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    这是一份2024年中考英语第二次模拟考试(四川成都卷,含听力MP3),文件包含英语四川成都卷全解全析docx、英语四川成都卷考试版A4docx、英语四川成都卷考试版A3docx、英语四川成都卷参考答案及评比标准docx、英语四川成都卷答题卡pdf、英语四川成都卷听力音频mp3等6份试卷配套教学资源,其中试卷共58页, 欢迎下载使用。

    2、二模考试大致在五月份,难度相对较大。这次考试主要检测学校以及学生在第一轮复习的成果,让老师和孩子找到问题的关键,是否存在基础不扎实,计算能力是否需要加强等等。然后找到解决方法,做到复习方法的改进,以及重难点的分布,复习的目标。
    3、三模考试大概在中考前两周左右,三模是中考前的最后一次考前检验。三模学校会有意降低难度,目的是增强考生信心,难度只能是中上水平,主要也是对初中三年的知识做一个系统的检测,让学生知道中考的一个大致体系和结构。
    2024年中考第二次模拟考试(四川成都卷)
    英语
    (考试时间:120分钟 试卷满分:150分)
    注意事项:
    1.答卷前,考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上。
    2.回答第Ⅰ卷时,选出每小题答案后,用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动,用橡皮擦干净后,再选涂其他答案标号。写在本试卷上无效。
    3.回答第Ⅱ卷时,将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。
    4.考试结束后,将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
    第Ⅰ卷(100分)
    听力部分 (共30小题,计30分)
    一、听句子选答语。根据你听到的内容,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出正确答语。每段对话读两遍。(共5题,每小题1分,计5分)
    1.A.Of curse.B.Gd luck.C.Yu’re welcme.
    2.A.Sunds great.B.Cngratulatins!C.I hpe s.
    3.A.Never mind.B.It’s my business.C.Srry, I’ll keep it in mind.
    4.A.With pleasure.B.It’s my pleasure.C.Yes, I culd.
    5.A.Yes, please.B.N, I culdn’t.C.Sure, here yu are.
    二、听力匹配。听下面5段对话。把与其内容相符图画的字母填在1~5小题相应的位置上。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。(共5题,每小题1分,计5分)
    6.A. B. C. D. E.

    三、听短对话选答案。听下面几段对话,根据对话内容及问题从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出正确答案。每段对话读两遍。(共10题,每小题1分,计10分)
    7.A.Abut 12 Kilmeters. B.By bus.C.Abut 30 minutes.
    8.A.6:40 p.m. B.7:00 p.m.C.7:20 p.m.
    9.A.Her friend. B.Her mther.C.Her father.
    10.A.Visit Beijing. B.Wrk in the hspital.C.Stay in the cuntryside.
    11.A.A park. B.A museum.C.A library.
    12. A.Because he’s great.
    Because he’s nt new in the city.
    C.Because he has a gd sense f directin.
    13.A.The shw.B.The hst.C.The university.
    14.A.Because he catches a cld.
    B.Because he didn’t wear the thick clthes.
    C.Because the weather becmes cld.
    15.A.Alice.B.Alice’s father.C.Alice’s mther.
    16.A.Chpsticks.B.Silver.C.A ty panda.
    四、听短文选答案。听短文,根据短文内容选择正确答案。短文念两遍。(共5题,每小题1分,计5分)
    17.Where will they meet after visiting Dujiangyan Irrigatin System?
    A.At the suth gate.B.At the east gate.C.At the west gate.
    18.What time will they leave Panda Valley?
    A.2:00 p. m.B.3:30 p. m.C.3:00 p. m.
    19.Which is the right rder f the activities?
    ① ging shpping ② seeing pandas ③ enjying the perfrmance
    A.②①③.B.①②③.C.③②①.
    20.Where can yu hear the speakers wrds?
    A.Online.B.A radi.C.A tur grup.
    21.What is the speaker’s purpse?
    A.T wish the turists a gd trip.
    B.T tell abut the travel plan.
    C.T intrduce sme places f interest.
    五、听力填空。你将听到一篇短文。请根据短文内容,写出下面表格中所缺的单词,每空仅填一词。短文读两遍。(共5题,每小题1分,计5分)
    第二部分 基础知识运用 (共30小题,计40分)
    六、选择填空。(共15小题,计20分)
    A.单项选择题,从以下各题的ABC三个选项中选择正确答案。(共10小题,每小题1分,计10分)
    27.—I smetimes argue with my brther.
    —Oh, it’s _________ usual thing, nt _________ big deal.
    A.an; aB.a; aC.an; the
    28.Mr. Wang is such a gd teacher! N ne is ______ than him.
    A.gdB.betterC.the best
    29.—Excuse me, culd yu tell me ________?
    —Yu can take N. 6 bus there. It’s abut 15 minutes’ ride.
    A.hw far the Slender West Lake is
    B.hw lng des it take t get t the Slender West Lake
    C.hw I can get t the Slender West Lake
    30.—There is a new art magazine in ur classrm. It ______ belng t Mary.
    —Yes, she is the nly ne in the art club.
    A.can’tB.mustC.may
    31.—Bys and girls, put ________ first and be careful while crssing the street!
    —Thank yu, Mrs. Li.
    A.mneyB.safetyC.interest
    32.Students are nt suppsed t enter the teacher's ffice_______________.
    A.unless they are allwed t B.if they want t ask questins C.when they are asked t cme in
    33.—I really need sme advice n imprving my prnunciatin.
    —One way is by ________.
    A.reading wrd grups B.keeping a diary C.listening t tapes
    34.—Are yu ging t watch the cming shw in Wanda Plaza?
    —Sure. I will g there this Saturday unless the shw ________.
    A.cancelsB.is cancelledC.will cancel
    35.My mther always tells me bks and friends shuld be few ________ gd.
    A.butB.rC.and
    36.The Hng Kng-Zhuhai-Maca Bridge ________ is the wrld’s lngest crss-sea bridge has been pen t traffic fr five years.
    A.whichB.whC.what
    B.补全对话。根据对话内容,从下边方框中选出适当的选项补全对话。(共5小题,每小题2分,计10分)
    W: Where were yu yesterday? I called yu three times!
    M: Oh? 37 But why did yu call me?
    W: Yu always say that yu like music.
    M: That’s right.
    W: 38 But at last I had t g there by myself.
    M: I’m srry. But where?
    W: Just in the Century Cncert Hall.
    M: What a pity! Hw was it?
    W: 39
    M: I suppsed all the pieces were wrld-famus nes.
    W: Of curse.
    M: 40
    W: Yes. I think that was the climax (高潮).
    M: What were they?
    W: 41 All f them were adapted (改编) frm sme famus mvies.
    M: I really shuldn’t g ut yesterday!
    A.Were there any sngs at the cncert?
    B.I was ut fr a picnic with a few f my ld friends.
    C.It was the mst wnderful ne I have ever attended.
    D.Sme were Chinese sngs and sme were freign sngs.
    E.S I tried my best t get tw tickets fr yesterday’s cncert.
    七、完形填空。根据短文内容,从A、B、C三个选项中选出可以填入空白处的正确答案。(共15小题,计20分。A篇共5小题,每小题2分,计10分;B篇共10小题,每小题1分,计10分)
    A
    There was a man wh was ging thrugh hard times. His wife divrced (离婚) him. He lst all his mney after nly a year in business. He tried hard, but 42 was all that he had seen. He left 43 behind and went int the frest. There, he met an ld man wh had lived there fr a lng time. He shared his stry with the ld man. “Can yu give me ne gd reasn nt t 44 ?” he asked the ld man.
    “Lk,” the ld man said, pinting 45 a plant. “D yu see that bamb there?” Althugh I tk care f the bamb seed (种子) fr fur years, there was n sign f grwth. But I did nt give up. In the 46 year, a small sprut came ut f the earth. S it tk the bamb several years just t grw strng rts.
    42.A.victryB.failureC.wrry
    43.A.everythingB.smethingC.nthing
    44.A.run afterB.take ffC.give up
    45.A.utB.tC.with
    46.A.fifthB.furthC.sixth
    B
    Life will be peaceful if yu always d kind things. I teach my daughters t develp a habit f
    47 thers. The little acts f kindness give yu chances t prvide service fr thers. They can make yu feel hw 48 it is t be kind and helpful.
    We live in a rural area (乡村). Mst f what we 49 is beautiful nature. One f the exceptins t the beauty is the rubbish that sme peple thrw ut f their car windws as they drive alng the rural rads. One f the few disadvantages f living there is shrt f 50 public services, such as rubbish cllectin, which is cmmn in the city.
    A helping behavir that I practice regularly with my daughters is 51 rubbish in ur neighbrhd. My daughters ften have a match t see wh can cllect the mst rubbish. They will ften say t me in a(n) 52 vice, “There’s sme rubbish, Daddy—stp the car!” And if we have time, we will ften get ut f ur car and pick it up. 53 it may seem strange, we d it. In fact, we enjy it. We pick up rubbish in parks, n sidewalks, almst anywhere.
    One day I saw a stranger picking up rubbish n the rad. I stpped. He 54 his head and smiled, “I saw yu ding this with yur family. It’s a gd idea t prtect ur envirnment.”
    There are many ther ways t 55 kindness fr thers. Yu may share a dinner with a beggar, visit lnely ld peple in the nursing hme, r help the blind crss the street. Yu can think f smething that can be finished 56 but helpful. It is fun, self-satisfying, and what’s mre, it can set a gd example. Helping thers is helping yurself.
    47.A.watchingB.helpingC.welcming
    48.A.greatB.unusualC.easy
    49.A.dreamB.needC.see
    50.A.cmfrtableB.excellentC.necessary
    51.A.picking upB.lking frC.taking away
    52.A.surprisedB.tiredC.excited
    53.A.AlthughB.ButC.Since
    54.A.cveredB.raisedC.shk
    55.A.describeB.buyC.prvide
    56.A.suddenlyB.easilyC.hardly
    阅读理解(共15小题,计30分)
    阅读判断。阅读下面短文,根据短文内容判断句子正误。正确地涂“A”,错误地涂“B”。(共5小题,每小题2分,计10分)
    根据短文内容判断句子的正误。正确的涂“A”,错误的涂“B”。
    57.Mre peple take an interest in city walking in 2023 than thse in 2022.
    58.Chengdu is the tenth favrite city fr city walking arund the cuntry.
    59.Accrding t the underlined sentence, the survey result can be like this.
    60.Half f the peple wh lve city walking are at the age between 19—28.
    61.The survey results shw us five clear reasns fr peple t have city walks.
    阅读单选。阅读下面两篇短文,根据短文内容选择正确答案。(共10小题,每小题2分,计20分)
    A
    62.Which f the blanks can be filled with the underlined wrd “grundbreaking” in passage a?
    A.The speech was s ________ that many peple fell asleep.
    B.She has lived a ________ life since she lst her parents in an accident.
    C.The cmpany’s ________ prducts have changed the lives f the deaf.
    63.What are passengers allwed t d in a quiet carriage?
    A.B.C.
    64.What is the best title fr ________?
    A.“AI” Making a Big Difference t the Future
    B.“AI” Named Mst Ppular Wrd f 2023
    C.“AI” Develping at a Fast Speed
    65.Which f the fllwing questins ISN’T answered in the passages?
    A.Why did Katalin Karik and Drew Weissman win the Nbel Prize?
    B.Hw can the Bei Du Navigatin Satellite System help with bird recrd?
    C.What influences can the new technlgy — “AI” bring us?
    66.What’s the theme shared by all the passages?
    A.Unexpected scientific discveries.
    B.Scial develpment and prgress.
    C.Internatinal prblems and effrts.
    B
    Is there a cnnectin between music and language? Accrding t recent studies, the answer is yes. Here, let’s lk at the fllwing tw.
    Music and Hearing
    A recent study by researcher Nina Kraus shws that playing a musical instrument can make a persn’s hearing ability becme better. In the study, tw grups f peple listened t a persn talking in a nisy rm. The peple in the first grup were musicians, while thse in the secnd grup weren’t. The musicians were able t hear the talking persn mre clearly.
    Think abut vilinists in a shw. When they play with the grup, they hear their wn instrument and many thers, t. But the vilinists must listen clsely t what they are playing, and leave ut the ther sunds. In this way, musicians are able t fcus n certain sunds, even in a rm with lts f nise.
    Music and Speaking
    Gttfried Schlaug, a dctr at Harvard Medical Schl, wrks with strke (中风) patients. Because f their illness, these peple cannt say their names, addresses, r ther infrmatin nrmally. Hwever, they can still sing. Dr. Schlaug was surprised t find that singing wrds helped his patients t finally speak. Why des this wrk? Schlaug isn’t sure. Music seems t help patients t use the brain again.
    Frm the results, we can knw that music is a gd influence n cncentratin, the ability t fcus n ne thing. It wrks n listening and speaking skills as well. Playing an instrument r singing can help us d better in schl as well. S music is nt nly enjyable, it’s als gd fr us in many ther ways.
    67.Which tw grups f peple tk part in Nina Kraus’ study?
    A.Nisy peple and quiet peple.
    B.Musicians and nn-musicians.
    C.Vilinists and ther musicians.
    68.Why are the vilinists mentined (提及) in paragraph 3?
    A.T describe what they did in a shw.
    B.T shw hw imprtant they are in the study.
    C.T better explain why musicians hear mre clearly.
    69.Hw des Gttfried Schlaug help strke patients speak?
    A.By playing music fr them.
    B.By asking them t sing wrds.
    C.By getting them t play an instrument.
    70.What’s the passage mainly abut?
    A.Music makes peple listen carefully and hear well.
    B.Music can be well used in medical research.
    C.Music helps with peple’s language abilities.
    71.In which magazine might we read this passage?
    A.B.C.
    第II卷(50分)
    单词拼写。在对话空格中填上适当的单词,使对话完整正确。一空一词(含缩写词)。(共5小题,每小题1分,计5分)
    72.Cnfucius (孔子) was a p in the field f educatin and has been called a teacher by all the learners.
    73.G , the students began t understand what Mr. Li had said.
    74.In mst cultures, peple put their fingers up t their muths t ask fr (silent).
    75.The dctr spent 30 minutes e his bdy but fund nthing wrng.
    76.The prfessr deeply r that he culd help the endangered animal but he did nthing.
    二、补全对话。在空格中填上适当的单词, 使对话完整正确。一空一词 (含缩写词)。(共10小题,每小题1分,计10分)。
    A: Yu lk dwn. What’s up?
    B: Oh, I gt terrible grades in the past few tests. 77 I’ve tried my best, I still made n prgress.
    A: Dn’t be s upset. As lng as yu find ut yur prblems and keep 78 yur learning methds, yu’ll gradually learn much better.
    B: Yeah, I knw. But math is really difficult fr me. I have great truble fllwing my teacher in class. And it always takes me a lng time t wrk ut math prblems.
    A: Dn’t wrry. Here are sme ways that are 79 believed t be helpful. Mst students and teachers think taking an 80 part in class is the mst useful. Dn’t just listen. Yu need t think. Secnd, crrect mistakes in time and review them every day. Last, practice makes perfect. D mre exercises. In this way, yur speed f ding math exercises will be 81 .
    B: Thanks a lt.
    A: I knw it’s difficult t develp such habits, but it’s 82 trying. Because they may bring yu unexpected results.
    B: OK, I’ll give it a try. Hw I wish I culd be as talented as yu!
    A: I have my prblems, t. My parents have high 83 fr my future. They want me t get int a tp high schl and a gd university. I’m afraid t 84 them if I fail. Smetimes I feel s wrried that everything can catch my 85 but study.
    B: Oh, maybe yu can share yur feelings with them, and dn’t think t much abut the results, fcus mre n the prcess 86 . Make sure yu achieve yur daily gals. Then the final results can’t be bad.
    A: Yes, yu’re right.
    三、选词填空。从下面方框中选出10个单词,将其正确形式填入短文,使短文意思正确通顺 (每词限用一次)。(共10小题,每小题1分,计10分)。

    Weekends, air cnditiners (空调), take uts…are all cmmn things fr mdern peple. Have yu ever 87 if ancient peple enjyed the same lifestyles? Let’s take a lk.
    N weekends: In ancient China, there were n weekends because peple did nt use a 88 calendar. But they culd still relax after wrk. During the Han Dynasty, 89 tk ne day ff every five days. There were als many public hlidays in ancient times, such as Spring Festival and Mid-Autumn Festival. Peple like farmers and businessmen usually wrked 90 f the year, but they wuld take a few days ff during Spring Festival.
    Smart ways f staying cl: In ancient times, thugh peple didn’t have air cnditiners, they had their wn ways t get thrugh the ht summer. Peple 91 ice blcks in winter and stred them in an ice huse. When summer came, peple culd take the ice blcks hme and use them t make 92 rms cler.
    There was a kind f pillw made f prcelain (瓷器) that felt 93 cl. Ancient peple als made bamb int bed mats t sleep n. They’re still used tday.
    Takeuts nt a new thing: There was takeut as 94 back as the Sng Dynasty. In the famus Sng Dynasty painting Alng the River During the Qingming Festival (清明上河图), a takeut wrker can 95 with fd in hand.
    Peple at the time even had special meal bxes fr takeut dishes. They als used warming plates r pts made f tw layers (层) f prcelain. Ht water culd be put between them 96 dishes warm.
    四、阅读表达。(共10小题,每小题1分,计10分)
    A.六选五。根据短文内容,从短文后的A~F选项中选出5个适当的选项补全短文,选项中
    有一个为多余选项。(共5小题,每小题1分,计5分)。
    Hw d we knw abut things that happened thusands f years ag when there were n vides r phts? 97 The earliest written recrds f Chinese culture are knwn as racle bne inscriptins.
    Mre than 3,000 years ag, peple in the Shang Dynasty liked t ask frtune tellers (占卜师) abut the future. Fr example, where shuld I g t make mney r will my wife give birth t a by r a girl? 98 The frtune teller wuld write the questin n an racle bne, heat it up, and then read the cracks (裂纹) in it t find an answer.
    Tens f thusands f racle bnes have been fund s far. 99 They culd als tell us the rigins (起源) f Chinese thughts and where ur culture cmes frm.
    What’s mre, the racle bnes are key t understanding the grwth and develpment f the written frm f the Chinese language. 100 They shw us hw ur ancestrs created Chinese writing characters.
    S far, we have fund abut 4,500 characters but we can nly understand fewer than 1,500 f them. 101
    In 2017, UNESCO added racle bne inscriptins t its Memry f the Wrld Register (世界记忆名录). They are indeed a valuable memry f ancient China.
    A.Oracle bne inscriptins aren’t useful at all nw.
    B.One pssible answer may be the written recrds.
    C.There are still many unknwn meanings waiting fr us t find ut.
    D.Frm wrk t lve, peple asked questins abut lts f different tpics.
    E.Many f the characters we use tday are similar t thse used 3,000 years ag.
    F.These bnes culd tell us a lt abut hw peple lived during the Shang Dynasty.
    B.任务型阅读。根据短文内容, 完成图表中所缺信息。(共5小题,每小题1分,计5分)。
    The human brain is an interesting and pwerful rgan, but why it des what it des is a prcess that we’re still studying. Bth the cnscius (意识) and subcnscius mind have a valuable influence n ur behavir, but mst f us nly knw a little abut hw they wrk. What fllws are smething interesting knwn t have happened r existed (存在) abut human psychlgy (心理):
    1. We ften think that we’re ging t react t a future event in a certain way, nly fr the event t actually take place and us t find that we reacted (反应) cmpletely differently t hw we predicted. We place hpe in the ability f a single happening t be able t change everything, but we ften find that it desn’t d much t change hw we feel at all.
    2. There is a lt f research data (数据) that suggests that fllwing a pattern fr 66 days will make it habitual. If, fr example, yu want t be better abut cleaning yur hme r ging t the gym—make a cnscius effrt t d it fr 66 days, after which it will becme a habit and will be easier t persevere (this als wrks fr breaking habits).

    3. If yu’re trying t d smething creative, like writing a shrt stry r designing a dress, yu’d be better ff ding it after a lng and stressful day. This is because researchers have fund that peple can actually shw mre creativity when their brains aren’t functining as efficiently (有效的). This is ne f the main reasns why peple ften get great ideas while taking a shwer after a hard day’s wrk.
    4. Knwn as “placeb sleep”, believing that yu have slept enugh will actually make yu feel mre refreshed and ready t take n the day’s challenges, even if yu actually slept t few r t many hurs. On the ther hand, always talking abut hw tired yu are will actually make yu feel tired and can be harmful t yur perfrmance.
    102.
    103.
    104.
    105.
    106.
    五、书面表达。(计15分)
    107.假如你们学校正在举办一场名为“我的梦想”的主题活动,请你根据以下信息,用英语写一篇短文描述自己的梦想。
    1. 努力学习,能够考上自己最喜欢的大学;
    2. 当一名电脑工程师,建立自己的公司;
    3. 建立一个慈善组织或者做志愿者,尽力去帮助那些需要帮助的人;
    4. 阅读大量的书籍,获得丰富的知识,环游世界;
    5. 退休后,同家人在一个美丽而安静的地方生活。
    要求:100词左右,文章开头已经给出,不计入总词数。
    My Dream
    China Dream has becme the cmmn dream f all the Chinese peple. ___________________
    ________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
    ________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
    ________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
    ________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
    ________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
    ________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________An experience f watching a mvie
    Time
    Last weekend.
    Event
    I went t the cinema t watch Jurney t the West with my 22 .
    Result
    Sme peple there made me feel very 23 .
    Causes
    (1) A few guys were 24 ludly r even shuting.
    (2) Sme peple threw away plastic bags, 25 and ther rubbish n the flr.
    Advice
    All f us are suppsed t bey the rules in 26 .
    A Survey n City Walks
    Q: Hw ppular are city walks?
    In 2022, city walkers in China cvered 320,000 kilmeters in ttal, which is lng enugh t circle the Earth eight times. And in the first half f 2023, searches abut city walks n Xiahngshu grew by ver 30 times cmpared with the number in the same perid in 2022. And they kept grwing.
    Q: Which are ppular cities fr city walking?
    Arund China, Shanghai is the mst ppular fr city walking, Beijing is the secnd and Guangzhu cmes next. Chengdu is als n the list f tp 10 cities fr city walking.
    Q: Wh are city walkers?
    82% f the city walkers are females while males make up fr 18%. Besides, city walks interest peple at different ages. The chart n the right shws mre infrmatin.
    Q: Why d peple enjy city walking?
    ●T slw dwn t learn a city better.
    ●T have a cheaper and mre relaxing way t travel.
    ●T have a clse cnnect in with the cmmunity arund us.
    ●T reduce stress.
    ●Others

    The Nbel Prize in Medicine
    Katalin Karik and Drew Weissman wn the prize fr their grundbreaking findings n mRNA.They helped the fast develpment f the mRNA vaccine (疫苗) during the COVID-19, saving millins f lives. The technlgy culd als be used t develp vaccines against ther illnesses.

    Keeping Recrds f Birds
    Chinese researchers have started t use the BeiDu Navigatin Satellite System (北斗卫星导航系统) t help recrd the infrmatin during birds’ flight. They tie a small psitining equipment t a bird. It can better recrd where the birds g and rest, and infrmatin abut hw they fly, such as their flight speed.

    Quiet Carriages n High-speed Trains
    Sme high-speed rail lines have intrduced quiet carriage services. In a quiet carriage, passengers aren’t allwed t put their phnes, ntebk cmputers r iPads n speaker. If they have t make a phne call, they must first g t the hallway t d s. Quiet carriage riders als need t make sure that their children are well-behaved t avid trubling thers.

    ________
    The technlgy “AI” is set t make a big difference t the future. And it has been named the mst ppular wrd f 2023 by the dictinary publisher Cllins. AI was chsen because it “has develped at such a fast speed and becme the main cnversatin f 2023”, the publisher said.


    anybdy businessman stre farther keep many ffice see they uncmfrtable week wnder
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