河北省张家口市宣化区2023-2024学年七年级下学期期中阶段性检测英语试题

这是一份河北省张家口市宣化区2023-2024学年七年级下学期期中阶段性检测英语试题，共8页。试卷主要包含了 A等内容，欢迎下载使用。
（考试时间为90分钟，满分为100分）
听力部分（20分）
Ⅰ.听句子，选出句子中所包含的信息（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
（ ）1. A. waterB. villageC. bridge
（ ）2. A. get tB. talk tC. listen t
（ ）3. A. playing the pianB. playing the guitarC. playing the vilin
（ ）4. A. Tm exercises every day.
B. Tm has n time t exercise.
C. Tm desn’t exercise at night.
（ ）5. A. Yu can’t eat r drink in the library.
B. Yu can eat and drink in the library.
C. Yu can’t eat but yu can drink in the library.
Ⅱ.听句子，选出该句的最佳答语（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
（ ）6. A. N, I dn’t.B. Yes, I d.C. Yes, I can.
（ ）7. A. I’m playing.B. She is watching TV.C. She’s in the kitchen.
（ ）8. A. I’m fine.B. Thank yu.C. Gdbye.
（ ）9. A. That’s imprtant.B. Sunds gd.C. I’m srry.
（ ）10. A. They’re frm Africa.B. In China.C. English.
Ⅲ.听对话和问题，选择正确答案（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
（ ）11. What time is Mlly’s drum class?
A. B. C.
（ ）12. What club can Dave jin?
A. B. C.
（ ）13. Hw ld is the panda?
A. 12 years ld.B. 20 years ld.C. 22 years ld.
（ ）14. What subject is difficult fr Peter?
A. English.B. Science.C. Math.
（ ）15. Hw are Julie’s grandparents cming?
A. By train.B. By car.C. By subway.
Ⅳ.听短文填空（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
笔试部分（80分）
Ⅴ.完形填空（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从每小题所给的四个选项中选出最佳选项。
It’s Tina’s fifth day in the new schl. 21 teachers and classmates are nice. She is gd at her schl 22 . Everything is OK.
“Our daughter 23 very happy these days. I hpe she can 24 sme new friends,” Tina’s mm says t her dad. “ 25 Tina is nt happy tday,” Dad says. Then he cmes t Tina’s rm t ask 26 .
Tina likes t talk with her dad. She says, “There are three 27 in my new schl. They are the music club, the 28 club and the art club. Mrs. Li says we can 29 the clubs. Many 30 in my class jin different (不同的) clubs, but I can’t sing. I can’t swim. And I’m nt 31 drawing.”
Tina’s dad says, My girl, dn’t lse heart (不要灰心). Yur mm and I think yu are gd. Yu are gd at 32 chess. Yu always help yur mm 33 husewrk (家务事). Yu like t play with yur little sister when yu are 34 . Yu tell 35 t the ld peple when yu g t the ld peple’s hme n weekends…”
Nw Tina is happy.
（ ）21. A. MyB. HisC. YurD. Her
（ ）22. A. friendsB. subjectsC. playersD. shws
（ ）23. A. lksB. tastesC. sundsD. smells
（ ）24. A. callB. makeC. talkD. bring
（ ）25. A. SB. BecauseC. ButD. And
（ ）26. A. whenB. whereC. whyD. hw
（ ）27. A. classrmsB. clubsC. librariesD. stres
（ ）28. A. EnglishB. sccerC. swimmingD. dance
（ ）29. A. jinB. findC. takeD. sell
（ ）30. A. sistersB. cusinsC. teachersD. students
（ ）31. A. gd withB. gd atC. busy withD. gd fr
（ ）32. A. watchingB. buyingC. playingD. speaking
（ ）33. A. frmB. withC. fD. abut
（ ）34. A. busyB. niceC. welcmeD. free
（ ）35. A. striesB. baseballsC. guitarsD. pians
Ⅵ.词语运用（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入一个适当的单词（有提示词的，填入所给单词的正确形式）。
D yu like t g t the z? Here are sme 36. __________(rule) yu shuld (应该) knw. They are very 37. __________ (use).
Use 38. __________ map t visit the z
Yu dn’t want t miss (错过) any animal shw, right? A map f the z can help yu never get 39. __________ (lse). It 40. __________ (tell) yu the right way.
Dn’t take fd t the z
The wrkers in the z feed (喂) animals 41. __________ time every day. The animals are nt hungry(饿的), 42. __________ they dn’t need mre fd frm yu.
Dn’t 43. __________ (be) nisy at the z
Many animals dn’t like the nise. And dn’t ask 44. __________ (they) t give shws t yu.
Learn abut animals frm the wrkers
The wrkers in the z knw the animals very well. When yu have questins abut the animals, yu need t ask them 45. __________ (ne). They are usually happy t tell yu.
Ⅶ.阅读理解（共10小题；每小题2分，满分20分）
阅读A、B、C三篇材料，从每小题所给的四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Here are sme f Sam’s activities (活动) in the fur days f a hliday.
（ ）46. Bill is Sam’s __________.
A. friendB. cusinC. classmateD. brther
（ ）47. Sam helps at the ld peple’s hme fr __________.
A. half an hurB. tw hurs
C. tw hurs and a halfD. three hurs
（ ）48. Which f the fllwing is NOT TRUE?
A. Sam can play basketball.
B. Sam cleans his rm n Sunday.
C. Sam wants t buy a guitar fr Bill.
D. Sam ges t bed at 9: 00 p. m. n Wednesday.
B
Hw much d yu knw abut Kunqu Opera (昆曲)? It is frm Kunshan, Jiangsu. It has a histry f ver 600 years. Many peple like Kunqu because f its beautiful sngs. Usually, it needs the sanxian, the qudi and sme ther instruments(乐器) t help the singer t sing. Then, what will it be like when the ld art meets mdern (现代的) music?
49-year-ld Zhang Jun is a great Kunqu artist. He is the head teacher f an pera schl in Shanghai. On April 14th and 15th, 2023, Zhang had a new music shw in Shanghai. Frm 7: 00 t 8: 30 every evening, the shw was very welcme.
“I ask my music friends t cme t the shw and play music with them. I sing Kunqu Opera. They play the guitar, the vilin and s n. A Pingtan artist and a rapper (说唱歌手) als cme,” Zhang said.
Zhang started studying Kunqu at the age f 12. He has a great lve fr it. “I cmbine (结合) Kunqu with ther music. It can bring new life t this ld pera,” he said. “And in this way, I hpe mre yung peple will like it.”
（ ）49. What d we knw abut Kunqu Opera?
A. It cmes frm Shanghai.B. It has a lng histry.
C. Yung peple dn’t like it.D. Few peple study it nw.
（ ）50. Why did Zhang Jun have the music shw?
A. T shw his great lve fr Kunqu Opera.
B. T have the party with his music friends.
C. T let mre yung peple like Kunqu Opera.
D. T teach his student a new kind f music.
C
It’s half past three in the afternn. Let’s see what the students and teachers are ding in N. One Middle Schl.
The students are having a break. Many students are playing sprts n the playgrund.
Lk! Li Lei is playing basketball with his classmates. Sme girls are watching them playing. They lk very happy. Li Lei likes playing basketball. He thinks it’s interesting fr him t play it. And he is gd at it. He is in the schl basketball club. And he ften teaches his classmates t play basketball. Liu Daming likes sccer. He thinks playing sccer is relaxing. Nw he is practicing playing sccer with his friends. He is running with the ball. Next week, they will have a sccer game, s they practice hard these days. Sme students are taking a walk n the playgrund. They are walking and talking happily. Sme students are in the classrm. They are talking abut their studies. The girl in red is very happy. And she is reading a strybk.
What abut the teachers? Sme f them are wrking in the ffice. And sme are talk-ing with their students. They are really nice teachers.
（ ）51. It’s __________ nw.
A. 3: 30 a. m.B. 3: 30 p. m.C. 3: 00 p. m.D. 3: 13 p. m.
（ ）52. __________ ften teaches his classmates t play basketball.
A. Li LeiB. The P. E. teacher
C. Liu DamingD. Li Lei and Liu Daming
（ ）53. What des Liu Daming think f playing sccer?
A. Exciting.B. Interesting.C. Happy.D. Relaxing.
（ ）54. Accrding t the passage, we knw that __________.
①The girl in red is very happy.
②Sme teachers are playing basketball.
③The teachers are free when the students are n the playgrund.
④Li Lei can play basketball well.
A.③④B.①②C.①④D.②③
（ ）55. What is the best title f the passage?
A. Students’Activities In N. One Middle Schl
B. Happy Schl Life In N. One Middle Schl
C. Nice Teachers In N. One Middle Schl
D. The Break Time In N. One Middle Schl
Ⅷ.任务型阅读（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
阅读下面短文，按要求完成56~60题。
On a muntain rad (山路) in Manjiang, Guangxi, yu can meet 12 students every week. These students are frm 7 t 12 years ld.
They walk t their schl. The schl is far frm their hmes. They need t walk fr abut ne hur t get t schl. Deng Aifen, ne f the students, says, “We can take a bus, but it csts(花费) 10 yuan. S we walk.” On Friday afternn, they g hme n ft.
On schldays, they live in the schl. At 4: 00 p. m., there is a reading class fr them. After the class, sme students g t the library and sme play ftball.
“We’re happy at schl,” a by says. “We have nice dinner here. And we can learn a lt. I want t be a teacher.” Fr these students, the rad t schl is lng. But they g t schl every week t learn and t see a great wrld (世界) frm bks.
56、57题完成句子; 58~60题简略回答问题。
56. The 12 students g t schl ____________________.
57. It takes these students ____________________ t get t schl.
58. When d these students g hme?
____________________________________________________________________________________________
59. What d these students d after the reading class?
____________________________________________________________________________________________
60. D yu want t be a teacher? Why r why nt?
____________________________________________________________________________________________
Ⅸ.补全对话（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
根据上下文提示，在横线上填入合适的句子补全对话。
A: Hell, Jack! 61. ____________________?
B: I’m watching Man And Nature with my cusin.
A: Really? 62. ____________________?
B: En…I think it’s interesting. I like all the animals.
A: Oh. I like animals, t. 63. ____________________. OK?
B: G t the z n the weekend? Sunds gd! 64. ____________________?
A: By bike.
B: Oh, n, n! It’s a little far.
A: 65. ____________________?
B: That sunds great! It’s really a gd idea. When will we meet at the bus stp?
A: At nine ’clck.
B: OK! See yu at nine!
A: See yu then!
X.书面表达（满分15分）
66.假如你是李明，最近你刚交了一位英国笔友Kate，今天你想发邮件告诉她你的日常生活情况。请你根据下面提示内容写一封邮件，向笔友作简要介绍。
要求：1.包含所给信息，可适当发挥；
2.条理清晰，语句通顺，语法正确，书写规范；
3.词数60个左右（邮件的格式已给出，不计入总词数）。
Dear Kate,
Hw are yu? Let me tell yu smething abut my everyday life.
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Yurs,
Li Ming
宣化区2023—2024学年度第二学期阶段性检测
七年级英语试卷参考答案
Ⅰ.听句子，选出句子中所包含的信息（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
1—5 CBACA
Ⅱ.听句子，选出该句的最佳答语（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
6—10 CBBCA
Ⅲ.听对话和问题，选择正确答案（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
11—15 BCACB
Ⅳ.听短文填空（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
16. having 17. thirty 18. symbl 19. musician 20. Australia
Ⅴ. 完型填空 (共15题；每小题1分，满分15分)
21—25 DBABC 26—30 CBCAD 31—35 BCBDA
Ⅵ.词语运用（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
36. rules 37. useful 38. a 39. lst 40. tells
41. n 42. s 43. be 44. them 45. first
Ⅶ.阅读理解（共10小题；每小题2分，满分20分）
46—48 ADC 49—50 BC 51—55 BADCD
Ⅷ.任务型阅读（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
56. n ft
57. abut ne hur
58. On Friday afternn.
59. Sme students g t the library and sme play ftball.
60. Yes, I d. Because……
N, I dn’t. Because……
Ⅸ.补全对话（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
61. What are yu ding nw
62. Hw is it/ What d yu think f it / Hw d yu like it
63. Let’s g t the z this weekend / Let’s g t the z n the weekend
64. Hw can we get t the z / Hw are we ging there
65. Hw (What) abut taking a bus / Why nt take a bus/ Shall we take a bus
Ⅹ.书面表达（满分15分）
66. One pssible versin:
Dear Kate,
Hw are yu? Let me tell yu smething abut my everyday life.
I’m usually busy n schldays. I have t get up at 6:30. I lve riding t schl because I think it’s gd exercise. Our classes are frm 8:00 am t 5:30 pm. Math is my favrite subject. At nn, I have ne hur fr lunch. I’m in Kung Fu Club. S after schl, I usually g there. Mr. Liu is ur teacher and he is really gd at ding Kung Fu. It’s interesting fr me t learn t d Kung Fu frm him. When I get hme, it is usually 6:50. On weekends, I always finish my hmewrk first. After that, I either g swimming r play the vilin. They are great fun! I als like reading befre ging t bed.
What is yur everyday life like? Please write and tell me.
Yurs,
Li Ming题号
听力部分
笔试部分
总分
Ⅰ
Ⅱ
Ⅲ
Ⅳ
Ⅴ
Ⅵ
Ⅶ
Ⅷ
Ⅸ
Ⅹ
得分
Infrmatin Sheet
16. The Green family are __________ a trip in Beijing nw.
17. They will stay in China fr __________ days.
18. The Great Wall is the __________ f China.
19. Mrs. Green is a __________.
20. When they g back t __________, they will shw the phts t their friends.
Day
Activities
Sunday
8: 30 a. m.: get up and have sme bread fr breakfast
10:00 a. m. —11: 30 a. m.: clean his rm and watch TV at hme
4:00 p. m. —4: 40 p. m.: buy a guitar fr his cusin Henry’s birthday
Mnday
9:00 a. m. —11: 00 a. m.: d hmewrk at his grandparents’ hme
2:00 p. m. —4: 00 p. m.: have a pian lessn
6:00 p. m.: have sme salad and hamburgers with his brther
Tuesday
8: 30 a. m.: clean his rm
9:00 a. m. —11: 40 a. m.: read bks in the library
4:00 p. m. —5: 30 p. m.: play basketball with his friend Bill
Wednesday
9: 00 a. m. —11: 00 a. m.: d hmewrk at hme
3: 00 p. m. —6: 00 p. m.: help at the ld peple’s hme
7: 00 p. m. —8: 00 p. m.: play the pian
9: 00 p. m.: g t bed