湖南省岳阳市云溪区八校联考2023-2024学年七年级下学期4月期中英语试题

这是一份湖南省岳阳市云溪区八校联考2023-2024学年七年级下学期4月期中英语试题，共9页。试卷主要包含了听力理解，阅读理解，语言运用，综合技能等内容，欢迎下载使用。
命题人：宁晓芬 审题人：沈俊军、刘灿 （陆城中学）
考生注意：本学科试卷共四道大题，总分100分，时量100分钟。
一、听力理解（共四节，20小题；每小题1分，满分20分）
第一节 听句子，选出与所听句子搭配的图片。
你将听到五个句子，请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出与你所听句子搭配的图片。每个句子读两遍。
（ ）1.
（ ）2.
（ ）3.
（ ）4.
（ ）5.
第二节 听短对话，选择最佳答案
你将听到五段短对话，请根据对话内容，选出每个问题的最佳答案。每段对话读两遍。
（ ）6. What des Mary d at half past six?
A. She has breakfast. B. She reads English.
C. She brushes teeth.
（ ）7. Hw des Cindy g t schl n Tuesday?
A. She rides a bike. B. She takes the bus.
C. She takes the subway.
（ ）8. What club can Peter jin?
A. The music club. B. The art club.
该试卷源自 每日更新，提供24小时找卷服务，全网性价比高。 C. The basketball club.
（ ）9. What must the by d at schl?
A. Leave schl n time. B. Clean the classrm.
C. G t class n time.
（ ）10. Why des the girl want t see the pandas?
A. Because they’re cute. B. Because they’re smart.
C. Because they’re interesting.
第三节 听长对话，选择最佳答案。
你将听到两段长对话，请根据对话内容，选出每个问题的最佳答案。每段对话读两遍。
请听第一段长对话，回答第11-12小题。
（ ）11. What des Eric like ding very much?
A. Drawing. B. Singing. C. Playing the guitar.
（ ）12. What club des Jane want t jin?
A. The art club. B. The swimming club. C. The basketball club.
请听第二段长对话，回答第13-15小题。
（ ）13. Where des Jenny’s father wrk?
A. In N. 4 Middle Schl. B. In N. 5 Middle Schl.
C. In N. 6 Middle Schl.
（ ）14. Hw des her father get t wrk?
A. By bus. B. By bike. C. By car.
（ ）15. What’s her father’s favrite clr?
A. Red. B. Black. C. White.
第四节 听短文，选择最佳答案。
你将听到一篇短文，请根据短文内容，选出最佳答案。短文读两遍。
（ ）16. What time is it?
A. 7:00 in the evening. B. 7:30 in the evening.
C. 7:30 in the mrning.
（ ）17. Where is Mrs. Black?
A. In the kitchen. B. In the bedrm. C. In the living rm.
（ ）18. What is Mr. Black ding?
A. Watching TV. B. Reading a bk. C. Reading a newspaper.
（ ）19. Wh is Mike?
Tm’s brther. B. Tm’s friend. C. Tm’ cusin.
（ ）20. What are Kate and Jane ding?
A. Listening t a CD. B. Reading bks. C. Playing cmputer games.
二、阅读理解（共两节，15小题；每小题2分，满分30分）
第一节 阅读下列材料，从每题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出最佳答案。
A
（ ）21. Yu can g t Baby Animal Week _________.
A. at 9:00 n May 5 B. at 15:00 n May 12 C. at 18:00 n May 15
（ ）22. Micharl, 9 years ld, wants t g t Baby Animal Week with his parents. They need t pay(支付)________.
A. $ 80 B. $90 C. $100
（ ）23. Hw can we get there?
A. Take the train B. Take the N.18 bus C. Take the subway
B
David is 14 years ld. He is frm Australia. He lives in China because he studies here. He is a new student in his schl. But his teachers and classmates are friendly t him. S he makes many new friends in China. Tday is Sunday, and he desn’t have any classes. Lk! He is playing basketball with his friends nw. Basketball is his favrite sprt. He usually plays basketball n Sundays.
Where are David’s family? They are nt in China nw. They live in Australia. What are they ding nw? David’s brther, Michael, is ding his hmewrk in his rm. He thinks it is difficult fr him. But he wishes(希望) t be a gd student. David’s mther, Cindy, is listening t music. She is a music teacher in a middle schl. Lk! Wh is reading a bk n the sfa? It’s David’s father, Peter. He is reading a science bk. It’s interesting fr him. David’s uncle, Tm, is nt in Australia. He wrks in the United States. What is he ding nw? He is sleeping in bed because it’s night in the US.
（ ）24. What can we learn abut David?
A. He is frm China. B. He has tw brthers.
C. He likes playing basketball.
（ ）25. Wh lives in Australia nw?
A. David and Michael. B. David and Peter. C. Michael and Peter.
（ ）26. What is Cindy ding nw?
A. Listening t music. B. Reading a bk. C. Sleeping in her rm.
（ ）27. Which is TRUE accrding t the passage?
David’s mther is an English teacher.
Michael thinks his hmewrk is easy.
Peter is reading a science bk nw.
C
Many peple drive their cars t wrk nw. S there are lts
f cars in the streets. Smetimes, it’s nt easy fr yu t get t
wrk n time. Then yu want t take a plane t wrk. Can yur
dream cme true? Yes!
Fur peple in Germany(德国)make a new plane—the Lilium Jet. It desn’t lk like a plane but an egg. Many peple think it lks funny. The nice “egg” can take tw peple and “run” abut three hundred kilmeters an hur.
The Lilium Jet is nt very big, as small as a car. S it desn’t need an airprt(机场). A small area is OK. It can even take ff(起飞) frm a garden.
Sme peple als call the Lilium Jet a “flying car”. It’s nt difficult fr yu t learn t drive it. Yu can drive it like driving a car. Then is it safe t drive the “flying car”? Of curse yes! Sme peple have tested(测试) it many times. “It’s really cl t see the Lilium Jet fly t the sky. Everyne shuld have a try,” says ne f the makers.
Maybe yu can buy ne next year if yu like it. I’m sure yur trip t wrk will be great.
（ ）28. The fur peple wh make the plane cme frm________.
A. the US B. the UK C. Germany
（ ）29. The underlined wrd“area”in Paragraph 3 prbably means(意味
着)________.
A. place B. car C. plane
（ ）30. Which f the fllwing is TRUE?
A. The Lilium Jet lks like a ball.
B. It’s nt safe t drive the Lilium Jet.
C. Peple can learn t drive the plane easily.
（ ）31. What’s the structure(结构) f the passage?
A.①→②③④→⑤ B.①②→③④→⑤ C.①→②③④⑤
第二节 阅读短文，根据短文内容，从文后选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。
We can enjy a tw-day weekend every week. Maybe tw days are t shrt, but we can try t plan(安排) the time well. 32. _____
Get up early. The weekend is nt nly a time t sleep in. Sme f us get up fr lunch. That' s t bad. Yu can have mre free time if yu get up early.
33. _____ We have t spend(花费) sme time n hmewrk even n weekends. But yu can feel better if yu finish yur tasks early. Yu can d hmewrk n Friday night r Saturday mrning. 34. _____ Yu dn't have t wrry(担心) abut it n Saturdays r Sundays.
G ut fr fun. Think abut what yu like t d. 35. _____ And yu can als visit a museum, a z r a park.
三、语言运用（共两节，20小题；满分25分）
第一节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Hi! My name is Bill. I live in a 36. ____ with my parents. There are nt many peple here. My mther’s name is Amy. My father’s name is Jeff and he 37. ____ in a middle schl. He is a histry teacher.
Every schl day, I 38. ____ early in the mrning and take the bus t schl. Classes start at eight ’clck and 39. ____ at half past three. My favrite subject is 40. ____. We can exercise in the P.E. class. I dn’t like math 41. ____ I think it’s difficult.
After schl, I get hme and d my 42. ____. Then I have dinner. After that, I take my dg 43.____ a walk. I have 44. ____ friends. I als meet them. At ten ’clck, I 45. ____ t bed.（ ）36. A. libraryB. villageC. statin
（ ）37. A. drivesB. wrksC. helps
（ ）38. A. get upB. get tC. get n
（ ）39. A. runB. gC. finish
（ ）40. A. histryB. music
（ ）41. A. andB. becauseC. befre
（ ）42. A. hmewrkB. dishesC. dream
（ ）43. A. withB. inC. fr
（ ）44. A. lt fB. a ltC. lts f
（ ）45. A. wentB. gC. ges
第二节（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
David is 46. ____ 13-year-ld by. He 47. ____ (be) in Grade Seven this year. He likes 48. ____ (play) sprts and watching sccer games. He ften ges t watch sccer games.
Nw David is 49. ____ (eat) lunch at hme. He is very happy because there will be a sccer game 50. ____ TV at 3:00 this afternn. He wants 51. ____ (watch) it very much. But he has three 52. ____ (class) this afternn. Then he has a gd idea.
“Hell, Mrs. Wang!” David 53. ____ (say) t his teacher n the phne. “David is ill. He wants t ask fr half a day ff. ”
“Oh, I’m srry t hear that, ” says Mrs. Wang. “And 54. ____ is that? ”
“This is 55. ____ (he) father, Mrs. Wang,” he says.
四、综合技能（共两节，满分25分）
第一节（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
阅读下面的短文，按要求完成后面各个小题。
Please lk at the pht. Many children are playing games in the classrm. A girl isn’t playing with them. She is my friend Amy. She is studying math.
Amy’s parents wrk in a big city, s she lives with her grandparents in a small village these years. It’s far frm her grandparents’ hme t her schl. But she never arrives late fr schl. She always gets up early. Then she takes the bus t schl. It usually takes her half an hur t get t schl.
It’s 7:30 in the evening. Amy and her grandparents are at hme. Her grandma is drinking tea nw. 她的爷爷正在读报纸。 What’s Amy ding? She is making a phne call with her parents. She wants them t stay with her all the time.
根据短文内容用简要答语回答下面三个问题。
56. Is Amy playing games in the pht?
_______________________________________________________
57. Hw des Amy get t schl?
_______________________________________________________
58. What is Amy’s grandma ding nw?
_______________________________________________________
59. 将短文中画线的句子翻译成中文。
_______________________________________________________
60. 将短文中画线的句子翻译成英文。
_______________________________________________________
第二节 写作（满分15分）
假设你是萨拉（Sarah），你的美国笔友彼得（Peter）得知大熊猫来岳阳了，特意写了一封电子邮件，询问你关于岳阳中华大熊猫苑(China Panda Garden)的一些事情。请根据表格信息，给他回一封电子邮件。
要求：
（1）70词左右，邮件的开头和结尾已给出，不计入总词数；
（2）书写工整、规范。
Dear Peter,
Thanks fr yur e-mail. I’m very happy t tell yu smething abut the China Panda Garden in Yueyang.
___________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________
I hpe yu wuld like it. Lking frward t yur reply.
Yurs,
Sarah班级：
姓名：
学号：
2024年上学期云溪区八校期中联考试卷
（七年级英语）
一、听力理解（共四节，20小题；每小题1分，满分20分）
二、阅读理解（共两节，15小题；每小题2分，满分30分）
三、语言运用（共两节，20小题；满分25分）
第一节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
第二节（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
46. ______47. ______48. ______49. ______50. ______
51. ______52. ______53. ______54. ______55. ______
四、综合技能（共两节，满分25分）
第一节（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
56. ______________________________________________________
57. ______________________________________________________
58. ______________________________________________________
59. ______________________________________________________
60. ______________________________________________________
第二节 写作（满分15分）
Dear Peter,
Thanks fr yur e-mail. I’m very happy t tell yu smething abut the China Panda Garden in Yueyang.
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
I hpe yu wuld like it. Lking frward t yur reply.
Yurs,
Sarah
2024年上学期云溪区八校期中联考
参考答案及评分标准
（七年级英语）
一、听力理解（共四节，20小题；每小题1分，满分20分）
1-5 ABBCC6-10 BBBCA11-15 ACBCC16-20 BACBA
二、阅读理解（共两节，15小题；每小题2分，满分30分）
21-25 BACCC26-30 ACCAC31-35 ADAEB
三、语言运用（共两节，20小题；满分25分）
36-40 BBACC41-45 BACCB
46. a47. is48. playing49. eating50. n
51. t watch52. classes53. says54. wh55. his
四、综合技能（共两节，满分25分）
56. N, she isn’t.
57. She usually takes the bus t schl.
58. She is drinking tea nw.
59. 她通常要花半小时到学校。
60. Her grandpa is reading the newspaper.
写作评分标准
一类(13-15分):写出全部内容要点,语句流畅.基本无语法和词汇方面的错误,少数错误主要是由于较高级词汇或复杂结构所致。词数达到要求。基本无单词拼写及标点错误。
二类(10-12分):写出大部分要点类容。语句较流畅。有少量语法和词汇方面的错误,但不影响理解.有少量单词拼写及标点错误.
三类(7-9分):写出部分要点.语句基本通顺.有一些语法和词汇错误,有少量单词及标点错误。
四类(4-6分):写出少量内容要点，语句不通顺。语法、词汇、单词拼写、标点错误较多。只有少量句子表达正确.
五类(0-3分):基本上没有写出内容要点，语法、词汇、单词拼写错误较多。基本上没有通顺的句子.只写出一些单词，不知所云。Baby Animal Week at the City Z
May 10 – May 16
( Every day frm 9:00 t 17:00)
Price: $ 30 fr adults; $ 20 fr children
Hw: Take the N. 108 bus r the subway
A. D the hmewrk early.
B. Yu can play basketball utside.
C. Yu can’t g ut n the weekend.
D. Here are sme ideas.
E. Then yu can have free time t enjy weekends.
·高铁站(Yueyang High-speed Railway Statin)到园区:的士,20分钟
·有十只熊猫
·爱吃竹子(bamb)
·不能喂食(feed)熊猫
·因为可爱而喜爱他们
·人们砍伐树木，导致熊猫失去家园；我们应拯救他们
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