海南省海口市第十四中学2023-2024学年八年级下学期3月月考英语试题

这是一份海南省海口市第十四中学2023-2024学年八年级下学期3月月考英语试题，共9页。试卷主要包含了 ______ 2， A等内容，欢迎下载使用。
I.听句子选图画（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分）
看图听句子 选出与句子意思一致的图画。每个句子读一遍。
A. B. C. D. E.
1. ______ 2. ______ 3. ______ 4. ______ 5. ______
Ⅱ.情景反应（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分）
根据你所听到的句子，选出正确的答语。每个句子读两遍。
6. A. Have a gd trip. B. Yu're lucky. C. That's true.
7. A. My pleasure. B. Yu are jking. C. Gd idea.
8. A. What a pity! B. Gd luck t yu! C. Cngratulatins!
9. A. Dn't say s. B. Yu're welcme. C. Dn't thank me.
10. A. Yes, please. B. Sure, n prblem. C. Well dne.
Ⅲ.对话理解（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分）
根据你所听到的对话内容， 选出能回答所提问题的最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。听第一段对话，回答第11和第12小题。
11. When did the girl g t Ninghai?
A. In April. B. In May. C. In June.
12. Hw lng did the girl stay in Ninghai?
A. Fr ne day. B. Fr tw days. C. Fr three days.
听第二段对话，回答第13~15小题。
13. Where d Sam's grandparents live?
A. In Germany. B. In France. C. In Britain.
14. Hw des Nra's family always g t France?
A. By plane. B. By ship. C. By car.
15. Hw lng was Sam's bus jurney t Paris last mnth?
A. Fur hurs. B. Seven hurs. C. Nine hurs
Ⅳ.短文理解（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分）
根据你所听到的短文内容，选出最佳选项。短文读两遍。
16. What is Rachel gd at?
A. Playing the vilin. B. Playing the pian. C. Playing the drums.
17. What have Rachel and her sister been ding fr many years?
A. Learning English. B. Staying at hme. C. Taking music lessns.
18. Hw many prizes fr music has Rachel wn?
A. Three. B. Fur. C. Five.
19. What des Rachel think abut her sister?
A. Very ld. B. Beautiful. C. Fantastic.
20. What d Rachel's parents d?
A. They are astrnauts. B. They are teachers. C. They are musicians.
第二部分 语言知识运用（共两大题，满分25分）
第一节 （共 10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
从A、B、C三个选项中选出一个能回答问题或填入空白处的最佳选项。
21.______earth is nly a small planet in ______Galaxy.
A. The; a B. The; theC. An; a
22.—It's said that the West Lake is ne f the mst beautiful lakes in China. D yu think s?
—Yeah, I ______ there twice befre! It attracts lts f turists frm hme and abrad.
A. have been B. have gne C. g
23.—I will take a trip t Xitang Ancient Water Twn in Jiaxing next week.
—That ______wnderful! I hpe yu'll enjy yurself!
A. sunds B. smells C. lks
24. —I feel ______ abut the cming ftball match.
—Dn 't wrry, Matt! Yu are a gd player.
A. cnfident B. surprised C. nervus
25—Are yu lking frward t yur trip next week?
—Of curse! I've already started ______ the days.
A. cunting dwn B. writing dwn C. lking up
26. Yu are nt late. The mvie has ______begun.
A. yet B. just C. already
27. The eggs and chicken n the table are ______ making sandwiches.
A. fr B. n C. with
28. As millins f students' dream university, Xiamen University is ne f ______universities in China.
A. beautiful B. mre beautiful C. the mst beautiful
29.______ interesting nvel! Yu shuld read it.
A. Hw an B. Hw C. What an
30.—Culd yu please tell me the way t the nearest bus statin?
—______! Fllw me, please.
A. N prblem B. Bad luck C. Never mind
第二节 （共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，掌握其大意，从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。
My best friend, Cnnie, is tw years lder than me. We spend a lt f time tgether.
Cnnie has lng dark brwn hair and her eyes are big and rund. Peple say she is 31 and lks like a dll. When we g ut, peple ften 32 that I am lder than her because she is shrter and slimmer（苗条的）.
Cnnie is psitive （乐观的） even when things g 33 . Last week she gt her examinatin 34 , which were nt very gd. I thught she was ging t be 35 .
Instead, she simply decided t d better the next time. Then, every day after class, 36 teachers are free in their ffices, she will ask them fr help.
Cnnie gets n well with thers. Everyne in my family 37 her, even my yunger brther. When yu hear her laugh, yu will naturally（自然地） laugh 38 . When I feel unhappy, I will talk t Cnnie and she will make me feel 39 . I think my 40 with Cnnie is very valuable, and I hpe we will always be best friends.
31. A. crazy B. beautiful C. lazy
32. A. think B. hpe C. suggest
33. A. wrng B. welcme C. imprtant
34. A. lessns B. symbls C. results
35. A. stupid B. interested C. sad
36. A. althugh B. if C. befre
37. A. sees B. likes C. wakes
38. A. suddenly B. early C. tgether
39. A. better B. angrier C. busier
40. A. purpse B. pinin C. friendship
第三部分：阅读理解（共三节，满分55分）
第一节 （共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分）
阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中， 选出最佳选项。
A
41. What's wrng with Laura?
A. She had a sre thrat. B. She had a tthache. C. She had a fever.
42. Hw ften des Anna 's family clean the huse?
A. Once a week. B. Twice a week. C. Once a mnth.
43. Next time Harry ges fr a picnic, he will ______.
A. prepare mre fd B. take an umbrella C. watch the weather reprt
44. Which f the fllwing is TRUE?
A. Laura 's mther sent her t the hspital.
B. Anna tidied the huse with her sister.
C. David went t the beach t pick up rubbish.
45. The passage is mainly abut ______.
A. these children's hbbies B. fur kids 'activities n weekends
C. a dctr's advice n health
B
While mst Singapreans can speak bth English and Chinese, very few are gd at bth languages. In fact, mst parents speak English as their first language, s their Chinese is getting weak and they face difficulties When it cmes t teaching their children Chinese.
If yu' re a parent struggling t keep up with Chinese teaching in schl, yu are nt alne. We spke t sme Singaprean parents abut the challenges they face when teaching their children Chinese, as well as hw they gt their yung nes t understand the imprtance f the language.
Emily, 37, says that it has been a bit f a challenge teaching Chinese t her tw children as her husband and she dn't speak much Chinese at hme. She says that this is the main reasn why her tw children, wh are seven and fur, are nt cnfident f the language. Despite（尽管） this, Emily encurages her children t speak Chinese in schl whenever pssible s that they can practice. "Peple in Singapre speak many languages, and t be able t cmmunicate with all f them, my children need t master different languages."
She als tries t make Chinese learning fun fr her children by telling them stries f certain Chinese wrds. Because her family is mstly English speaking, she is wrried that her children may nt be able t keep up with Chinese teaching in schl.
Given that the Chinese language lks t be very imprtant in the future, Emily als says that she may cnsider sending her children t a Chinese schl n Sundays r nline learning platfrm（平台） .
46. What are mst Singapreans like these days?
A. They can speak tw languages.
B. They find Chinese learning fun.
C. They are gd at bth Chinese and English.
47. What des Emily say abut her family?
A. They are t shy t talk t thers.
B. They speak English mst f the time.
C. They speak Chinese as much as pssible.
48. What des the underlined wrd "master" prbably mean?
A. Like. B. Hear. C. Learn.
49. What might Emily get her children t d?
A. Tell stries in Chinese ften.
B. Write Chinese wrds every day.
C. Have Chinese lessns n weekends.
50. What's the best title fr the text?
A. Singaprean parents wrk hard at their Chinese
B. Singaprean children are having a hard schl life
C. Singaprean parents find teaching kids Chinese challenging
C
D yu like wearing clurful clthes? Tday, we can get clurful clthes easily. But hw abut peple in ancient times?
Tie-dye（扎染） is a very ld way f dyeing clthes, which has a histry f mre than 1,000 years. During the Tang and Sng perids, peple gave tie-dyed clthes t the emperrs as gifts. Peple make dyes by hand, and dyes usually cme frm plants.
In 2006, the tie-dye skill was added t China's natinal intangible cultural heritage（国家非物质文化遗产） list. Anning city in Yunnan is knwn fr tie-dye.
Yang Cheng, 52, is the inheritr（传承人） f tie-dye in Anning, Yunnan. He has learned the ld skill f tie-dye. He learned the skill frm his mther in the 1980s. And he has passed it dwn t his daughter.
T tie-dye, yu first need t use rpes t tie yur clth tgether. Then yu put the clth int the dye. As the clth is flded（折叠） and dyed, sme parts becme dark clurs, while ther parts have light clurs. When yu unfld the clth, yu'll see beautiful shapes and clurs.
Sme might wrry that machinery dyeing will take the place f tie-dye. But Yang desn't think s. "At the end f the day, machines can't take the place f ur creative hands," Yang said.
51. The writer starts t intrduce tie-dye by ______.
A. shwing a fact B. asking a questin C. giving an example
52. Peple make dyes by hand, and they usually cme frm
A. Sil B. plants C. animals
53. Yang Cheng was taught the tie-dye skill by ______.
A. his grandmther B. his father C. his mther
54. What is the right rder f tie-dye accrding t the passage?
①Put the clth int the dye.
②Use rpes t tie the clth tgether.
③Get beautiful shapes after unflding the clth.
④Sme parts becme dark, while ther parts are light.
A.②①④③ B.③④②① C.④②①③
55. What can yu infer frm this passage?
A. Anning in Hunan is knwn fr its dye.
B. Tie-dyed clthes were valuable in the Sng Dynasty.
C. Machinery dyeing will replace tie-dye in the future.
第二节 （共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中适当能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有一项为多余选项。
Sme f yu might ften feel unhappy r frget hw great yu are. But d yu want t make yu feel gd abut yurself? 56. ______
Lk at the mirrr and say t yurself, I am a special persn and there's n ne in the wrld like me. I can d anything. It may nt sund gd, but it really wrks!
Smile.57. ______ Lk fr the gd things in yur friends and family.
D smething nice fr smene. Helping thers always makes yu feel gd.
58. ______Have yu ever wanted t decrate（装饰） yur wn rm r learn hw t swim? G fr it! New challenges are fun and give yu a sense f achievement when yu have finished.
59. ______Turn ff the TV, be friends with the bks and let yur dream fly! Write dwn yur thughts, dreams r anything yu want! Writing always helps t pen up yur thughts.
Stay with yur family. We all need ur family time. 60. ______
第三节（共8小题；61至65小题每题1分，66、77小题每题2分，68小题6分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，根据短文内容按要求完成任务。
The great thinker Liu An gave the famus stry f The Old Man at the Frt(《塞翁失马》). An ld man lived a pr life with his sn at the tp f a hill. They lst their hrse which they made a living with.
His neighbrs came t express their pity fr his bad luck. The ld man asked, "Hw d yu knw this is bad luck?" After several days, his hrse returned with many wild hrses. His neighbr came t cngratulate him n his gd luck. The ld man replied, "Hw d yu knw this is gd luck?" A few days later, his sn learned t ride hrses. Hwever, he fell ff the hrseback and brke his leg. The ld man thught, "Hw can't this be a gd thing?" The next year, there was a war. The sn didn't have t jin the army because f that accident.
Nthing in the wrld is abslutely（绝对地） gd r bad. Just as an ld saying ges, "Gd luck and bad luck cme in turn." Bad things can lead t gd results. And gd things can lead t bad results. When yu are lucky, yu'd better keep calm, r yu may get int truble at last. When yu are in truble, yu shuld see it in a gd way and yu can turn it arund with a strng will.
Task I: Finish the mind map accrding t the article. Fill in each blank with n mre than 3 wrds.

Task II: Answer the fllwing questins.
66. What did the ld man live n?
67. When did the man's lst hrse cme back?
68. What can yu learn frm this passage? Explain yur idea(s) in abut 20 wrds.
第四部分，写作（满分20分）。
根据要求完成短文写作，请将作文写在指定位置上。
中国梦牵引航天梦，航天梦助推中国梦。为了更好地追求航天梦，我国专门将每年的4月24日定为中国航天日（Space Day f China)，就是为了纪念中国航天事业的卓越成就，不断发扬中国航天精神。假如你也有一个航天梦，请你根据以下思维导图内容提示用英文写一篇短文，谈谈你的梦想。

注意：
1.可在思维导图内容提示的基础上适当拓展信息；
2.不得在作文中出现真实校名、地名和学生的真实姓名；
3.语句连贯，词数100左右。作文的开头和结尾已经给出，不计入总词数。
D yu have a space dream? I have ne. ______________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
I am sure that I can make my dream cme true!
八年级练习听力材料
Ⅰ.听句子选图画（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分）
看图听句子，选出与句子一致的图画。每个句子读一遍。
1. (M) I'll wear jeans and a T-shirt fr the jurney.
2. Tny is entering a singing cmpetitin.
3. The astrnaut jined CNSA a few years ag.
4. It tastes sweet. It's sugar.
5. Daisy has gt shrt hair nw. She lks much prettier.
Ⅱ.情景反应（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分）
根据你所听到的句子，选出正确的答语。每个句子读两遍。
6. My parents will take me t Shanghai the day after tmrrw.
7. The bx is heavy. Culd yu please help me carry it?
8. I hpe I will win the singing cmpetitin next week.
9. Yu gave me a lt f help. Thank yu.
10. Will yu carry the bx fr me, please?
Ⅲ.对话理解（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分）
听第一段对话，选出能回答11、12小题的最佳选项。对话读两遍。
W: Lk! Here are sme f my new phts.
M: Ww, there're s many peple in this pht.
W: Yes, there was a big festival in Ninghai.
M: When was that?
W: On May 19th. And I went there with my family that day.
M: Hw lng did yu stay there?
W: Fr tw days. We went t sme interesting places.
听第二段对话，选出能回答13~15小题的最佳选项。对话读两遍。
W: Have yu travelled by plane, Sam?
M: Yes, I have. I flew t Germany last year t visit my grandparents. Hw abut yu, Nra?
W: N, I haven't. We usually g t France n hliday and we always g by ship. My mum's afraid f flying, but she lves ships!
M: Last mnth, we went t Paris by bus. It was a really lng jurney. We left the bus statin at half past seven in the mrning and arrived in Paris at half past fur in the afternn.
Ⅳ.短文理解（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分）
根据你所听到的短文内容，选出最佳选项。短文读两遍。
(W) My name is Rachel. My sister and I have always lved music. I'm gd at playing the pian and she plays the drums very well. We bth sing. We have been taking music lessns fr many years and we have played in many cncerts. I have wn three prizes fr music and I have written five sngs fr films. My sister hasn't wn any prizes yet, but she has given cncerts all ver the wrld. I have been t lts f her cncerts. She's fantastic! Our parents are nt musicians. They are teachers. But they dn't stp us frm playing music.
八年级练习（英语）答案
第一部分 听力（共四大题，满分20分）
1-5 EACBD 6-10 AABBB
11-15BBABC 16-20 BCACB
第二部分 语言知识运用（共两大题，满分25分）
21-25 BAACA 26-30 BACCA
31-35 BAACC 36-40 BBCAC
第三部分：阅读理解（共三节，满分55分）
41-45 CACCB 46-50 ABCCC
51-55 BBCAB 56-60 EDABF
61. pr 62. returned 63. leg 64. jin the arm 65. Liu An
66. The hrse. 67. After several days.
68. We shuld see things in a psitive way. We shuld face the prblems calmly.
第四部分，写作（满分20分）。
D yu have a space dream? I have ne. My dream is t be an astrnaut.
I'm very interested in everything in space. When I am free, I enjy reading bks and watching mvies abut it. The space is full f things unknwn t us and I really hpe that I can help peple learn mre abut it in the future.
Space travel can't be easy s I must wrk hard and get well prepared t make my dream cme true. T begin with, I will d sprts as ften as I can because a strng and healthy bdy is a must fr a gd astrnaut. What's mre, I will read mre bks abut space. In this way, I can learn mre abut it and wrk well in it in the future.
I am sure that I can make my dream cme true!I had a headache n Saturday. Mm tk my temperature and it was 38.6°C! Then Dad tk me t the hspital. The dctr said I had a fever. Then he gave me sme medicine and tld me t have a gd rest.
Laura
David
Last Sunday I went t the beach with my friends and family. We went there nt t play but t d smething gd fr the envirnment. We picked up the rubbish n the beach. Sme visitrs als jined us.
My family cleaned up ur huse n Saturday mrning. Mm did sme washing, Dad tk ut the rubbish, and I swept the flr. We clean the huse every Saturday, s it isn't very dirty.
Anna
Harry
My family was having a picnic n the hill when the rainstrm came n Sunday. We didn't take an umbrella, s we had t run t ur car. We all gt wet. But the rain stpped as sn as we arrived hme. Next time we must watch the weather reprt befre ging fr a picnic!
A. Learn smething new.
B. Read and start a diary.
C. Ask yur friends fr help.
D. Be friendly t peple yu meet.
E. Here sme suggestins fr yu.
F. Talk with yur mum r dad r maybe even yur cusin.