湖北省武汉市江夏区部分学校2023-2024学年九年级下学期五月调研测试英语试卷

这是一份湖北省武汉市江夏区部分学校2023-2024学年九年级下学期五月调研测试英语试卷，共16页。试卷主要包含了 5， 认真阅读答题卡上的注意事项， B等内容，欢迎下载使用。

2024. 5. 28
亲爱的同学，
在你答题前，请认真阅读下面的注意事项：
1. 本试卷由第1卷 (选择题) 和第11卷 (非选择题) 两部分组成。全卷共10页，七大题，满分 120 分。考试用时 120 分钟。
2. 答题前，请将你的姓名、准考证号填写在”答题卡”相应位置，并在”答题卡”背面左上角填写姓名和座位号。
3. 答第 Ⅰ 卷 (选择题) 时，选出每小题答案后，用 2B 铅笔把”答题卡”上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案。答在”试卷”上无效。
4. 答第II卷 (非选择题) 时，答案用0. 5毫米黑色笔迹签字笔书写在答题卡上。答在”试卷”上无效。
5. 认真阅读答题卡上的注意事项。
预祝你取得优异成绩！
第Ⅰ卷 (选择题共80分)
第一部分 听力部分
一、听力测试 (共三节)
第一节 (共4小题，每小题1分，满分4分)
听下面 4 个问题。每个问题后有三个答语，从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每个问题后，你都有5秒钟的时间来作答和阅读下一小题。每个问题仅读一遍。
1. A. Wuhan. B. Happy Time. C. The past.
2. A. She is tall. B. Twelve. C. By hand.
3. A. Tday. B. Delicius. C. Hamburgers.
4. A. CZ8129. B. At 10: 00. C. Take yur time.
第二节 (共 8 小题，每小题 1 分，满分 8分)
听下面8段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有 10 秒钟的时间来作答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
5. Hw is the nature library accrding t the man?
A. Big. B. Old. C. Great.
6. What des the man suggest wearing?
A. A cat. B. A dress. C. A jacket.
7. Where des the cnversatin take place prbably?
A. At a museum. B. At a htel. C. In a restaurant.
8. What time shuld Candy have arrived?
A. At 9: 20. B. At 9: 00. C. At 8: 40.
9. What are the tw speakers mainly talk abut?
A. Air travel. B. Future jb. C. Schl plans.
10. What wuld the man prbably say t the wman next?
A. A piece f cake. B. Never mind. C. Super cl.
11. Which picture is prbably the mvie they are talking abut?
A. B. C.
12. What can we knw abut the by?
A. He desn’t want t talk abut the exam.
B. He desn’t like learning English.
C. He desn’t want t talk with the girl.
第三节 (共 13 小题，每小题 1 分，满分 13 分)
听下面 4 段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题 5 秒钟：听完后，各小题将给出 5 秒钟的作答时间，每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答 13 至 15三个小题
13. What are they ding?
A. Having a party. B. Having a cmpetitin. C. Having a class.
14. Hw des the wman feel abut the phts?
A. Serius. B. Funny. C. Pity.
15. Why did Jhn use t sleep in class?
A. Because it wuld be a great memry.
B. Because he used t play games all night.
C. Because he studied t late.
听下面一段对话，回答 16 至 18 三个小题。
16. Where is the wman frm?
A. Krea. B. China. C. Japan.
17. Hw lng has the wman studied in Brightn University?
A. Six mnths. B. One year. C. One year and a half.
18. Which f the fllwing is TRUE abut the wman?
A. She ften travels in England.
B. She meets the man n a train.
C. She wants t be an English teacher.
听下面一段对话，回答19至22三个小题。
19. What are the tw speakers mainly talking abut?
A. Htel’s infrmatin. B. Bking a rm. C. Ordering in the htel.
20. What kind f service can the htel prvide?
A. Mrning newspapers and breakfast.
B. 15% ff whenever custmers cme.
C. Extra bed fr children under 16 fr free.
21. Hw much shuld the man pay if he stays fr five days with his wife?
A. 575 dllars. B. 425 dllars. C. 500 dllars.
22. When will the man arrive at the htel?
A. At 4: 15. B. On June 19t C. On Wednesday.
听下面一段独白，回答23至25三个小题。
23. What was Zng Qinghu at the age f 42?
A. A superstar. B. A businessman. C. A runner.
24. Which f the fllwing is true?
A. It is a bestseller and a famus brand in China.
B. Zng Qinghu died at the age f 69.
C. Zng Qinghu became very successful n business at his early age.
25. Which wrds can best describe Zng Qinghu?
A. Hard-wrking and kind. B. Creative and prud. C. Generus and humrus
第二部分 笔试部分
二、选择填空 (共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分)
从题中所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中，选出一个最佳答案。
26. — ____________?
—Yes, I’m lking fr the grcery stres.
A. May I help yu B. Is the shp ver there
C. Are yu having a sale D. D yu like the clr
27. —The bk abut nature tells us that prtecting the envirnment means prtecting urselves.
— ____________. It’s really a gd bk.
A. I hpe s B. I’m afraid nt C. I can’t agree mreD. I’m nt sure
28. —I dn’t dare t take part in the cntest because I’m afraid f nt being able t win a prize.
—Oh, my by. Wh says yu must d everything well. ____________!
A. Remember it B. Just d it C. Gt it D. That’s it
29. —He turned his ____________ back t the rad again, keeping a clse watch n the traffic ahead.
A. chance B. attentin C. challenge D. infrmatin
30. —I like autumn, hw abut yu?
— Well, I like all the fur seasns, and I think ____________ has its wn beauty.
A. bth B. either C. every D. each
31. —I think they have dne a lt fr us.
—Yes, it seems nly ____________ that we shuld give them smething in return.
A. hnest B. fair C. smth D. patient
32. —It was puring with rain utside. I really didn’t want t get wet.
—Why dn’t yu ____________ Mike’s ffer f a lift? It’s n his way anyway.
A. supprt B. wan C. change D. accept
33. —Snw has ____________ the grund cmpletely. It lks s beautiful.
—Ww, it really des. Maybe we can g fr a walk and enjy the scenery later.
A. cvered B. hit C. flwn D. fallen
34. —Let’s ____________ a time t meet. I miss yu s much!
—Hw abut this weekend?
A. give ut B. cut ff C. fix up D. take away
35. —The famus saying “A lng jurney can be cvered nly by taking ne step a time.” tells us ____________.
A. what shuld we d t g further B. hw can we be successful
C. why we shuld wrk hard D. why we shuld take it step by step
三、完形填空 (共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的四个选项A、B、C、D中，选出可以填入空白的最佳答案。
It was a snwy day. I 36 the friend wh sat with me n winter evenings, talking abut ur experiences and thughts—a true 37 .
I had almst given up hpe f finding anther friend like that after I 38 t this city. I wanted t invite a wman I’d met nly twice t cme share my dinner, 39 she lived an hur away, and it was snwing. I was sure she wuldn’t 40 t cme. Hwever, I decided t have a try. S I made the 41 .
“Dn’t feel yu have t cme if yu dn’t want t.”
“Is it snwing? I have a 42 , and I’m in bed. I’ll think abut it later, if that’s OK with yu.”
“Of curse it is. And here are yur chices, if yu decide t cme. I’ve just been shpping, s I can 43 yu macarni (意大利粉) and cheese r fresh vegetable salad.”
There was a 44 fr a mment. She was thinking.
“Since I’m sick, nt the macarni and cheese. T rich fr a cld. I 45 the vegetables,” she said, “Vegetables. If it’s nt snwing t hard.”
An hur befre dinner, the phne rang.
“I’ve gt up. I’ve been in bed all day. Lking frward t the 46 .”
I was happy.
An hur later, she 47 , hlding a piece f chclate.
We sat by the fireplace, eating and chatting. The smell f the vegetables filled the huse. And we 48 lve, art and travels. Everything was warm and gd.
As she left, she said. “Thse vegetables were delicius. They kept me frm 49 I didn’t chse macarni and cheese.”
“Next time,” I prmised. And I went inside, quite satisfied, because I knew there wuld be ad next time, and I didn’t feel 50 anymre.”
36. A. met B. missed C. visited D. helped
37. A. picture B. stry C. lessn D. cnversatin
38. A. travelled B. drve C. mved D. rushed
39. A. r B. s C. but D. because
40. A. want B. refuse C. fail D. frget
41. A. mistake B. call C. reprt D. dinner
42. A. cld B. duty C. walk D. party
43. A. ffer B. lend C. tell D. teach
44. A. nise B. rest C. silence D. pity
45. A. pay fr B. ask fr C. eat up D. cut up
46. A. vegetables B. chclates C. letter D. hliday
47. A. waited B. finished C. stpped D. arrived
48. A. heard abut B. talked abut C. wrte abut D. cared abut
49. A. believing B. realizing C. regretting D. remembering
50. A. excited B. nervus C. prud D. sad
四、阅读理解 (共15小题，每小题2分，满分30分)
阅读下面三篇材料，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。
A
51. In which SECTION f the newspaper can we read the news?
A. PEOPLE. B. CULTURE. C. BUSINESS. D. TRAVEL.
52. What d we knw abut the Velfest?
A. This cycling activity is held every spring.
B. Dctrs dn’t like this cycling activity.
C. It was held in rder t deal with illness.
D. Many peple taking part in it fr healthier life.
53. The best heading fr the secnd piece f news wuld be ____________.
A. Clud Turism B. The Livestreamers
C. Ging Outdrs D. Sharing Mre n Tiktk
54. We can infer that Chinese cllege students ____________.
A. are healthier and mre energetic than thse in ther cuntries
B. are nt gd at carrying plans ut
C. feel less stressed while traveling
D. want t learn mre abut the culture f the places
55. The purpse f using thers’ wrds in the news is ____________.
A. t intrduce the backgrund B. t supprt the main ideas
C. t enrich the characters D. t prvide different views
B
In 2009, Shawn Seipler wrked fr an American technlgy cmpany. His jb required him t travel and visit cmpanies all ver America. One evening, he was sitting in his htel rm. He began t wnder what happened t the sap in the bathrm nce he left the htel. There was n way that it culd be left in the rm fr smene else t use. Curius, he asked the htel manager and was tld that the used sap was thrwn away and replaced.
Shawn culd nt sleep that night. A quick Internet search tld him that there were abut 4. 6 millin htel rms in America. If 60 percent f these were used every night, ver ne millin bars f sap wuld be thrwn away every day. Was this really necessary? The yung man went n t read reprts abut the imprtance f handwashing. He learned that thusands f children were dying every day frm diseases related t bad hygiene (卫生) . If the children washed their hands with sap, the number f deaths culd be reduced by half. The fllwing day, Shawn left his well-paid jb. He apprached (靠近) the Hliday Inn Htel in Orland and asked if he culd take away their used sap. He transprted it t his hme, where he and his relatives began t break it dwn, s it culd be used again.
Shawn started his charity, Clean The Wrld, and began distributing his recycled sap t children all ver the wrld. His anther big task was t cmmunicate with ther htels, s he culd take away their used sap. He fund that he was really ding the htels a big favur. Nt nly was he putting their sap t gd use, but he was als preventing millins f bars f used sap frm ending up in landfill (垃圾填埋地) every year. His charity was able t raise mney by charging the htels fr this service. In return, the htels culd tell everyne they were part f an amazing new charity.
Tday, the charity has ffices verseas and perates in China, India and Canada. Many f the biggest htel grups in the wrld are wrking with Clean The Wrld, helping t save lives.
56. What trubled Shawn when he was in a htel rm in 2009?
A. The waste f sap. B. His tiring travels.
C. His sleeping prblems. D. The pr service f the htel.
57. The underlined part ‘distributing’ in Paragraph 3 means “
A. selling ut B. giving away C. putting away D. making up
58. What can we learn abut Clean The Wrld?
A. It plans t sell sap t pr peple.
B. It helps htels make a lt f mney.
C. It is a win-win fr itself and htels.
D. It tries t create envirnment-friendly sap.
59. Which f the fllwing can best describe Shawn?
A. Respnsible and curageus. B. Public-spirited and caring.
C. Curius and humrus. D. Far-sighted and strict.
60. What wuld be the best title fr the text?
A. Htels Cming Tgether B. Develping Gd Hygiene Habits
C. Creative Ways f Making Sap D. Recycling Sap t Save Lives
C
Have yu ever shuted at yur cmputer because it wasn’t wrking? Of curse, yur cmputer can’t “shut” back. But Al researchers have been wrking n cmputers that can argue and perhaps even win debates (辩论) with humans.
IBM scientists recently published a paper in Nature abut their new AI system— Prject Debater. It can debate with peple in frnt f a live audience. After listening t arguments frm its ppnent (对手), the system can search arund 400 millin nline articles in less than five minutes. And then it lks fr ideas that can supprt its wn argument.
Testing n the system began in 2019. When it debated with Harish Natarajan, a prfessinal debater wh hlds the wrld recrd fr the mst debate cmpetitin victries. The tpic was abut subsidizing preschl (资助幼儿园) —and Prject Debater argued t supprt this idea. Althugh Prject Debater lst the debate in the end, the audience said it perfrmed very well. Interestingly, 58 percent f the audience said that Prject Debater increased their knwledge abut the tpic—nly 20 percent said the same abut Natarajan.
Accrding t Scientific American, results shw that the system is able t frm lgical statements (有逻辑的陈述) . Hwever, ★ . Their gal is t help humans make better decisins, accrding t Ranit Aharany, manager f the Prject Debater team. “It can debate bth sides, s it can very quickly help yu understand bth sides f the prblem, s yu can have a wider view f the prblem and make a mre thughtful decisin.” Aharany said.
Let’s wait and see hw the Prject Debater will develp in the near future.
61. Accrding t paragraph 2, which ne belw is nt the way f Prject Debater wrking?
A. It writes ideas that can supprt its wn argument.
B. It listens t its ppnent’s arguments.
C. It searches nline articles.
D. It debates with its ppnent.
62. In the debate with Harish Natarajan in paragraph 3, Prject Debater ____________.
A. argued t supprt subsidizing preschl B. wn the debate in the end
C. set a wrld debating recrd D. ften argued against itself
63. Which f the fllwing can be put in ★ ?
A. frming lgical statements is nt easy
B. sme peple didn’t believe Prject Debater.
C. they can develp better system.
D. winning a debate is never the researchers’ gal.
64. The underlined wrd “it” refers t ____________.
A. Prject Debater team B. the lgical statement
C. the new AI system D. the wider view
65. What is the authr’s attitude t the Prject Debater?
A. Dubtful B. Psitive C. We dn’t knw D. Disappinted
第Ⅱ卷 (非选择题 共 40分)
五、词与短语填空 (共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分)
serius /imprve/feeling stressed/ perhaps /wrry abut / alne / relax
阅读下面短文，用方框中所给的单词或短语填空，使短文在结构、语意和逻辑上正确。 (提示：方框中有二个单词或短语是多余的。)
If yu get really nervus when yu have t perfrm in frnt f many peple, yu’re nt ____________ (66). It’s a very cmmn fear. Even sme very experienced actrs and musicians get very stressed befre perfrming. Sme peple say that ____________ (67) makes them give a better perfrmance, but ther peple can feel s nervus that they can’t perfrm at all. This is a very ____________ (68) prblem because it influences their cnfidence and even career.
The mst useful thing t d if yu wrry abut a perfrmance is t try t ____________ (69). Dn’t think abut all the things that culd g wrng. Instead, keep calm and think f a gd result. Befre the perfrmance, imagine peple cheering. Think abut hw gd yu will feel after a successful perfrmance. And remember, if yu make a few small mistakes, ____________ (70) peple wn’t even ntice.
六、阅读理解填词 (共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分)
阅读下列短文，根据所给首字母，上下文或括号内单词提示，在空白处填入适当的单词。每个空只能填一个词。
Ding mrning exercises is a daily activity in every Chinese schl. Fr the adults, hwever, familiar schlyards have already ____________ (71) (take) place f by public parks.
The mrning scenes in central parks arund China are ____________ (72) (live). At every crner f the park, yu can als see peple practising many kinds____________ (73) sprts: square dancing, badmintn and s n.
But the mst eye-catching grups in the park are the s-called “Kung Fu Grandpas/ Grannies”. Mst f them are cmmn wrkers frm different industries wh didn’t start mrning exercises ____________ (74) they retired. They say age is just a number as lng as they expect ____________ (75) (be) healthy.
The ____________ (76) (advantage) f exercise are endless: a healthier bdy tgether with a slimmer figure and a ____________ (77) (happy) md. N matter hw ld they are r when during the day they exercise, they will always strengthen the bdy.
Scial cnnectin is als ____________ (78) the lds search fr. Feng, wh is seventy-tw years ld, plays Taichi every day. He ____________ (79) (keep) this exercise fr six years and nw he is managing a WeChat grup f 270 members wh share the same hbby.
“What I like abut this place is that newcmers are always welcmed. Everyne in the park feels ____________ (80) (include),” said Feng. It is like a special party f later life.
七、书面表达 (共1大题，满分20分)
如今越来越多的人认为中学生应当掌握基本的生活技能，如洗衣、做饭、打扫卫生、修理等。假如你是第一中学的学生，你的学校将要举行主题为”Mre Skills, Better Life”的英语征文比赛，请你以此为题，根据以下内容提示从你掌握的生活技能、掌握生活技能的重要性以及你对学习生活技能的建议等方面写一篇英语应征稿。
内容提示：
1. Did yu learn any life skills?
2. Why shuld students learn mre life skills?
3. What’s yur advice fr students n learning life skills?
Smething mre abut life skills.
注意：文中不得透露个人真实信息；词数100词左右，部分标题已给出，不计入总词数。
Mre Skills, Better Life
We all knw that life skills play a very imprtant rle in ur daily life. _______________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
江夏区2023-2024学年度武汉市部分学校五月调研测试
九年级 英语试卷
一、听力测试 (共25分，每小题1分)
1-5 ABCBC6-10 BACBC11-15 CAABC16-20 BACBA21-25 BCBAA
二、选择填空 (共10分，每小题1分)
26-30 ACBBD31-35 BDACD
三、完形填空 (共15分，每小题1分)
36-40 BDCCA41-45 BAACB46-50 ADBCD
四、阅读理解 (共30分，每小题2分)
51-55 DDACB56-60 ABCBD61-65 AADCB
五、词与短语填空 (共10分，每小题2 分)
66. alne 67. feeling stressed68. serius 69. relax70. perhaps
六、综合填空 (共10分，每小题1分)
71. been taken 72. lively73. f74. until75. t be
76. advantages77. happier 78. what 79. has kept 80. included
七、书面表达 (本大题20分)
(One Pssible Versin)
We all knw that life skills play a very imprtant rle in ur daily life. With mre skills, ur life can be easier and better. When I was very yung, I learned t ck. Nw I can make sme dishes fr my parents when they cme back hme after wrk.
I think middle schl students shuld learn sme life skills like cking and washing clthes. In this way, we can take gd care f urselves and can smetimes help ur parents with chres at the same time. What’s mre, it can better imprve ur independence and it’s useful t help us develp a sense f respnsibility. We are a part f ur family, s we shuld d ur part. It is nt a waste f time. It helps us knw the idea f fairness.
S we shuld learn mre life skills and try t help with mre chres at hme. Then we can live mre happily.
书面表达评分原则及各档次的给分范围和要求
一、评分原则
1. 本题总分为20分，按五个档次进行评分。
2. 评分时，应主要从内容、语言和结构三个方面考虑, 具体为：
(1) 对内容提示的覆盖情况以及表达的清楚程度和合理性。
(2) 使用词汇和语法结构的准确性和恰当性。
(3) 上下文语意的逻辑性和连贯性。
3．评分时，先根据作答的整体情况初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来综合衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。
4．评分时还应注意：
(1) 词数少于60的，酌情给分。
(2) 单词拼写和标点符号是写作规范的重要方面，评分时应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
(3) 书写较差以致影响交际的，酌情扣分。
二、各档次的给分范围和要求
第五档次： (17~20分)
覆盖了所有内容提示，表达清晰、合理；使用了恰当的词汇和语法结构，且基本无错误；上下文语意连贯、逻辑合理。
第四档次： (13~16分)
覆盖了所有内容提示，表达比较清晰、合理；使用了比较恰当的词汇和语法结构，可能有少量错误，但不影响理解；上下文语意比较连贯、逻辑比较合理。
第三档次： (9~12分)
覆盖了大部分内容提示，表达基本清楚、合理；使用了简单的词汇和语法结构，有一些错误或不恰当之处，但基本不影响理解；上下文语意基本连贯、逻辑基本合理。
第二档次： (5~8分)
覆盖了部分内容提示，所使用的词汇有限，语法结构单调，错误较多，影响理解；上下文语意不够连贯、逻辑不够合理。
第一档次： (1~4分)
覆盖了少量内容提示，所使用的词汇非常有限，语法结构非常单调，错误很多，严重影响理解；上下文语意不连贯、逻辑不合理。
2024年武汉市部分学校中考适应性考试 (五月调考 )
英语听力录音稿
各位考生请注意，一分钟后将播送2024年武汉市中考适应性考试英语试卷听力部分。
现在是试音时间
W: Gd afternn, Dale.
M: Hi Cindy. Hw are yu?
W: I’m fine, thanks. Hw are yu?
M: I’m kay. Where are yu ging?
W: T the library.
试音到此结束。
现在播送2024年武汉市中考适应性考试英语试卷听力部分。
该部分分为第一、第二和第三节，注意做题时先将答案画在试卷上。该部分录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将你的答案转涂到英语答题卡上。

第一节 (共4小题，每小题1分，满分4分)
听下面4个问题。每个问题后有三个答语，从题中所给的A、B、C 三个选项中选出最 佳选项。听完每个问题后，你都有5秒钟的时间来作答和阅读下一小题。每个问题仅读一遍。
Test ne
Which city have yu been t?
Test tw
Hw ld is Li Hua?
Text three
What d yu have fr dinner?
Text fur
When des the train t Shanghai leave?
第二节 (共8小题，每小题1分，满分8分)
听下面8段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最 佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来作答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段 对话仅读一遍。
Text 5
W: Hw is the new nature library?
M: Very gd. Yu can read bks under a big ld tree.
Text 6
W：I’m wndering what t wear fr the meeting. What d yu think f the cat r the jacket?
M：They lk nice but wn’t yu be t warm? Why nt wear yur favrite dress?
Text 7
M: Can I take a pht f these paintings?
W: If yu dn’t use a flash, then it is OK.
Text 8
M: Oh, Candy! Why are yu s late? Yu were suppsed t arrive here at twenty t nine.
W: I’m really srry. I will cme n time next time.
Text 9
M: I want t be a fireman after my graduatin.
M: Ww, that’s cl. I als want t d smething helpful fr ur cuntry.
Text 10
W: D yu knw that 2024 Wuhan Marathn was held n Mar. 24th?
M: Oh, I had always wanted t take part in marathn and I missed it again.
W: I made it. I ran the whle distance f the race.
Text 11
W: Have yu seen the latest film The By and the Hern by Japanese directr Haya Miyazaki?
M: Yes, in the mvie, a 12-year-ld by and a talking bird g n a trip in a dreamlike wrld. It tells us t see the wrld as it is, and t lve it.
Text 12
M: Hey, the test is ver! Let’s g fr a big meal.
W: Sunds nice. Hw’s yur English test ging?
M: Oh, let’s just drp it.
第三节
听下面4段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话和独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间，每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答13至15三个小题。
Text 13
M: Hi, Jessica. Lng time n see!
W: Hi, Brian. It is nice t see yu and s many ld classmates.
M: S it is. I can’t believe it’s been ten years.
W: Yu are right. It’s really a lng time.
M: Did yu see the ld phts n the wall?
W: I sure did. We lked s funny in them.
M: But thse are sme great memries.
W: Hey! Isn’t Jhn ver there?
M: Yes, it is. I remember he used t stay up all night studying.
W: And then he wuld fall asleep in class.
M: Yes. He was the nly ne left in the classrm when he wke up.
听下面一段对话，回答16至18三个小题。
Text 14
M: Excuse me. Is this seat free?
W: Yes, yu can take it.
M: Thanks. Er. . . are yu Krean r Japanese?
W: Oh, I’m Chinese.
M: D yu cme t England fr travel r wrk?
W: Well, I cme t study English. I’m studying English in Brightn University.
M: Yu speak English very well.
W: Thank yu. I’ve been here fr just half a year, and I’ll g back t my hmetwn t be an English teacher.
M: Great! I’m sure yu’ll be a gd teacher.
W: Thank yu. Oh, I’m at my bus stp. I have t g nw. Nice talking with yu.
M: Me, t. Gd luck!
听下面一段对话，回答19至22四个小题。
Text 15
W: Shangri-La Htel. Can I help yu?
M: Yes, please. I’d like t bk a rm fr Wednesday.
W: OK. What kind f rm wuld yu like, sir?
M: A duble rm with a bath.
W: One mment, please. I’ll have a lk. Yes, we have gt that kind f duble rm n that day, June 9th. And hw lng will yu be staying with us, sir?
M: I’m nt sure right nw. At least five days, but it culd be lnger.
W: That’s n prblem. A duble rm with a bath fr June 9th. Please let us knw if yu want t stay lnger.
M: Sure. Hw much is it fr ne night?
W: One hundred dllars, including the mrning newspaper, breakfast and service. Right nw, it’s
the ff seasn, s 15% ff.
M: OK. Is there an extra charge fr children?
W: If the child is under sixteen and needs t put an extra bed in yur rm, the charge is frty dllars. D yu want the rm?
M: Yes, fr June 9th.
W: Nw may I have yur persnal infrmatin, please?
听下面一段独白，回答23至25三个小题。
Text 16
Flwers were put in frnt f the cmpany f the Hangzhu Wahaha Grup, China’s leading drink maker. They were fr its leader, Zng Qinghu, wh died n Feb 25 at the age f 79.
Zng was a late achiever. Befre starting Wahaha, he wrked n farms and set up an electric fan factry. These effrts led t his future success. At the age f 42, he started his wn business.
Zng saw a chance in the Children’s nutritin market (营养市场) . Thrugh hard wrk and wise decisins, Wahaha became a bestseller and a famus brand in China. In 2002, Wahaha’s prductin (产量) was even bigger than that f Cca-Cla.
Having becme rich and famus, Zng thught it was his respnsibility (责任) t make sciety better. Due t his wn experiences f being pr, he understd and cared fr thse wh were less lucky. In 2020, Wahaha spent 942 millin yuan n building mre than 1, 360 apartments fr its wrkers in the Shangcheng district (区) f Hangzhu.
Thugh Zng is gne nw, his stries will cntinue t be a surce f inspiratin (激励的源泉) .
Fun and Fitness n Bikes
A cyclist dresses up during a 16-kilmeter bike ride in Mscw during the spring 2023 Velfest. Velfest is a big cycling activity in supprt f bike culture and healthy lifestyles. “Frget apples, riding’s a gd way t keep the dctr at bay (陷入困境).” Accrding t research frm the University f Nrth Carlina, peple wh cycle fr 30 minutes, five days a week take abut half as many sick days ff as thse wh d nt exercise.
______________________
Thanks t livestreaming (直播), peple can appreciate the scenery withut ging utdrs. Many famus cultural heritage (遗产) sites, are als explring new pssibilities. The villages have created an fficial livestreaming accunt n Tiktk in August 2023, “the ancient Hngcun Village in Yixian cunty, fr example, has attracted a huge ptential (潜在的) custmer base fr the years t cme.”
Travel Grup
It has becme the latest fashin amng Chinese cllege students wh spend as little mney as pssible traveling t as many places as they can during the weekend, seldm taking a break r even sleeping. “These yung travelers are less cncerned (关心，涉及) with deep experience and mre interested in checking ff ppular places.” “Such a trip can bring a different clr t my stressful life,” said Chen, a 24-year-ld university student. “and f curse it is nt suitable fr everyne”, she added.