.
5. A. Be careful! B. Gdluck! C. Nt at all.
Ⅱ. 听小对话,选择正确选项。对话读两遍。(共 5 小题;每小题 1.5 分,满分 7.5 分)
6. What d peple eat n Thanksgiving Day?
A. Dumplings. B. Sandwiches. C. Turkey.
7. What des the girl want t learn next week?
A. Painting. B. Music. C. Dancing.
8. What happened in New Twn this mrning?
A. An earthquake. B. A fire. C. A strm.
9. Hw will the man g t the Center Hspital?
A. By bike. B. By bus. C. By car.
10. What’s the man ding?
A. Drinking. B. Eating. C. Smking.
Ⅲ. 听长对话,选择正确选项。对话读两遍。(共 5 小题;每小题 1.5 分,满分 7.5 分)
听第一段对话,完成第11-12小题。
11. Where are the tw speakers prbably?
A. In a schl. B. At a pst ffice. C. In a shp.
12. Hw much will the wman pay fr the yellw handbag?
A. 580 yuan. B. 200 yuan. C. 180 yuan.
听第二段对话,完成第13-15小题。
13. Which mnth is it nw?
A. June. B. July. C. August.
14. Hw many rules are there in Kate’s family?
A. One. B. Tw. C. Three.
15. Where is the apartment?
A. On Main Street. B. On New Rad. C. On New Street.
Ⅳ. 听短文,选择正确选项。短文读两遍。(共 5 小题;每小题 1.5 分,满分 7.5 分)
16. What’s the relatinship between Jenna and Kyle?
A. Teacher and student. B. Sister and brther. C. Mther and sn.
17. Wh dressed as a Mickey Muse?
A. Kyle. B. Jenna. C. The heavy kid.
18. When did Kyle and Jenna walk back hme?
A. At arund 7:40 pm. B. At arund 8:40 pm. C. At arund 9:40 pm.
19. What did Kyle d when he met the heavy by?
A. He gave candies t him. B. He ran away at nce. C. He threw a stne at him.
20. What did Jenna think f Kyle at last?
A. Brave. B. Silly. C. Smart.
第二部分 语言知识运用(共两节, 满分 45 分)
第一节 单项选择(共 15 小题; 每小题 1 分,满分 15 分)
从各题所给的 A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项 ,并涂在答题卡上相应的位置。
21.-D yu knw ____ man?
-Yes,he is Mr. Green.Nw,he is planning ____ termly plan.
A.the;the B.a;the C.the ;a D. a;a
22.He wuld rather _______at hme than _______ut with friends.
A.stay;hang B.stayed;hungC. t stay;hang D. stay;hung
23. Thugh she ften makes her little brther ,she was madeby him this mrning.
A.cry;t cryB.t cry;cryC.cry;cryD;t cry;t cry
24.-Did Lily g t the cncert yesterday?
-N.She said she wuld cme,but she didn't __________.
A.shw upB.give upC.get upD.eat up
25.By the time he at the railway statin,the train .
had arrived;had left B.arrived;had left
arrived;leftD.had arrived;has left
26.-The shirt lks nice n yu!Hw much des it _______?
-I just ten dllars fr it.
A.take;affrdedB.cst;paidC.cst;spent D.take;spent
27.Li Ming used________ n the right in China,but he sn gt used ________ n the left in England.
A.t drive;t driveB.driving;driving
C.t driving;t driveD.t drive;t driving
28.It's hard fr me ______ the teacher when she talked t the class.
A.understand B.understdC.t understand D.understanding
29.—We have n idea ________.
—It’s heard that he is Mr. Green’s sn.
A.where he cmes frmB.if des he live here
C.wh he isD.wh is he
30. I dn’t knw _______ it will be rainy n weekends. _______it rains, I’ll stay at hme.
A. if; WhetherB. whether; WhetherC. unless; IfD. if; If
31.—Yur schl lks really beautiful.
—Thanks a lt.Trees and flwers ________ in ur schl every year t make it beautiful.
A.plant B.planted C.were planted D.are planted
32.We are nt allwed ___ with fire in the frest. It might kill plants, animals and even peple.
A.t playB.playingC.playD.t playing
33.The number f teachers in ur schl60 anda number f themfemale teachers.
A.is; areB.are; isC.are; areD.is; is
34.—I saw Tm’s father bught lts f bks yesterday.
一That’s nt strange. Nt nly Tm but als his fatherreading.
enjyB. enjysC. enjyed D.enjying
35.—What are peple suppsed t d when they meet fr the first time in the US?
—________.
A.They’re suppsed t kiss each ther B.They’re suppsed t bw
C.They’re suppsed t shake hands D.They’re suppsed t hug each ther
第二节完形填空(共15小题,每小题2分,满分30分)
先通读下面短文,读懂大意,然后从后面各题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选择可以填入相应空白处的最佳选项.
A
Tm's mther eyed him and said, "It is very cld and there 36 a lt f snw n the grund. If yu g37 yur cat,yu will catch a cld, and yu will be sick."
“But I feel quite warm.” said Tm.
“Yes,yu d nw.That's because there is a big fire in the rm” said 38 mther.
Hwever,Tm thught he knew best,s he went utside with n cat.Finally, he caught a bad cld and cugh.He was very sick and had t stay in bed.He was 39 sick t play with his friends.When he was in bed, Tm thught abut hw silly he had been.He wuld try t d as he 40 when he gt well again.
B
Yu and yur family are planning a picnic fr tmrrw. But yu want t 41 the weather frecast (预报) first t see whether there will be rain r nt. Yur father turns n the televisin and the family listens t the 42 make the weather reprt.
"It will be partly cludy tmrrw mrning, 43 clearing by early afternn. The highest temperaturetmrrw will be 30℃."
As there will be n rain, the whle family feels 44 . Withut the weather frecast, yu wuld nt knw this, and yu wuld just have t take yur chances. But nw yu can plan yur picnic 45 wrrying whether it will rain r nt.
The man yu can thank fr this is Cleveland Abbe. He is knwn as the father f the weather bureau (局). He was the first persn t publish46weather frecasts in the United States.
Abbe began his daily weather bulletins (简报) in 1869. They were based n weather 47 he drew frm telegraphed reprts f weather cnditins. Because f their accuracy (准确), the reprts were 48 .
Cngress(国会) became 49 in Abbe's weather reprts. They made Abbe a meterlgist (smene wh studies weather cnditins), and he 50 issuing (发布) frecasts three times a day. He was the first fficial frecaster f the U. S. Weather Service. Because he ften frecast prbable strms, Abbe earned the nickname f "Old Prbabilities".
41. A. prduceB. spreadC. checkD. rganize
42. A. firemanB. pstmanC. fisherman D. weatherman
43. A. sB. butC. afterD. because
44. A. happyB. wrriedC. stressedD. curius
45. A. abutB. withutC. againstD. frm
46. A. nlineB. pllutedC. dailyD. indr
47. A. mapsB. statinsC. spaceD. centers
48. A. strangeB. ppularC. terribleD. useless
49. A. successfulB. similarC. bredD. interested
50. A. avidedB. beganC. mindedD. risked
第三部分 阅读理解
阅读下面的文章,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项(共10小题,每小题2分,满分20分)
A
What will yu d t make yurself feel better when yu feel bad?
51.Carline is mst prbably a accrding t the material.
A.teacher B.managerC.nurse D.student
52.Why des Jhn imagine himself as the main character f a film?
A.Because he wants t be an actr.B.Because he likes watching films.
C.Because it's gd fr his wrk.D.Because it can cheer him up.
53.If Susan feels upset,she will prbably .
A.keep a diaryB.see a mvie
C.g t help smeneD.visit her friends
54.Which persn is the ldest accrding t the material?
A.Carline. B.Jhn.C.Lily. D.Susan.
55.What des the abve material mainly talk abut?
A.Ways t cheer up.B.Ways t be healthy.
C.Hw t help thers.D.Hw t find a jb.
B
Darrius was brn with three fingers n his right hand and ne n his left hand.He had t wrk hard t d things that were easy fr thers.Every time his classmates tried t help,he wuld say,“Thanks,but I can d it myself.”He learned t use the fur fingers t d different things.
When Darrius was 10,he tld his father that he liked pian music very much.“It's a pity that yu can't play,” his father said.But the by tk that as a challenge.“I will shw peple that I can,” he said t himself.
Mnths later,a neighbr gave Darrius an ld pian when she mved away.He taught himself t play the pian and practiced fr hurs a day.
Darrius' favrite pian music is River Flws in Yu by a Krean musician.It tk Darrius a year t learn it.“I have t cme up with my wn way with nly 4 fingers,” he said.When he succeeded,he felt s prud.Later he was lucky enugh t play the music tgether with the Krean musician at a famus cncert hall!The musician encuraged Darrius t fllw his dream f playing his wn music.Darrius has made it.And his music is ppular tday.“I may have a disability,” he says,“but I dn't let it hld me back frm anything.”
56.What did Darrius take as a challenge at the age f 10?
A.Writing his music.B.Playing the pian.
C.Giving a cncert.D.Visiting a hall.
57.Wh encuraged Darrius t fllw his dream?
A.His classmate.B.His father.C.A neighbr. D.A musician.
58.What des the underlined wrd “disability” prbably mean in Chinese?
A.骨骼 B.体魄C.残疾 D.身材
59.What can we learn abut Darrius frm the text?
A.He has a strng will.B.He bught himself a pian.
C.He gave up his dream.D.He nly plays thers' music.
60.What des the passage mainly tell us?
A.A by was very interested in Krean music.
B.A by succeeded in playing the pian with fur fingers.
C.A by helped his friends with pian at schl.
D.A by was ppular because f his beautiful vice.
第四部分 口语应用(满分5分)
根据对话内容,从下面方框中选出适当的选项补全对话,并涂在答题卡上相应的位置。(共5个小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
A: Hi, Linda. What are yu ding?
B: Yu see, the Spring Festival is cming. 61 I want t have sme fun t relax myself.
A: 62
B: Yes, there is ne. D yu knw Jia Ling?
A: 63
B: Right. I think she has strng willing. 64
A: Really? D yu want t g t see the mvie?
B: Why nt? We can enjy it tgether. I am free n February20th. 65
A: Emm... I am srry. I have t prepare fr the cming High Schl Entrance Examinatin. Maybe we can enjy it after the exam.
B 卷 (满分50分)
第五部分 写 (共四节,满分50分)
第一节单词拼写 (共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
根据句意及所给的首字母或汉语提示,用单词的正确形式填空, 并将其答案的完整形式写在答题卡上相应的位置。每空一词。
66. Dale has gt full sfrm his family, s he dares t have a try.
67.Can yu give me sme s________ n hw t learn English well?
68. We can help ur parents with husewrk, such as (打扫)the flr.
69. Althugh the weather was terrible, the pilt (成功)landed the plane.
70. The stry reminds us that we have t decide between life and (死)in a very dangerus situatin.
第二节 短文填空(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)
阅读短文,从方框中选择适当的词并用其正确形式填空,使短文通顺、意思完整,并将其答
案写在答题卡上相应的位置。每词限用一次。
“Thank yu” is widely 71 in a mdern sciety. It is a very gd manner. Yu shuld say “Thank yu” 72 thers help yu r say smething kind t yu. Fr example, when smene 73 the dr fr yu, when smene says yu have dne yur wrk well, when smene says yu have 74 a nice shirt, r yur city 75very beautiful, yu shuld say “Thank yu”. “Thank yu” is used nt nly between friends, 76 between parents and children, brthers and sisters, husbands and wives.
“Excuse me” is 77 shrt plite usage. We use it as the same as “Thank yu”. When yu hear smene say s behind yu, yu’d gt t knw that smebdy wants t walk past yu withut 78 yu. It is nt plite t interrupt (打断) thers while they are 79 . If yu want t have a wrd with ne f them, please say “Excuse me”80, and then begin t talk. Yu shuld als d s when yu want t cugh r make any unpleasant nise befre thers. Let’s say “Thank yu” and “Excuse me” n the right ccasin(场合).
第三节 阅读表达 (共15小题;满分20分)
A
补全短文,从方框中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。(共5个空,每空2分,满分10分)
Peple travelled t see the buildings, the fd, the natinal dresses in freign cuntries because they thught they wuld nt be the same as thse f their wn cuntries in the past. 81They all have their Hiltn r Sheratn Htels everywhere. They all have their McDnald’s, their KFC's and their Pizza Huts. Office buildings lk the same everywhere, and mst city centers are full f ffice buildings. And f curse, peple are driving the same brands f Japanese r Eurpean cars.
Then why is the freign travel mre ppular nwadays? What d turists hpe t experience a freign cuntry that they can nt experience at hme? The answer culd be that peple culd be very interested in the past.82Mst peple travel verseas t find ut what freign cuntries’ histry and culture used t be like, nt what they are like tday.Turists visit different kinds f museums in freign cuntries s that they can learn their histry and culture.
Every cuntry als has its wn beautiful places fr turists t visit. 83
84It is nt just its ld buildings, its wrks f art r beautiful places, but als the peple wh live in it. This is why a cuntry such as Thailand attracts millins f peple. The turists cme mainly because f the friendliness f the peple there. It is why the Pacific islands are als s ppular. 85
B
完成表格 阅读下面短文,根据短文内容,完成表格中所缺的信息,并将其答案的完整形式写在答题卡上相应的位置。每空一词。(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)
Why did Chinese peple have mre than ne name in ancient times?
In ancient China, peple’s names had three parts: their family name, given name and curtesy name(字). Let us take famus pet Li Bai as an example. His family name, which came frm his father’s family name, was Li. His given name was Bai, and his curtesy name was Taibai.
Peple used their given name when they were amng family members. But in scial life, they called each ther by their curtesy name t shw respect. This was mstly dne amng peple f similar age. If yu were talking abut yurself, r if yur elders were talking abut yu, the given name wuld be used instead f the curtesy name.
Men wuld get their curtesy name when they turned 20. It was a symbl f adulthd(成年). Wmen wuld get their curtesy name after getting married.
One’s curtesy name ften had smething t d with ne’s given name. Fr example, Mencius’ name was Meng Ke. His curtesy name was Ziyu. Bth Ke and Ziyu mean “carriage(马车)”. Zhuge Liang’s given name was Liang, which means “bright”. His curtesy name was Kngming, which means “very bright”.
第四节 书面表达(满分15分)
每逢佳节胖三斤,真的一点也不假。在春节期间,你也吃了许多次烧烤和火锅之后,长胖了不少吧?那么,在满足味蕾的时候,你有没有思考过健康问题呢?健康的生活对于成长中的我们是非常重要的.请根据以下提示,写一篇80字的文章来阐述你对健康的生活的理解.
写作要求:
1.词数80字左右,标题已给出,石译入总词数.
2.字迹工整,语言流畅,表达准确,逻辑清晰.
3.文章内容可适当发挥.
36. A. is
B. are
C. has
D. have
37.A. with
B. withut
C. n
D. by
38. A. its
B. their
C. her
D. his
39. A. quite
B. very
C. t
D. rather
40. A. tells
B. was tld
C. has tld
D. is tld
Carline,28
I lk after the patients in hspital.I'm sure yu can guess what I am.I usually write a blg when I meet smething that makes me feel bad.It's like keeping a diary,giving me a way t express my feelings.Besides that,many peple ften write sme psitive wrds t me,which make me feel even better.
Jhn,40
I'm the father f a beautiful girl Lily.I'm a prgram manager and I'm very busy at wrk.Smetimes if I feel upset,I'll put myself int mvies.I'll imagine myself as the main character.It always gives me psitive energy.
Susan,21
I'm a cllege student.I have a special way t cheer myself up when I feel bad﹣helping ther peple.I ften call a lcal nursing hme r church and ask hw I can help.Thse few minutes n the phne can cheer me up.Knwing that I'll sn help ther peple makes me feel gd abut myself.
A. Are yu available then?
B. D yu have smething interesting t share?
C. I’m searching fr smething interesting nline.
D. She is the main actr in the mvie The Ht and Spicy.
E. Of curse, she is a funny actr, and it is said that she is thinner nw.
first use beantherbuypenwhenevertalkbut alstuch
A. It’s a natin’s histry and culture that are main attractins.
B. The friendly peple make visitrs feel welcme.
C. Finally, anther attractin is its fd.
D. At present, hwever, ne large city is similar t anther.
E. Their wn special scenery(风景) wuld certainly attract turists frm ther cuntries.
F. The culture f a cuntry means a lt.
86 in Ancient China
Family name
Usually taken frm the 87 family name.
Given name
When peple were 88 family members, they used their given name.
If yu were talking abut 89 , r if yur elders were talking abut yu, the given name wuld be used.
Curtesy name
In 90 life, peple called each ther by their curtesy names t shw respect.
Men wuld get their curtesy name when they turned 91 years ld. It als meant they were 92 .
93 wuld get their curtesy name after getting married.
Their curtesy names ften had smething t d with 94 given names.
Smetimes ne’s curtesy name and given name bth had the same 95 .
宁南县初级中学校2023-2024学年下期入学测试参考答案
九年级 英语试题
A卷(选择题 满分100分)
第一部分 听力(每小题 1.5 分,满分30分)
1-5 CAABC 6-10 CBACC 11-15 CCBBC 16-20 BBCCA
第二部分 语言知识运用(共两节, 满分 45 分)
第一节 单项选择(共 15 小题; 每小题 1 分,满分 15 分)
21-25CAAAB 26-30BDCCD 31-35DAABC
第二节完形填空(共15小题,每小题2分,满分30分)
36-40ABDCB 41-45 CDBAB 46-50 CABDB
第三部分 阅读理解
阅读下面的文章,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项(共10小题,每小题2分,满分20分)
51-55 CDCBA 56-60 BDCAB
第四部分 口语应用(满分5分)
根据对话内容,从下面方框中选出适当的选项补全对话,并涂在答题卡上相应的位置。(共5个小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
61-65 CBEDA
B 卷 (满分50分)
第五部分 写 (共四节,满分50分)
第一节单词拼写 (共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
根据句意及所给的首字母或汉语提示,用单词的正确形式填空, 并将其答案的完整形式写在答题卡上相应的位置。每空一词。
supprt 67. suggestins 68. sweeping/cleaning 69. successfully 70. death
第二节 短文填空(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)
阅读短文,从方框中选择适当的词并用其正确形式填空,使短文通顺、意思完整,并将其答
案写在答题卡上相应的位置。每词限用一次。
71. used 72. whenever 73. pens 74. bught 75.is
76. but als 77.anther 78.tuching 79. talking 80. first
阅读表达 (共15小题;满分20分)
A
81-85DAEFB
B
完成表格 阅读下面短文,根据短文内容,完成表格中所缺的信息,并将其答案的完整形式写在答题卡上相应的位置。每空一词。(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)
86. Names87. father’s88. amng89. yurself90. scial
91. twenty/20 92. adults93. Wmen94. their95. meaning
第四节 书面表达(满分15分)(给分建议)
每逢佳节胖三斤,真的一点也不假。在春节期间,你也吃了许多次烧烤和火锅之后,长胖了不少吧?(写到春节期间吃多长胖1分)那么,在满足味蕾的时候,你有没有思考过健康问题呢?(写到意识到健康问题1分)健康的生活对于成长中的我们是非常重要的.(写到健康的重要性1分)请根据以下提示,写一篇80字的文章来阐述你对健康的生活的理解.
3分
1分
1分
1分
1分
1分
1分
没有给点,学生自由发挥,只要写到关于锻炼身体的点都可以,锻炼方式,锻炼项目,锻炼时间安排等。
1分
1分
1分
写作要求:
1.词数80字左右,标题已给出,石译入总词数.
2.字迹工整,语言流畅,表达准确,逻辑清晰.
3.文章内容可适当发挥.
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