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广东省江门市开平市2022-2023学年八年级下学期期末英语试题（含听力）
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这是一份广东省江门市开平市2022-2023学年八年级下学期期末英语试题（含听力），共10页。试卷主要包含了考生务必保持答题卡整洁， B等内容，欢迎下载使用。
说明：1.本试卷共10页，满分120分，考试用时90分钟。
2.答卷前，考生务必用黑色字迹的签字笔或钢笔在答题卡填写自己的准考证号、姓名、考场号、考生号等，用2B铅笔把对应号码的标号涂黑。
3.选择题每小题选出答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目选项的答案信息点涂黑，如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案，答案不能答在试卷上。
4.非选择题必须用黑色字迹钢笔或签字笔作答，答案必须写在答题卡各题目指定区域内相应位置上；如需改动，先划掉原来的答案，然后再写上新的答案；不准使用铅笔和涂改液。不按以上要求作答的答案无效。
5.考生务必保持答题卡整洁。考试结束后，将答题卡交回。
一、听说应用（本大题共30小题，每小题1分，共30分；A、B、C、D部分为听力理解，E部分为情景对话）
A.听句子（本题有5 小题，每小题1分，共5分）
请根据所听内容，选择符合题意的图画回答问题，并将答题卡上对应题目所选的选项涂黑。每个句子听两遍。
1. Where will Mr. Smith g this winter hliday?
A. B. C.
2. Hw did Jack celebrate his birthday?
A. B. C.
3. Wh des David ften ask fr help when in truble?
A. B. C.
4. What sprt is Helen gd at?
A. B. C.
5. Which sign is the speaker talking abut?
A. B. C.
B.听对话（本题共10小题，每小题1分，共10分）
请根据每段对话的内容回答问题，从每小题所给的三个选项中选出一个最佳答案，并将答题卡上对应题目所选的选项涂黑。每段对话听两遍。
听第一段对话，回答第6小题。
6. Hw ften des Tina use Tik Tk?
A. Often. B. Seldm. C. Never.
听第二段对话，回答第7小题。
7. What time will the meeting begin?
A. At 7: 30. B. At 8: 00. C. At 8: 30.
听第三段对话，回答第8小题。
8. What will the weather be like tmrrw?
A. Sunny. B. Rainy. C. Snwy.
听第四段对话，回答第9小题。
9. Hw far is the City Library frm here?
A. 10 minutes’ walk. B.30 minutes’ ride. C.30 minutes’ walk.
听第五段对话，回答第10小题。
10. What kind f music d Bb’s parents like?
A. Pp music. B. Classical music. C. Rck music.
听第六段对话，回答第11—12小题。
11. Hw many languages can Tny speak?
A. Tw, B. Three. C. Fur.
12. Hw did Tny learn Chinese?
A. By reading Chinese bks.
B. By watching Chinese films.
C. By speaking Chinese with his classmates.
听第七段对话，回答第13—15小题。
13. Why des Ted’s mther like Matthew?
A. Because he’s interesting. B. Because he’s large. C. Because he’s nice.
14. Hw ld is Matthew?
A. One year ld. B. Tw years ld. C. Three years ld.
15. What des Ted have?
A. Apples. B. Bread. C. Hamburgers.
C.听短文（本题共5小题。每小题1分，共5分）
请根据所听内容，从每小题所给的三个选项中选出一个最佳答案，并将答题卡上对应题目所选的选项涂黑。短文听两遍。
16. Hw lng is the histry f kites in China?
A. Over 20 years. B. Over 200 years. C. Over 2,000 years.
17. What are the pictures n the kites?
A. Sme ppular stars.
B. Sme beautiful flwers.
C. Sme animals and characters.
18. What did peple use kites t d at first?
A. T relax. B. T exercise. C. T send messages.
19. When is the Internatinal Kite Festival in Weifang?
A. In April. B. In May. C. In June.
20. Why are kites s ppular amng peple?
A. Because kites bring peple fun.
B. Because kites carry peple’s wishes.
C. Bth A and B.
D.听填信息（本题共5 小题，每小题1分，共5分）
你将听到的是一则关于遇到困难如何求助的调研报告。请你根据所听内容填写下面的信息卡。报告听两遍。
E.情景对话（本题共5 小题，每小题1分，共5分）
请通读下面对话，根据对话内容，从方框内的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，并将答题卡上对应题目所选的选项涂黑，选项中有一项为多余选项。
Tny: Hey, Daming! Hw was yur winter hliday?
Daming: 26 I went t Guangzhu.
Tny: 27
Daming: Well, it’s in the suth f China, near Hng Kng. It’s an ld city with a histry f ver 2,000 years.
Tny: 28
Damig: Of curse. And it’s as busy as Hng Kng.
Tny: 29
Daming: It’s ver eighteen millin. And the sights there are als very great.
Tny: I’d like t visit Guangzhu ne day.
Daming: 30 It’s the secnd tallest building in the wrld.
Tny: OK, I wn’t miss it when I visit Guangzhu. Thanks.
二、语法选择（本大题共10小题，每小题1分，共10分）
请通读下面短文，掌握其大意，根据语法和上下文连贯的要求，从每小题所给的三个选项中选出一个最佳答案，并将答题卡上对应题目所选的选项涂黑。
In the middle f a dark frest, there lived an ld wl（猫头鹰）. All the animals thught that he was 31 f them, s they ften tld their prblems t him. And the wl always tld them 32 they shuld d.
One day, a crying little bird went up t the wl. “What’s the matter 33 yu?” asked the wl.
“I’m nt happy at all. I dn’t want t be 34 bird,” the bird said. “Why?” asked the wl.
“I am s small, weak and useless,” she said, “I hpe 35 big and strng like the lin. He is very imprtant but I am nt.” Then the wl said smething in her ear 36 . At nce the bird dried her eyes and went away. Three 37 later, the bird came back. “Oh, thank yu fr telling me the idea. Yu are a very smart wl,” she said t the wl, “I am very happy nw. Every day I sit n the tp f the tallest tree 38 watch fr lins and tigers. When they cme near, I shut at the tp f my vice. Then all my friends run and hide. They thank 39 very much. I am useful and imprtant nw.”
The smart wl 40 and said, “N ne in this wrld is useless. If yu think yu are useless, yu are just nt ding the right thing.”
31. A. smart B. smarter C. the smartest
32. A. where B. when C. what
33. A. with B. fr C. n
34. A. an B. a C. the
35. A. be B. being C. t be
36. A. quiet. B. quietly C. quietness
37. A. week B. weeks C. weeks’
38. A. and B. but C. r
39. A. myself B. me C. I
40. A. has smiled B. is smiling C. smiled
三、完形填空（本大题共10小题，每小题1分，共10分）
请通读下面短文，掌握其大意，然后在每小题所给的四个选项中选出一个最佳答案，并将答题卡上对应题目所选的选项涂黑。
15-year-ld Jim was always asking his parents fr an iPhne all year. S n Christmas mrning he was very 41 t find ne under the Christmas tree. His mther 42 a message fr him in a card: “Merry Christmas! It’s yur dream present, right? Wait! If yu want it, yu have t fllw my 43 .”
The first rule n his mther’s list: “I bught this 44 s it is mine. Nw, I am lending it t yu.” Then it read, “Remember: If yu 45 any f the rules, I’ll get it back.”
“If it rings, 46 it,” said Rule Three. “It’s a phne. Dn’t miss a phne call, 47 when the screen reads ‘Mum’ r ‘Dad’”.
Rule Fur: “It’s nt plite t use the phne t fl thers. Yu are nt a 48 persn and d nt let the iPhne change that.”
“Try nt t take t many phts. There is n 49 t recrd everything. Keep yur eyes up. See what’s happening arund yu. Listen t the birds. Talk t a stranger. The experiences will 50 in
yur mind.
At last, it read, “Mst f these rules listed here are nt nly fr the iPhne, but als fr life. I lve yu. I hpe yu’ll enjy yur new iPhne.”
41. A. wrried B. bred C. excited D. relaxed
42. A. wrte dwn B. put away C. read ut D. handed in
43. A. tasks B. lessns C. ways D. rules
44. A. bike B. phne C. televisin D. camera
45. A. break B. fllw C. keep D. lse
46. A. drp B. stp C. answer D. refuse
47. A. quickly B. carefully C. suddenly D. especially
48. A. rude B. fl C. handsme D. helpful
49. A. prblem B. need C. idea D. sign
50. A. pass B. rest C. stay D. send
四、阅读理解（本大题共15小题，每小题2分，共30分）
请阅读A、B两篇短文，从每小题所给的四个选项中选出能回答所提问题或完成所给句子的最佳答案，并将答题卡上对应题目所选的选项涂黑。
A
51. When did paper cutting start t spread t ther cuntries?
A. In the 6th century. B. In the 7th century.
C. In the 13th century. D. In the 14th century.
52. What clr paper is usually used in tday’s paper cutting?
A. Red paper. B. Yellw paper.
C. Blue paper. D. Orange paper.
53. Hw d peple put up “Fu” n the wall accrding t the passage?
A. B. C. D.
54. Peple use “Shu” at a birthday party fr the ld t ________.
A. wish fr wealth B. wish fr health
C. wish fr new life D. wish fr lng life
55. Where’s the passage prbably frm?
A. A stry bk. B. A dictinary.
C. A guide bk. D. A magazine.
B
In summer, swimming is ne f the best ways t cl ff n a ht day. Swimming is a great exercise, and a trip t a pl r beach is a gd way t have fun with friends. But swimming can als be dangerus, s it’s imprtant t stay safe as yu d it. Here are a few things yu can d t swim safely.
Swim nly in areas set fr swimming. Dn’t swim unless there is a lifeguard n duty. If yu’re n a beach near the cean, this is especially imprtant. In sme places, fast currents（急流）can sweep swimmers away withut warning. S if a sign says “N swimming”, please stp and leave.
Be careful when jumping int the water. Mst pls have signs t tell yu hw deep it is. In natural water, dn’t jump unless yu knw that the water is deep enugh. Or yu culd hit yur leg n the bttm.
Make sure yu have a partner with yu. Nbdy knws what will happen while yu are swimming. If smething ges wrng, yu can get help frm that persn as sn as pssible. Anyway, a few secnds can make a big difference.
Pay clse attentin t children’s safety. Kids wh dn’t knw hw t swim shuld wear life jackets. But by themselves they are nt enugh, s an adult shuld always be present. If yu have a pl at hme, put a fence（围栏）arund it s that children wn’t fall in. And if yu can’t find a child, check the pl first.
56. What is the writing purpse f Paragraph 1?
A. T tell a stry. B. T answer a questin.
C. T lead t the tpic. D. T intrduce an exercise.
57. What des the underlined wrd “lifeguard” in Paragraph 2mean?
A. Directr. B. Lifesaver.
C. Swimming lver. D. Dctr.
58. Wh can yu get help frm if smething ges wrng while swimming?
A. A stranger. B. Yur parents.
C. Yur teacher. D. Yur partner.
59. What can we knw abut kids’ swimming safety frm the passage?
A. Kids ften fall in the pls at hme.
B. Kids shuld g swimming with adults.
C. It’s safe fr kids t swim in the pl at hme.
D. Children’s safety can depend n a life jacket.
60. Which can be the best title fr the passage?
A. Hw t Swim Safely B. Hw t Swim Well
C. Where t Spend a Ht Summer. D. Where t Have Fun with Friends
C
配对阅读。左栏是对于维持友谊的五个建议，右栏是针对不同建议举出的七个例子，请将二者进行匹配，并将其字母编号写在题号前的括号内。
五、短文填空（本大题共10小题，每小题1.5分，共15分）
请阅读下面短文，在所给的每个空格中填入一个形式正确、意义相符的单词，并将答案写在答题卡对应题目的答题位置上。
I had a summer camp with my classmates last year.
Early in the mrning we met 66 the bus statin. After saying gdbye t ur parents, we gt n the bus. It 67 us mre than tw hurs t arrive at the campgrund（露营地）.
We gt ff the bus happily, laughing and shuting. We jumped and ran all ver the place. It was the first time fr us t be away frm parents. Sme f 68 started t feel hmesick（想家的）. 69 , when the night party and dances began, the hmesickness was gne.
The next day, everybdy went t the bating cmpetitin. We all hped t win the first 70. At first, my friends and I wrked 71 , but the bat wuldn’t listen t us and kept ging rund and rund. Then the teacher 72 us hw t wrk tgether. After many tries, we did much better. Swimming class was my favurite. It was abut the httest time f a day 73 the best time t stay in the cl water. The swimming teacher was a 74 man, and during the class he ften made us laugh happily. During the week I learned a lt f new things and made many new 75 . I als learned hw t take care f myself.
六、读写综合（本大题分为A、B两部分，共25分）
A.回答问题（本题共5 小题，每小题2分，共10分）
请阅读下面短文，根据所提供的信息，回答5个问题。要求所写答案语法正确、语义完整切题，并把答案写在答题卡对应题目的答题位置上。
76. When did the writer made the game?
77. Where d they usually play the game?
78. What des the writer write n the squares?
79. Wh likes t d the game every mrning?
80. Why des the writer recmmend（推荐）the game?
B.书面表达（本题15分）
请根据要求完成短文写作，并将作文写在答题卡对应题目的答题位置上。
81.新课程标准要求中小学生掌握“家庭清洁、烹饪、家用器具使用与维护”等基本的家务技能，校报的英文栏目举行了这一主题的征文活动。假设你是李华，请你用英语写一篇短文投稿，内容包括：
（1）中学生做家务的好处（至少两点）；
（2）简述一次你做家务的经历和感受；
（3）呼吁中学生积极做家务。
作文要求：
（1）不能照抄原文；不得在作文中出现学校的真实名称和考生的真实姓名。
（2）语句连贯，词数80左右。作文的开头已经给出，不计入总词数，也不必抄写在答题卡上。
It’s imprtant fr students t learn basic husewrk skills. _________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
开平市2022-2023学年度第二学期期末质量检测
八年级英语科参考答案
听说应用（本大题包括A、B、C、D、E五个部分，共30分）
1-5 CBBAC6-10 BCBCB11-15 CCABC16-20 CCCAC
21. Thursday22. classmates23. rich24. 15%
25. help
26-30 ADFEB
二、语法选择（本大题有10 小题，每小题1分，共10分）
31-35 CCABC36-40 BBABC
三、完形填空（本大题10小题，每小题1分，共10分）
41-45 CADBA46-50 CDABC
四、阅读理解（本大题有15小题，每小题2分，共30分）
51-55 DABDD 56-60 CBDBA61-65 BCAFE
五、短文填空（本大题有10小题，每小题1.5分，共15分）
所填的词不符合短文的逻辑不给分，单词拼写错误不给分，大小写或形式错误每个扣0.5分。
66. at 67. tk 68. us 69. Hwever 70. prize 71. hard
72. taught 73. but 74. funny/humrus 75. friends
六、读写综合（本大题分为A、B两部分， 共25分）
A.回答问题。（本题有5小题，每小题2分，共10分）
76. She made the game a year ag.
77. They usually play the game in the kitchen.
78. She writes different husewrk n each square.
79. The writer’s sn likes t d the game every mrning.
80. Because it’s really a gd way t make children d husewrk.
B.书面表达（本题15分）（答案仅供参考）
It’s imprtant fr students t learn husewrk skills. If we knw hw t d basic husewrk, such as cking and cleaning, we can take care f urselves. Besides, we are able t lk after thers, and it will make us happier.
I still remember I started cking when my parents went n business three years ag, I burnt the rice at first but I failed. I learned frm the mistake. After trying several times, I cked well. Nw cking has becme my hbby. I ften ck fr the whle family. It makes my family s prud f me. I am nw an independent girl.
Life is a jurney. Let’s lean sme basic husehld skills t enjy the jurney well.（111w）A Survey Reprt
Time: Last 21
Tpic: Wh d yu g t when yu are in truble?
Results:
50% will g t their 22 r friends.
30% will tell teachers r parents wh have 23 experience.
24 will try t slve the prblems by themselves.
The rest will ask their nline friends fr 25 .
A. Pretty gd!
B. Remember t visit the Cantn Twer.
C. Welcme back t schl!
D. Where’s Guangzhu?
E. What’s the ppulatin f Guangzhu?
F. Ww, it’s much lder than Hng Kng.
Paper cutting is ne f the mst ppular decrative Chinese handicrafts. It started in the 6th century. Frm the 7th t 13th century, paper cutting became ppular especially during Chinese festivals. The art began t spread t the rest f the wrld in the 14th century.
*Use f paper cutting
In the past, peple cut papers int animals r peple. They either buried（埋葬）them with the dead r burned them n the funerals（葬礼）, wishing that things that paper std fr culd be with the dead.
Tday, they are usually made f red paper, used as decratins n walls, windws, drs and s n in sme festive（喜庆的）things.
*Meaning f paper cutting
Wishes and hpes fr wealth, health and lng life are expressed thrugh paper cuttings.
Fr example, during the Chinese New Year, the character “Fu” is put up upside dwn n the dr t express peple’s wishes fr the cming gd luck.
At a wedding ceremny（婚礼）, a red paper cutting with the character “Xi” is a traditinal and necessary decratin. It shws peple’s wishes fr the new cuple.
At a birthday party f an ld persn, paper cuttings with the character “Shu” are ften seen. Thrugh this character, peple wish the ld persn t have a lng life.
61. Tell them that yu are thankful t them. Friends als need t say thanks t each ther.
62. Offer yur help. If yur friend is ging thrugh a hard time, tell him that yu can ffer help.
63. Ask yur friends fr advice. It will shw that yu need their pinins.
64. Call them nw and then. Chse a fixed time t talk, such as a weekly phne date.
65. Be hnest with yur friends. If yur friends can trust yu, they will be mre pen and hnest with yu.
A. Yu culd ask fr advice abut smething fun, such as what kind f clthes t buy. Yu culd say, “Yu knw s much abut fashin. Can yu help me chse a dress?”
B. Yu can smetimes express yur thanks by saying smething like, “I really culdn’t finish it withut yu. I am happy that yu are here fr me.”
C. Fr example, yu culd say smething like, “I heard yu failed yur exam. Is there anything I can d t help?”
D. If yur friend visit yur huse, try t make them cmfrtable. Yu can say smething like, “Help yurself. I am happy fr yur visit.”
E. When yu want t say smething hnestly, make sure nt t hurt yur friend’s feelings. Yu can say, “I knw red is yur favrite clr, but that yellw dress lked really gd n yu.
F. Yu can ask questins like “Hw’s schl ging?” When yu call, plan t have a lnger and deeper talk.
G. T encurage yur friend, yu can say smething like, “Yu are really gd at dancing! Gd jb!”
Husewrk was nt ppular at my huse. My children didn’t like t d it. They always saw me d husewrk, but they hardly ever helped me d it. As a mther, this was nt what I wanted. S a year ag, I made a game called “The Endless Husewrk Game”. Everything has changed since then. Here’s hw the game wrks.
We usually d it in the kitchen. T d the game, I need t get a dice（骰子）and make a card with frty squares（方框）. Firstly, I write different husewrk n each square. The husewrk can be easy and interesting like making dessert. Then my family rll the dice t decide what husewrk we have t d. The card als has a few squares with fun things, like watching TV and singing. If yu are lucky, yu can watch TV when the thers are ding the husewrk.
My sn likes the game very much. He ges t the kitchen happily every mrning t d the game. Alng with such an exciting game, husewrk is n lnger a prblem fr him. Yu can have a try if yu have the same prblem with me. It is really a gd way t make children d husewrk.
说明：1.本试卷共10页，满分120分，考试用时90分钟。
2.答卷前，考生务必用黑色字迹的签字笔或钢笔在答题卡填写自己的准考证号、姓名、考场号、考生号等，用2B铅笔把对应号码的标号涂黑。
3.选择题每小题选出答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目选项的答案信息点涂黑，如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案，答案不能答在试卷上。
4.非选择题必须用黑色字迹钢笔或签字笔作答，答案必须写在答题卡各题目指定区域内相应位置上；如需改动，先划掉原来的答案，然后再写上新的答案；不准使用铅笔和涂改液。不按以上要求作答的答案无效。
5.考生务必保持答题卡整洁。考试结束后，将答题卡交回。
一、听说应用（本大题共30小题，每小题1分，共30分；A、B、C、D部分为听力理解，E部分为情景对话）
A.听句子（本题有5 小题，每小题1分，共5分）
请根据所听内容，选择符合题意的图画回答问题，并将答题卡上对应题目所选的选项涂黑。每个句子听两遍。
1. Where will Mr. Smith g this winter hliday?
A. B. C.
2. Hw did Jack celebrate his birthday?
A. B. C.
3. Wh des David ften ask fr help when in truble?
A. B. C.
4. What sprt is Helen gd at?
A. B. C.
5. Which sign is the speaker talking abut?
A. B. C.
B.听对话（本题共10小题，每小题1分，共10分）
请根据每段对话的内容回答问题，从每小题所给的三个选项中选出一个最佳答案，并将答题卡上对应题目所选的选项涂黑。每段对话听两遍。
听第一段对话，回答第6小题。
6. Hw ften des Tina use Tik Tk?
A. Often. B. Seldm. C. Never.
听第二段对话，回答第7小题。
7. What time will the meeting begin?
A. At 7: 30. B. At 8: 00. C. At 8: 30.
听第三段对话，回答第8小题。
8. What will the weather be like tmrrw?
A. Sunny. B. Rainy. C. Snwy.
听第四段对话，回答第9小题。
9. Hw far is the City Library frm here?
A. 10 minutes’ walk. B.30 minutes’ ride. C.30 minutes’ walk.
听第五段对话，回答第10小题。
10. What kind f music d Bb’s parents like?
A. Pp music. B. Classical music. C. Rck music.
听第六段对话，回答第11—12小题。
11. Hw many languages can Tny speak?
A. Tw, B. Three. C. Fur.
12. Hw did Tny learn Chinese?
A. By reading Chinese bks.
B. By watching Chinese films.
C. By speaking Chinese with his classmates.
听第七段对话，回答第13—15小题。
13. Why des Ted’s mther like Matthew?
A. Because he’s interesting. B. Because he’s large. C. Because he’s nice.
14. Hw ld is Matthew?
A. One year ld. B. Tw years ld. C. Three years ld.
15. What des Ted have?
A. Apples. B. Bread. C. Hamburgers.
C.听短文（本题共5小题。每小题1分，共5分）
请根据所听内容，从每小题所给的三个选项中选出一个最佳答案，并将答题卡上对应题目所选的选项涂黑。短文听两遍。
16. Hw lng is the histry f kites in China?
A. Over 20 years. B. Over 200 years. C. Over 2,000 years.
17. What are the pictures n the kites?
A. Sme ppular stars.
B. Sme beautiful flwers.
C. Sme animals and characters.
18. What did peple use kites t d at first?
A. T relax. B. T exercise. C. T send messages.
19. When is the Internatinal Kite Festival in Weifang?
A. In April. B. In May. C. In June.
20. Why are kites s ppular amng peple?
A. Because kites bring peple fun.
B. Because kites carry peple’s wishes.
C. Bth A and B.
D.听填信息（本题共5 小题，每小题1分，共5分）
你将听到的是一则关于遇到困难如何求助的调研报告。请你根据所听内容填写下面的信息卡。报告听两遍。
E.情景对话（本题共5 小题，每小题1分，共5分）
请通读下面对话，根据对话内容，从方框内的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，并将答题卡上对应题目所选的选项涂黑，选项中有一项为多余选项。
Tny: Hey, Daming! Hw was yur winter hliday?
Daming: 26 I went t Guangzhu.
Tny: 27
Daming: Well, it’s in the suth f China, near Hng Kng. It’s an ld city with a histry f ver 2,000 years.
Tny: 28
Damig: Of curse. And it’s as busy as Hng Kng.
Tny: 29
Daming: It’s ver eighteen millin. And the sights there are als very great.
Tny: I’d like t visit Guangzhu ne day.
Daming: 30 It’s the secnd tallest building in the wrld.
Tny: OK, I wn’t miss it when I visit Guangzhu. Thanks.
二、语法选择（本大题共10小题，每小题1分，共10分）
请通读下面短文，掌握其大意，根据语法和上下文连贯的要求，从每小题所给的三个选项中选出一个最佳答案，并将答题卡上对应题目所选的选项涂黑。
In the middle f a dark frest, there lived an ld wl（猫头鹰）. All the animals thught that he was 31 f them, s they ften tld their prblems t him. And the wl always tld them 32 they shuld d.
One day, a crying little bird went up t the wl. “What’s the matter 33 yu?” asked the wl.
“I’m nt happy at all. I dn’t want t be 34 bird,” the bird said. “Why?” asked the wl.
“I am s small, weak and useless,” she said, “I hpe 35 big and strng like the lin. He is very imprtant but I am nt.” Then the wl said smething in her ear 36 . At nce the bird dried her eyes and went away. Three 37 later, the bird came back. “Oh, thank yu fr telling me the idea. Yu are a very smart wl,” she said t the wl, “I am very happy nw. Every day I sit n the tp f the tallest tree 38 watch fr lins and tigers. When they cme near, I shut at the tp f my vice. Then all my friends run and hide. They thank 39 very much. I am useful and imprtant nw.”
The smart wl 40 and said, “N ne in this wrld is useless. If yu think yu are useless, yu are just nt ding the right thing.”
31. A. smart B. smarter C. the smartest
32. A. where B. when C. what
33. A. with B. fr C. n
34. A. an B. a C. the
35. A. be B. being C. t be
36. A. quiet. B. quietly C. quietness
37. A. week B. weeks C. weeks’
38. A. and B. but C. r
39. A. myself B. me C. I
40. A. has smiled B. is smiling C. smiled
三、完形填空（本大题共10小题，每小题1分，共10分）
请通读下面短文，掌握其大意，然后在每小题所给的四个选项中选出一个最佳答案，并将答题卡上对应题目所选的选项涂黑。
15-year-ld Jim was always asking his parents fr an iPhne all year. S n Christmas mrning he was very 41 t find ne under the Christmas tree. His mther 42 a message fr him in a card: “Merry Christmas! It’s yur dream present, right? Wait! If yu want it, yu have t fllw my 43 .”
The first rule n his mther’s list: “I bught this 44 s it is mine. Nw, I am lending it t yu.” Then it read, “Remember: If yu 45 any f the rules, I’ll get it back.”
“If it rings, 46 it,” said Rule Three. “It’s a phne. Dn’t miss a phne call, 47 when the screen reads ‘Mum’ r ‘Dad’”.
Rule Fur: “It’s nt plite t use the phne t fl thers. Yu are nt a 48 persn and d nt let the iPhne change that.”
“Try nt t take t many phts. There is n 49 t recrd everything. Keep yur eyes up. See what’s happening arund yu. Listen t the birds. Talk t a stranger. The experiences will 50 in
yur mind.
At last, it read, “Mst f these rules listed here are nt nly fr the iPhne, but als fr life. I lve yu. I hpe yu’ll enjy yur new iPhne.”
41. A. wrried B. bred C. excited D. relaxed
42. A. wrte dwn B. put away C. read ut D. handed in
43. A. tasks B. lessns C. ways D. rules
44. A. bike B. phne C. televisin D. camera
45. A. break B. fllw C. keep D. lse
46. A. drp B. stp C. answer D. refuse
47. A. quickly B. carefully C. suddenly D. especially
48. A. rude B. fl C. handsme D. helpful
49. A. prblem B. need C. idea D. sign
50. A. pass B. rest C. stay D. send
四、阅读理解（本大题共15小题，每小题2分，共30分）
请阅读A、B两篇短文，从每小题所给的四个选项中选出能回答所提问题或完成所给句子的最佳答案，并将答题卡上对应题目所选的选项涂黑。
A
51. When did paper cutting start t spread t ther cuntries?
A. In the 6th century. B. In the 7th century.
C. In the 13th century. D. In the 14th century.
52. What clr paper is usually used in tday’s paper cutting?
A. Red paper. B. Yellw paper.
C. Blue paper. D. Orange paper.
53. Hw d peple put up “Fu” n the wall accrding t the passage?
A. B. C. D.
54. Peple use “Shu” at a birthday party fr the ld t ________.
A. wish fr wealth B. wish fr health
C. wish fr new life D. wish fr lng life
55. Where’s the passage prbably frm?
A. A stry bk. B. A dictinary.
C. A guide bk. D. A magazine.
B
In summer, swimming is ne f the best ways t cl ff n a ht day. Swimming is a great exercise, and a trip t a pl r beach is a gd way t have fun with friends. But swimming can als be dangerus, s it’s imprtant t stay safe as yu d it. Here are a few things yu can d t swim safely.
Swim nly in areas set fr swimming. Dn’t swim unless there is a lifeguard n duty. If yu’re n a beach near the cean, this is especially imprtant. In sme places, fast currents（急流）can sweep swimmers away withut warning. S if a sign says “N swimming”, please stp and leave.
Be careful when jumping int the water. Mst pls have signs t tell yu hw deep it is. In natural water, dn’t jump unless yu knw that the water is deep enugh. Or yu culd hit yur leg n the bttm.
Make sure yu have a partner with yu. Nbdy knws what will happen while yu are swimming. If smething ges wrng, yu can get help frm that persn as sn as pssible. Anyway, a few secnds can make a big difference.
Pay clse attentin t children’s safety. Kids wh dn’t knw hw t swim shuld wear life jackets. But by themselves they are nt enugh, s an adult shuld always be present. If yu have a pl at hme, put a fence（围栏）arund it s that children wn’t fall in. And if yu can’t find a child, check the pl first.
56. What is the writing purpse f Paragraph 1?
A. T tell a stry. B. T answer a questin.
C. T lead t the tpic. D. T intrduce an exercise.
57. What des the underlined wrd “lifeguard” in Paragraph 2mean?
A. Directr. B. Lifesaver.
C. Swimming lver. D. Dctr.
58. Wh can yu get help frm if smething ges wrng while swimming?
A. A stranger. B. Yur parents.
C. Yur teacher. D. Yur partner.
59. What can we knw abut kids’ swimming safety frm the passage?
A. Kids ften fall in the pls at hme.
B. Kids shuld g swimming with adults.
C. It’s safe fr kids t swim in the pl at hme.
D. Children’s safety can depend n a life jacket.
60. Which can be the best title fr the passage?
A. Hw t Swim Safely B. Hw t Swim Well
C. Where t Spend a Ht Summer. D. Where t Have Fun with Friends
C
配对阅读。左栏是对于维持友谊的五个建议，右栏是针对不同建议举出的七个例子，请将二者进行匹配，并将其字母编号写在题号前的括号内。
五、短文填空（本大题共10小题，每小题1.5分，共15分）
请阅读下面短文，在所给的每个空格中填入一个形式正确、意义相符的单词，并将答案写在答题卡对应题目的答题位置上。
I had a summer camp with my classmates last year.
Early in the mrning we met 66 the bus statin. After saying gdbye t ur parents, we gt n the bus. It 67 us mre than tw hurs t arrive at the campgrund（露营地）.
We gt ff the bus happily, laughing and shuting. We jumped and ran all ver the place. It was the first time fr us t be away frm parents. Sme f 68 started t feel hmesick（想家的）. 69 , when the night party and dances began, the hmesickness was gne.
The next day, everybdy went t the bating cmpetitin. We all hped t win the first 70. At first, my friends and I wrked 71 , but the bat wuldn’t listen t us and kept ging rund and rund. Then the teacher 72 us hw t wrk tgether. After many tries, we did much better. Swimming class was my favurite. It was abut the httest time f a day 73 the best time t stay in the cl water. The swimming teacher was a 74 man, and during the class he ften made us laugh happily. During the week I learned a lt f new things and made many new 75 . I als learned hw t take care f myself.
六、读写综合（本大题分为A、B两部分，共25分）
A.回答问题（本题共5 小题，每小题2分，共10分）
请阅读下面短文，根据所提供的信息，回答5个问题。要求所写答案语法正确、语义完整切题，并把答案写在答题卡对应题目的答题位置上。
76. When did the writer made the game?
77. Where d they usually play the game?
78. What des the writer write n the squares?
79. Wh likes t d the game every mrning?
80. Why des the writer recmmend（推荐）the game?
B.书面表达（本题15分）
请根据要求完成短文写作，并将作文写在答题卡对应题目的答题位置上。
81.新课程标准要求中小学生掌握“家庭清洁、烹饪、家用器具使用与维护”等基本的家务技能，校报的英文栏目举行了这一主题的征文活动。假设你是李华，请你用英语写一篇短文投稿，内容包括：
（1）中学生做家务的好处（至少两点）；
（2）简述一次你做家务的经历和感受；
（3）呼吁中学生积极做家务。
作文要求：
（1）不能照抄原文；不得在作文中出现学校的真实名称和考生的真实姓名。
（2）语句连贯，词数80左右。作文的开头已经给出，不计入总词数，也不必抄写在答题卡上。
It’s imprtant fr students t learn basic husewrk skills. _________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
开平市2022-2023学年度第二学期期末质量检测
八年级英语科参考答案
听说应用（本大题包括A、B、C、D、E五个部分，共30分）
1-5 CBBAC6-10 BCBCB11-15 CCABC16-20 CCCAC
21. Thursday22. classmates23. rich24. 15%
25. help
26-30 ADFEB
二、语法选择（本大题有10 小题，每小题1分，共10分）
31-35 CCABC36-40 BBABC
三、完形填空（本大题10小题，每小题1分，共10分）
41-45 CADBA46-50 CDABC
四、阅读理解（本大题有15小题，每小题2分，共30分）
51-55 DABDD 56-60 CBDBA61-65 BCAFE
五、短文填空（本大题有10小题，每小题1.5分，共15分）
所填的词不符合短文的逻辑不给分，单词拼写错误不给分，大小写或形式错误每个扣0.5分。
66. at 67. tk 68. us 69. Hwever 70. prize 71. hard
72. taught 73. but 74. funny/humrus 75. friends
六、读写综合（本大题分为A、B两部分， 共25分）
A.回答问题。（本题有5小题，每小题2分，共10分）
76. She made the game a year ag.
77. They usually play the game in the kitchen.
78. She writes different husewrk n each square.
79. The writer’s sn likes t d the game every mrning.
80. Because it’s really a gd way t make children d husewrk.
B.书面表达（本题15分）（答案仅供参考）
It’s imprtant fr students t learn husewrk skills. If we knw hw t d basic husewrk, such as cking and cleaning, we can take care f urselves. Besides, we are able t lk after thers, and it will make us happier.
I still remember I started cking when my parents went n business three years ag, I burnt the rice at first but I failed. I learned frm the mistake. After trying several times, I cked well. Nw cking has becme my hbby. I ften ck fr the whle family. It makes my family s prud f me. I am nw an independent girl.
Life is a jurney. Let’s lean sme basic husehld skills t enjy the jurney well.（111w）A Survey Reprt
Time: Last 21
Tpic: Wh d yu g t when yu are in truble?
Results:
50% will g t their 22 r friends.
30% will tell teachers r parents wh have 23 experience.
24 will try t slve the prblems by themselves.
The rest will ask their nline friends fr 25 .
A. Pretty gd!
B. Remember t visit the Cantn Twer.
C. Welcme back t schl!
D. Where’s Guangzhu?
E. What’s the ppulatin f Guangzhu?
F. Ww, it’s much lder than Hng Kng.
Paper cutting is ne f the mst ppular decrative Chinese handicrafts. It started in the 6th century. Frm the 7th t 13th century, paper cutting became ppular especially during Chinese festivals. The art began t spread t the rest f the wrld in the 14th century.
*Use f paper cutting
In the past, peple cut papers int animals r peple. They either buried（埋葬）them with the dead r burned them n the funerals（葬礼）, wishing that things that paper std fr culd be with the dead.
Tday, they are usually made f red paper, used as decratins n walls, windws, drs and s n in sme festive（喜庆的）things.
*Meaning f paper cutting
Wishes and hpes fr wealth, health and lng life are expressed thrugh paper cuttings.
Fr example, during the Chinese New Year, the character “Fu” is put up upside dwn n the dr t express peple’s wishes fr the cming gd luck.
At a wedding ceremny（婚礼）, a red paper cutting with the character “Xi” is a traditinal and necessary decratin. It shws peple’s wishes fr the new cuple.
At a birthday party f an ld persn, paper cuttings with the character “Shu” are ften seen. Thrugh this character, peple wish the ld persn t have a lng life.
61. Tell them that yu are thankful t them. Friends als need t say thanks t each ther.
62. Offer yur help. If yur friend is ging thrugh a hard time, tell him that yu can ffer help.
63. Ask yur friends fr advice. It will shw that yu need their pinins.
64. Call them nw and then. Chse a fixed time t talk, such as a weekly phne date.
65. Be hnest with yur friends. If yur friends can trust yu, they will be mre pen and hnest with yu.
A. Yu culd ask fr advice abut smething fun, such as what kind f clthes t buy. Yu culd say, “Yu knw s much abut fashin. Can yu help me chse a dress?”
B. Yu can smetimes express yur thanks by saying smething like, “I really culdn’t finish it withut yu. I am happy that yu are here fr me.”
C. Fr example, yu culd say smething like, “I heard yu failed yur exam. Is there anything I can d t help?”
D. If yur friend visit yur huse, try t make them cmfrtable. Yu can say smething like, “Help yurself. I am happy fr yur visit.”
E. When yu want t say smething hnestly, make sure nt t hurt yur friend’s feelings. Yu can say, “I knw red is yur favrite clr, but that yellw dress lked really gd n yu.
F. Yu can ask questins like “Hw’s schl ging?” When yu call, plan t have a lnger and deeper talk.
G. T encurage yur friend, yu can say smething like, “Yu are really gd at dancing! Gd jb!”
Husewrk was nt ppular at my huse. My children didn’t like t d it. They always saw me d husewrk, but they hardly ever helped me d it. As a mther, this was nt what I wanted. S a year ag, I made a game called “The Endless Husewrk Game”. Everything has changed since then. Here’s hw the game wrks.
We usually d it in the kitchen. T d the game, I need t get a dice（骰子）and make a card with frty squares（方框）. Firstly, I write different husewrk n each square. The husewrk can be easy and interesting like making dessert. Then my family rll the dice t decide what husewrk we have t d. The card als has a few squares with fun things, like watching TV and singing. If yu are lucky, yu can watch TV when the thers are ding the husewrk.
My sn likes the game very much. He ges t the kitchen happily every mrning t d the game. Alng with such an exciting game, husewrk is n lnger a prblem fr him. Yu can have a try if yu have the same prblem with me. It is really a gd way t make children d husewrk.
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