2024年辽宁省大连市中考二模英语试题
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这是一份2024年辽宁省大连市中考二模英语试题,共8页。试卷主要包含了阅读理解,完形填空,语篇填空,阅读与表达,书面表达等内容,欢迎下载使用。
(本试卷共45小题 满分90分 考试时长90分钟)
考生注意:所有试题必须在答题卡指定区域内作答,在本试卷上作答无效
第一部分 选择题(共50 分)
一、阅读理解(共20小题,每小题2分;满分 40分)
第一节 阅读下面语言材料,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
1. When is Nttingham Schl Sprts Day?
A. On June 5. B. On Octber 9. C. On June 12. D. On Octber 16.
2. The schl has free picnic n the sprts day.
A. bags B. lunches C. baskets D. snacks
3. What sprts can the students chse t jin in?
① Basketball. ② Sccer. ③ Tennis. ④ Running. ⑤ Swimming.
A. ①②③⑤ B. ①②④⑤ C. ②③④⑤ D. ①②③④
4. The text is a .
A. letter B. reprt C. ntice D. stry
B
A student came t his teacher and asked him,“Sir., I have a questin. Hw many friends shuld a persn have — ne r many?”
“It is very simple,”the teacher answered.“Get me that red apple frm the highest branch (树枝) f the tree.”
The student lked up and said,“It's t high! I can't reach it.”
“Ask a friend. Maybe he can help,”the teacher suggested.
The student called anther student and std n hí s shulders t reach the branch.
“I still can't reach it, sir.”said the student sadly after the first try.
“Dn't yu have mre friends?”the teacher smiled.
The student asked mre friends t cme ver. They std n each ther's shulders,trying t make a human pyramid(金字塔). But the apple was s high that they culdn't g higher and the pyramid fell. The student still culdn’t reach the apple. Then ne f the friends went hme, brught a ladder(梯子) and the student finally picked the apple.
After getting the apple, the teacher asked,“S, d yu understand hw many friends a persn needs?”
“I d,”the student said.“Many, s tgether we can wrk ut any prblem.”
“Well,”the teacher said,“f curse yu need as many friends as yu can. Hwever,amng all f these friends there shuld be at least ne smart friend finding ut that yu needed a ladder!”
5. What is the student's questin?
A. Hw can we make friends?
B. Hw d we wrk tgether?
C. Hw many friends shuld ne have?
D. Hw many apples can each ne pick?
6. T answer the student's questin, the teacher .
A. gave a task B. set up a club
C. tld a stry D. made a speech
7. Hw did the student finally pick the apple?
A. By climbing the tree himself.
B. By making a human pyramid.
C. By using a ladder frm a friend.
D. By standing n a teacher's shulders.
8. What can we learn frm the lessn?
A. A friend is a secnd self.
B. The mre friends, the better.
C. A gd teacher is a gd friend.
D. Try t make mre smart friends.
c
“D yu knw where my father is?”Jady asked her friend Karen.“There,”Karen said,and pinted at Jady's father with her finger.
Jady turned t Karen and frwned(皱眉). Then she walked away. She didn't speak t Karen much fr the rest f the party. Karen culdn't understand what went wrng. That's because Karen frgt abut bdy language.
We all knw hw difficult it can be t speak t peple frm ther cultures. But there's als a language f mvement called bdy language. Fr Karen frm Canada, it was n prblem t pint at smene wh is lder than she is. But fr Jady, it was very rude.
Different cultures have many different rules abut bdy language. Kissing is ne imprtant example. In France and much f Eurpe, yu shuld kiss new friends n ne r bth cheeks(脸颊). But in India and much f the Middle East, a man kissing a wman in public wuld be shcking.
Think abut hw yu treat little children. In many parts f the wrld, peple ften pat(轻拍)children n the head. But that wuld be unacceptable in mst f Sutheast Asia.
When yu listen t a stry, d yu lk the stryteller in the eye? In the United States, yu shuld frm time t time. In the Middle East, it is nrmal t make eye cntact fr a lng perid f time. But in Japan and Krea, that wuld be rude.
Cmmunicatin desn't stp at ur muths. We use ur whle bdies t cmmunicate. Remember that there are as many rules fr bdy language as fr spken language.
9. Fr Jady, it was t pint at smene wh is lder.
A. rude B. plite
C. nice D. lucky
10. , yu shuld kiss new friends n ne r bth cheeks.
A. In India B. In France
B. In the Middle East D. In China
11. Which f the fllwing is similar in meaning t“make eye cntact”?
A. catch ne's eye
B. d eye exercises
C. lk smene in the eye
D. take care f ne's eyes
12. What is the passage mainly abut?
A. Rules fr spken language.
B. Ways f language learning.
C. Bdy language acrss cultures.
D. The imprtance f language.
D
Artificial intelligence (AI) can nw d amazing things. ChatGPT is an AI that can answer questins, tell stries, and d much mre. But it's very“thirsty”, said a new study.
When ChatGPT wrks, its“hme”— data (数据) centers arund the wrld —prduces a large amunt f heat. Just like when we run r d smething active, ur bdies get ht. The same happens t the cmputers in data centers. Wrkers then have t use water t cl them dwn. Cld water ges int pipes(管道) near the cmputers at these centers.Because the cmputers are very ht, the water turns int vapr(水蒸气) and ges int the air. The water needs t be super clean. If they use sea water, it can eat away the pipes.
If yu ask ChatGPT 20 t 50 questins, it needs t“drink”a 500-milliliter bttle f water. When scientists trained ChatGPT, it used 700,000 liters f water, said the study.This is the amunt that is needed t make abut 370 cars.
ChatGPT is nt the nly ne that needs data centers. Everything yu d n the Internet needs data centers t wrk. There are mre than 8,000 data centers in the wrld, said a reprt in 2021. Between 2022 and 2023, the number f super data centers increased by 30%,reaching a recrd 1400.
The number is still grwing. If AI keeps using a lt f water, we may have t“fight”with AI fr water.
13. What is used t cl dwn the cmputers?
A. Ht water. B. Waste water.
C. Sea water. D. Cld clean water.
14. What des Paragraph 3 mainly tell us?
A. AI can d a lt f things.
B. AI helps make lts f cars.
C. AI needs data centers t wrk.
D. AI uses a lt f water when wrking.
15. What can we infer(推断) frm the last paragraph?
A. Peple will be stpped frm wasting water.
B. AI will be replaced by ther new technlgy.
C. Data centers wn't need t be cled dwn any mre.
D. Peple shuld cntrl the number f data centers t save water.
16. Which f the fllwing wuld be the best title?
A. A new inventin B. A mre pwerful AI
C. Thirsty cmputers D. The histry f cmputers
第二节 阅读短文,从方框内所给的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项,其中有一个多余的选项。
INTERNATIONAL
DAY OF
HAPPINESS
Be happy!
If yu're happy and yu knw it, celebrate it n the Internatinal Day f Happiness n March 20th! And if yu're nt happy, here are sme quick ways t make yu feel happier:
Smile!
When yu're happy, yu smile. 17 Practice smiling even when yu dn't feel like it.
Exercise
Exercise isn't just gd fr yur bdy; it's als gd fr yur mind. It desn't matter what kind f exercise yu d, as lng as yu d it regularly (定期地). 18
Listen t music
Music is always a wnderful way t bring mre happiness int yur life! There are s many feel-gd sngs and playlists ut there, and they can surely make yu feel happier.
Enjy nature
19 A simple walk in the park, visiting a nearby twn, r even taking yur lunch break utside can wrk wnders(产生奇效).
20
When it cmes t being happy, yu have t surrund(环绕) yurself with things and peple that make yu feel gd. Fr example, if yu lve dancing, then just d that!
二、完形填空(共10 小题,每小题1分;满分10分)
阅读短文,理解其大意,从A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
N Service Means N Wrries
A cuple f mnths ag, my parents gave me a mbile phne as a gift. I kept my eyes fcused(聚焦) n its 21 all summer and frgt all arund me. S when my dad said“This year, we’ll 22 smething special. We’re ging camping!”I felt 23 .
It wasn't my dream vacatin. I kept 24 n the way. In fact, I was lst in the screen.When we drve acrss a bridge, I lked up 25 my phne n lnger had service.
“I’ve 26 a campsite(宿营地) withut mbile phne service,”my dad said,“and yur phne will be useless until we 27 hme.”That night, I went t bed angrily at the campsite. But when I wke up in the mrning and heard the birds singing, I felt czy(惬意的) and relaxed. I fund that the mre I let myself becme. a part f 28 , the mre I fcused n myself.
During thse fur days, I hiked, swam and fished. I saw the brightest stars and smelled the freshest air. My dad tld me stries f his life. .. Time passed s quickly that I didn't think f my 29 at all. Why wuld I? What culd be 30 than the mments I was sharing with my family and nature?
Ever since then, whenever I feel I need a break, I pack up my things and drive until my phne shws:“N service.”
21. A. screen B. size C. clr D. price
22. A. paint B. d C. plant D. read
23. A. busy B. silly C. disappinted D. lnely
24. A. silent B. clean C. healthy D. safe
25. A. if B. because C. althugh D. unless
26. A. visited B. invented C. missed D. chsen
27. A. walk B. return C. call D. leave
28. A. histry B. wrk C. life D. nature
29. A. bike B. class C. phne D. bk
30. A. taller B. heavier C. better D. luder
第二部分 非选择题(共 40分)
三、语篇填空(共10小题,每小题1分;满分10分)
阅读短文,在空白处填入一个适当的单词或用括号内所给词的正确形式填空,使短文通顺、连贯。
Girl cuts fr the gld
D yu like traditinal Chinese paper-cutting? Ding Xiang, a student at Nngsishi Middle Schl in Xinjiang, is really gd at it. At the 31 (eight) Natinal ExcellentTalents Cmpetitin last mnth in Beijing, the 15-year-ld girl gt the gld award fr her paper-cutting skills.
At the cmpetitin, Ding cut a piece: Millennium Dream (《千年梦想》). 32 piece has tw papers. One shws an ancient ca ve painting and the ther a Chinese-made spaceship.Ding said she wanted 33 (shw) three things with the piece: China's lng histry,China's rapid develpment: 34 her hpe fr the future f paper-cutting.
Ding 35 (begin) t learn paper-cutting in the first year f her middle schl. She started t becme mre and mre interested 36 it. The next year, she had 37 (much) schlwrk than befre, but she didn't give up .“I always find time fr practicing every day. If I dn't have time during the day, I must practice at night,”Ding said.“It was a very lng and hard time, but I enjyed 38 (my).”
All the hard wrk has paid ff. In tw years, Ding's 39 (skill) have imprved a lt, and she has the gld award t prve it.
Ding said she has learned a lt frm paper-cutting.“I have learned t bserve (观察)things 40 (careful),”Ding tld Yili Daily.“I have becme mre cnfident, t. It is a great help in my studies. Als, I have learned a lt f histry frm the art.”
四、阅读与表达(共4小题,41~43小题, 每小题2分,44 小题4分;满分10分)
阅读短文,然后根据内容回答问题。
Mars, Rbts, Higher Prices and Mre
What will the wrld lk like in 2045? I recently spke with fur American students,Caden Srensen, Chandler Stark, Fatima Abdi and Nelani Velasc Plley, t get their thughts n this questin.
In 2045, the kids think, humans will be able t live n Mars. They suggest that everyne shuld spend a few years n the red planet t give the Earth a“rest”.“And when we cme back, we must try nt t pllute as much,”says Stark.
But Mars is nt yet ready fr human habitatin (居住). The kids agree that immediate actin must be taken
t clean up the Earth.“It’s time t fix it nw,”says Srensen.“It’s nt ging t lix itself.”
The kids d nt just care abut prgress in space explratin. They are als interested in the future jbs.
Star k hpes t cmpse(创作) music fr TV shws ne day. Abdi wants t be a business wner. Srensen dreams abut becming a lawyer. Plley wants t be a scientist.
“I dn’ t think there will be a lt f fast-fd jbs,”said Abdi. She als thinks that everything is ging t get a lt mre expensive.“Peple will have t lk fr higher-paying jbs.”
Many jbs, the kids predict(预测), will be replaced by rbts.“There’ll be n mre factry jbs because rbts can just d everything,”says Stark. But they believe the pwer t shape the future is in human hands. The wrld will be a better place, but f curse,“we need t wrk hard, and we all need t learn t be kind t thers.”
41. In the kids’pinin, where will humans be able t live in 2045?
42. What is Srensen's idea abut the Earth?
43. Why des Star k say there will be n mre factry jbs?
44. What d yu think the wrld will lk like in 2045? Write 30 wrds r mre.
五、书面表达(满分 20分)
45.假如你是李辉,你校英语社团即将举办主题为“我为家乡代言”的短视频征集活动。请你用英语写一篇发言稿,为录制视频做准备。内容包括:
(1)介绍家乡;
(2)表达情感;
(3)表示欢迎。
注意:
(1)词数80~100,开头已给出,不计入总词数;
(2)可适当增加细节,以使行文连贯;
(3)发言稿中不能出现真实姓名及学校名称。
Hell, everyne! I'm Li Hui. I cme frm
2024 年大连市初中学业水平考试模拟考试
英语评分参考
第一部分 选择题 (共50分)
一、阅读理解(共20小题,每小题2分;满分40分)
1-4 ABDC 5-8CACD 9-12 ABCC 13-16 DDDC 17-20DECA
二、完形填空(共10小题,每小题1分;满分10分)
21-25 ABCAB 26-30DBDCC
第二部分 非选择题 (共40分)
三、语篇填空(共10小题,每小题1分;满分10分)
31. Eighth 32. The 33. t shw 34. and 35. began
36. in 37. mre 38. myself 39. skills 40. carefully
四、阅读与表达(共4小题, 41~43小题, 每小题2分, 44小题4分; 满分10分)
41. On Mars.
42. It's time t fix it nw. It's nt ging t fix itself.
43. Because rbts can d everything.
44. One Pssible Versin:
I think the Earth will be a greener place t live. Humans care mre abut the envirnmental prtectin. Mre trees will be planted arund buildings. There will be less pllutin. Waste will be given a secnd life.
五、书面表达 (满分20分) (略)
A. D what yu lve!
B. Be ready t help thers!
C. If yu're feeling dwn, spending time utdrs is always a gd idea.
D. But believe it r nt, when yu smile, it als makes yu happy.
E. Try ging fr a walk, dancing in yur bedrm, r running with yur dg.
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