2024年山东省济南市历下区中考三模英语试题（原卷版+解析版）

这是一份2024年山东省济南市历下区中考三模英语试题（原卷版+解析版），文件包含2024年山东省济南市历下区中考三模英语试题原卷版docx、2024年山东省济南市历下区中考三模英语试题解析版docx等2份试卷配套教学资源，其中试卷共33页， 欢迎下载使用。
本试题分选择题部分和非选择题部分，共10页，满分为150分，考试用时120分钟。
答题前，请考生务必将自己的姓名、座号和准考证号填写在答题卡上，并同时将考点、姓名、准考证号和座号填写在试卷规定的位置。
答题时，选择题部分每小题选出答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑；如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。非选择题部分，用0.5毫米黑色签字笔在答题卡上题号所提示的答题区域作答。直接在试题上作答无效。
考试结束后，将本试题和答题卡一并交回。
选择题部分 共100分
I．听力测试（30分）
听录音，从每组句子中选出一个你所听到的句子。每个句子听一遍。
1. A. Have a gd day! B. Enjy yur hliday! C. Catch yu n Mnday!
2. A. Walk dwn the street. B. G t the third flr. C. Turn right at the library.
3. A. I dn’t want t jin in. B. She can’t make sup. C. They wn’t g t the z.
4. A. Is there a park near here? B. D they g t schl early? C. Did yu send the pstcard?
5. A. Wh wrte the bk? B. When will they g hiking? C. Why d peple like giraffes?
在录音中，你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。每段对话听两遍。
6. What will Mark take?
A. A pencil bx. B. An umbrella. C. A bttle.
7. What kind f TV shws des Bb like?
A. Game shws. B. Sprts shws. C. News.
8. When des Cindy usually exercise?
A. At 5:30. B. At 6:30. C. At 7:30.
9. What club des Jhn jin?
A. Art club. B. Swimming club. C. Science club.
10. Wh did Tny g fishing with?
A. Friends. B. Grandfather. C. Father.
在录音中，你将听到一段对话，对话后有五个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。对话听两遍。听对话前，你将有40秒钟的读题时间；听完后，你将有40秒钟的答题时间。
11. When can Sam wrk at the Old Peple’s Hme?
A. On Fridays. B. On Saturdays. C. On Sundays.
12. What can Sam d fr the ld peple?
A. Sing. B. Read stries. C. Dance.
13. What time des his vlunteer jb finish?
A. 1:30 p.m. B. 2:30 p.m. C. 3:30 p.m.
14 Wh can help Sam chse bks?
A. His mm. B. Mrs. Brwn. C. Mr. Brwn.
15. What are given t the ld peple?
A. Skirts. B. Scarves. C. Cards.
在录音中, 你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。短文听两遍。听短文前，你将有40秒钟的读题时间；听完后，你将有40秒钟的答题时间。
16. What is Jiang Zheyuan?
A. A dctr. B. A teacher. C. A keeper.
17. Which fd is NOT fr pandas?
A. Muttn. B. Apples. C. Bread.
18. Why des Mr. Jiang recrd infrmatin f the pandas?
A. T make sure they eat well.
B. T make sure they are healthy.
C. T make sure they live as a family.
19. Wh is Fu Ba?
A. The father panda. B. The mther panda. C. A baby panda.
20. What des Mr. Jiang think f his jb?
A. Difficult but meaningful. B. Imprtant but bring. C. Easy and enjyable.
II．阅读理解 阅读下列短文，从每题A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出一个能回答所提问题或完成所给句子的最佳答案。（40分）
A
A man made his living by cllecting ccnuts (椰子). By the end f the day his wagn (马车) was filled with ccnuts. He decided t g t his friend’s hme. He wished he culd arrive there befre darkness fell.
He saw an ld man alng the rad and stpped t ask fr directins.
“Hi, ld man,” he said, “It’s late and I must get hme sn. Hw lng will it take me t get t Carsn’s frm here?”
The ld man answered, “If yu g slwly, it will take nly a shrt time. But if yu g quickly, it will take a lng time and yu will nt get there until late at night.”
“What a funny answer!” the man thught. He didn’t listen t the ld man. He hit his hrse t make it run as fast as pssible. But sn, sme ccnuts began t fall frm the wagn. Each time, the man had t get ff t pick them up. The faster his hrse ran, the mre ccnuts fell, and the mre times he had t pick them up. When he finally gt t his friend’s hme, it was already midnight.
As the ld man said, he shuld g slwly and it wuld take nly a shrt time.
1. What did the man want t ask the ld man fr?
A. Water.B. Ccnuts.C. Directins.D. Advice.
2. Accrding t the ld man, hw shuld the man g?
A. Slwly.B. Quickly.C. Safely.D. Cmfrtably.
3. Which wrd can best describe the ld man?
A. Wise.B. Unfriendly.C. Crazy.D. Brave.
4. What made the man arrive late at last?
A. The hrse was t tired.B. The wagn was t heavy.
C. He tk the wrng rad.D. He kept picking up ccnuts.
5. What’s the best title fr the stry?
A. Listen t thers.B. Hurry slws yu dwn.
C Hw t ride a hrse.D. A yung hrse rider.
B
Are yu thinking abut traveling t China but wrrying abut the plans? Cme t us! Turs belw may give an idea t experience China better.
6. What makes Alexandra’s trip the greatest experience?
A. Bks.B. Animals.C. Service.D. Envirnment.
7. Hw lng might Catherine stay in China?
A. 11 days.B. 3 days.C. 5 days.D. 21 days.
8. What did Megan enjy abut the Panda Time tur?
A. Learning abut Chinese histry.B. Experiencing China’s natural wnders.
C. Enjying delicius Chinese fd.D. Getting clse t pandas and feeding them.
9. Which tur is the best chice fr a histry lver?
A. China Discvery.B. Classic Wnders.
C. Panda Time.D. A Taste f China.
10. Wh is the text prbably written fr?
A. Freign visitrs.B. Chinese travellers.
C. Tur guides.D. Vlunteers.
C
Yu are ut and abut, and yu’re thirsty. S, yu g int a stre t get a drink. Yu’re nt alne. Custmers wrldwide buy mre than 1.4 trillin bttled drinks a year. But the big questin is: What d yu d with that bttle when yu drink up? If it’s nt recycled prperly, it will becme ne f billins that spread acrss rivers, ceans and rubbish bins.
Rather than drpping that cntainer (容器) in a rubbish bin, save it fr a reverse vending machine (RVM). They’re shwing up in parks, schls, airprts and supermarkets, s they are easy t find.
RVMs take used, empty bttles r cans and the user can get an award. These rewards culd be subway tickets, phnecards and mre. RVMs in sme stres, such as 7-Eleven, ffer shpping credits (积分) that can be used in that stre. Anther kind f RVM, the ECOCO machine, can be fund in sme cuntries. It gives credit fr using in partner stres.
The first RVM, which nly accepted plastic bttles, was made in Sweden in the 1950s. It was imprved in the 60s t accept ther recyclable materials. It was als changed t accept mre than ne bttle at a time.
The machine wrks by reading the Universal Prduct Cde (UPC) n a received bject. It then adds the UPC t a database that recrds the number f bjects smene is recycling. Next, the cntainers are brken int pieces. Once the machine can’t hld mre cntainers, the cntainers are returned t the crrect recycling cmpanies.
RVMs reduce the need fr raw materials t make new cntainers. Besides, the bjects are separated by machine rather than by hand. And althugh the machines are nt huge, they hld a lt befre needing t be emptied.
Enjy yur drink, recycle and get smething back at an RVM!
11. Why des the writer use the questin in Paragraph 1?
A. T shw care fr drinkers.B. T present the tpic.
C. T describe the cntainer.D. T sell mre drinks.
12. What can we learn abut RVMs frm the passage?
A. Peple need t pay fr using RVMs.B. RVMs can be fund in public places.
C. Peple buy things cheaply in RVMs.D. The first RVM culd accept cans.
13. Which is Paragraph 5 mainly abut?
A. Where RVMs can be fund.B. What benefits RVMs bring.
C. Hw RVMs wrk.D. Hw peple use RVMs.
14. What des the underlined wrd “raw” mean in Paragraph 6?
A. Natural.B. Standard.C. Man-made.D. Cruel.
15. What can RVMs d?
A. Make new cntainers.B. Separate cntainers.
C. Empty themselves.D. Hld bttles a week.
D
Many kids say they dn’t like the taste f brassicas (芥属植物) — a grup f vegetables that includes brccli and cabbage. Nw scientists think that there culd be a gd reasn fr thse s-called “picky” eating habits f kids that drive mthers crazy.
When chemicals in brassicas mix with sme peple’s saliva (唾液), they give ut bad-smelling smells in the muth. The study fund that the mre bad-smelling smells a child’s muth prduces, the mre they dislike the fd.
But why d sme peple’s muths make mre f these smells than ther peple’s muths? T find ut, the team cllected saliva samples frm 98 pairs f parents and children. Every persn’s saliva has a micrbime (菌群) in it. The researchers believe this determines hw much f the gases are given ut when a persn eats the vegetables. Maybe ur picky eaters are simply thse wh have the micrbime that increases smell f chemicals.
The team mixed samples f the adults’ and children’s saliva with pwdered (研成粉的) brccli. They fund that peple wh were related t each ther prduced almst the same amunts f the smelly chemicals. Thugh parents and their children tended t prduce similar levels, the parents didn’t mind the taste f brassicas as much as their kids did. The adults may have gtten used t it ver time.
Experts suggest many fd dislikes can be vercme with repeated expsure. This means a picky eater may cme t enjy fd they avid if they try it enugh times. Say yur child hates cabbage — if yu ffer them cabbage enugh times, in different frms, they may cme t enjy it in the end. What’s mre, children learn by bservatin. If they see yu eating a balanced mix f healthy fds, they’ll be mre likely t fllw. Hwever, watching yu eating lts f sda, snack fds, and dessert will make them wnder why they can’t d the same.
16. What leads t kids’ dislike fr brccli accrding t the text?
A. The unhealthy eating habits.B. Mther’s bad cking.
C. Unpleasant smells in muths.D. Brccli’s bad smell.
17. What can we learn abut “micrbimes” accrding t Paragraph 3?
A. They are everywhere.B. They mstly smell bad.
C. Saliva prduces them.D. They cause smells.
18. What did the team find in Paragraph 4?
A. Kids will accept brassicas sner r later.
B. Pwdered fd is healthier fr children.
C. Parents have similar smells in muths as kids.
D. Adults dn’t feel the bad tastes f brassicas.
19. Hw can a mther help kids enjy brassicas accrding t the experts?
A. By keeping a gd diet herself.B. By hiding all unhealthy fd.
C. By pushing kids t eat mre.D. By feeding kids with cabbage.
20. Where is the passage prbably taken frm?
A. A stry bk.B. A science magazine.C. A dcumentary.D. An advertisement.
III．阅读理解七选五
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Many peple lve t listen t music while driving. Thanks t the musical rads arund the wrld, drivers nw dn’t need t turn the radi n. ___21___
A musical rad can create music when a car’s tires g ver grves (凹槽) n the rad. T prduce beautiful music, drivers must pass ver the grves at a certain speed. Signs ften tell drivers the right speed.
___22___ Since the mid-1990, musical rads have appeared in many different cuntries. ___23___ T warn drivers t the incming music, all the rads are marked by clred musical ntes that are painted n these rads. Drivers can decide whether t g ver the grves r nt because they are set n the side f the rad.
In Hungary, there is a musical rad in hnr f ne f the cuntry’s mst ppular musical perfrmers — Laszl Bdi. Bdi was the lead singer fr the band. ___24___ Sadly, Bdi passed away in 2013. But peple still remember him as there’s a rad where drivers can hear 30 secnds f the sng “Rad 67”.
___25___ In Indnesia, a rad plays the first six ntes f “Happy Birthday”. The fifth nte is a little ut f tune, thugh. This “mistake” keeps drivers awake, and it has reduced the number f traffic accidents. Such is the pwer f music and musical rads.
A. Musical rads help ensure the safety f drivers as well.
B. But they can als enjy music while taking rad trips.
C. Musical rads can help imprve driving skills greatly.
D. The first musical rad was created in Gylling, Denmark, in 1995.
E. We are able t enjy music by turning n the radi n the rad.
F. Fr example, in China, there are many musical rads thrughut the cuntry.
G. Frmed in 1990, the grup is ne f Hungary’s biggest acts and is still active tday.
IV．补全对话
阅读对话，从每题A、B、C、D 四个选项中，选出一个最佳答案完成对话。
A: I’m always feeling tired these days, Jane. I am s wrried.
B: Yu have spent all yur time n yur study. _______26_______
A: I agree. D yu have any advice?
B: _______27_______ But I dn’t knw what mvies are n nw.
A: Let me see. I’m afraid there are nt any gd mvies recently.
B: OK. _______28_______
A: I like t g ut and see smething different.
B: Let’s g t the new museum. My dad tld me it’s big and mdern, and there are lts f high-tech prducts n shw.
A: _______29_______ I’m interested in science and technlgy.
B: We can g and see nw, but we may get hme late. _______30_______
A: Yu are right, my friend.
B: Then let’s give them a call right nw.
26.
A. It takes time.B. Yu must be sad.
C. Yu need t relax.D. It may be bring.
27.
A. Hw abut ging t the cinema?B. Can yu talk with ur teachers?
C. D yu want t listen t music?D. Why nt d exercise utside?
28.
A. What’s the matter?B. What d yu like?
C. What can yu d?D. What are yu ding?
29.
A. That sunds great.B. I have n idea.
C. It wuld be bring.D. Yu may be tired.
30.
A. That will make things difficult.B. We can take a taxi t cme back.
C. We are nt allwed t d that.D. We’d better tell ur parents first.
V．完形填空
阅读短文，从每题A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出一个能填入文章中相应空白处的最佳答案。
Nthing seems t brighten up a rm faster than ___31___. While bringing a tuch f nature inside, fresh flwers make a rm lk and smell better. Perhaps that’s ___32___ peple wh are in the hspital rms like them s much.
Larsen Jay ___33___ this fr himself. After falling frm a building in 2007, Jay was in the hspital fr weeks. He faced many surgeries (外科手术) and began lsing ___34___. Jay’s friends and family members came and sent fresh flwers each day and smething ___35___ happened. Jay’s md began t imprve, and he lked frward t the future ___36___ grwing hpe.
He sn realized that thers arund him weren’t receiving the same kind f ___37___. This drve him t g frm rm t rm, giving ___38___ his flwers every day. The results were ___39___! He fund that peple’s sadness quickly turned t happiness.
After leaving the ____40____, Jay culdn’t frget the pwer f his flwers. Six mnths later, he came up with the idea fr Randm Acts f Flwers.
Randm Acts f Flwers accepts used flwers, ften frm weddings. The flwers are ____41____ and given t peple in hspitals. In their first year, they ____42____ served fewer than 100 peple. But by 2018 they had given ut clse t 300,000 buquets.
A study fund that a patient with flwers had a shrter hspital ____43____ and a lwer level f pain. Time in hspitals is hard. But ____44____ like Randm Acts f Flwers are making a difference. They use flwers t spread ____45____.
31. A. flwersB. giftsC. lveD. mney
32. A. hwB. whenC. whyD. what
33 A. sawB. frgtC. practicedD. experienced
34. A. hpeB. hmeC. friendsD. fd
35. A. greatB. terribleC. scaryD. creative
36. A. frB. withC. nD. abut
37. A. healthB. jbC. invitatinD. supprt
38. A. upB. backC. awayD. ff
39. A. amazingB. nrmalC. disappintingD. right
40. A. schlB. cityC. hspitalD. park
41. A. cutB. thrwnC. madeD. reused
42. A. widelyB. alreadyC. exactlyD. nly
43. A. stayB. nightC. lessnD. seasn
44. A. restaurantsB. grupsC. htelsD. cuntries
45. A. illnessB. cultureC. kindnessD. knwledge
非选择题部分 共50分
VI．阅读填空（共10 小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Back in 2001, Ben and I _____46_____ (travel) t the Nrth Ple. One mrning we’d just taken dwn ur tent and started skiing. Sn I gt a strange feeling that smething was _____47_____ us. I stpped, lked back and saw a plar bear. It _____48_____ (walk) twards us!
Ben and I planned _____49_____ (stay) where we were and frighten it away. Ben had a gun that we’d bught in Russia. He raised the gun and fired int the air. Hwever, it didn’t wrk. I thught hpelessly, “We will _____50_____ (eat).”
Ben tried ver and ver again. Bang! The gun suddenly went ff in the air. There was a big clud f smke that I thught surprised Ben and _____51_____ (I) mre than it surprised the bear. The animal lked up lked dwn, turned arund and walked ff. Ben turned rund and said, “Quick, get the camera and take _____52_____ (pht),” and that was when suddenly I felt really _____53_____ (scare). I culdn’t even pen the zipper n ur bag.
That was the mrning f the _____54_____ (tw) day f this jurney. We were there fr tw mnths—fifty-nine days, _____55_____ we never saw anther bear that clse.
VII．书面表达（35分）
第一部分 情境运用
根据所提供的图片，用一个完整的句子提问或应答。
56.
A: What did Dave d last week?
B: ______________________________.
57.
A: Des Lucy lk the same as befre?
B: N. ______________________________.
58.
A: Hw will Jack get t Harbin tmrrw?
B: ______________________________.
59.
A: ______________________________?
B: They are 5 yuan fr ne pair.
60.
A: ______________________________?
B: In the Sui dynasty.
第二部分 写作（25分）
61. 假如你是一位英文报社的编辑，了解到某校优秀学子李华在中学阶段荣获奖学金后的选择，你深受触动，决定写一篇短文进行介绍，让更多的读者受到启示。
内容包括：
1. 依据配图，描述李华如何支配奖学金，并简要陈述其意义；
2. 阐述你对于奖学金如何支配的建议和理由。
注意：
1. 词数100词左右，开头已经给出，不计入总词数；
2. 可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯；
3. 不得出现真实的人名、校名等信息。
单词提示：schlarship 奖学金 further educatin 继续深造
A student named Li Hua wn a schlarship fr her excellent perfrmance at junir high schl. _________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________Tp 3 China Turs Frm China Highlights Travel
China
Discvery
●11-day family tur in China.
●Spend time with yur kids in a fun way.
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Classic Wnders
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Panda Time
●5-day Chengdu tur.
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