广东省茂名市信宜市第二中学2023-2024学年七年级下学期6月期末考试英语试题

这是一份广东省茂名市信宜市第二中学2023-2024学年七年级下学期6月期末考试英语试题，共12页。试卷主要包含了语法选择，完形填空，阅读理解，短文填空，语言应用，读写综合等内容，欢迎下载使用。
一、语法选择（本大题有10小题，每小题1分，共10分）
通读下面短文，掌握其大意，然后按照句子结构的语法和上下文连贯的要求，从每题所给的四个选项中选出一个最佳答案，并将答题卡上对应题目所选的选项涂黑。
D yu like living in the small r big twn? I live in a big twn. It's a little nisy 1 it's als great t live here. There 2 sme stres and a big supermarket ppsite my huse s my parents can shp 3 . Near my huse there is a park. I nly need 4 ut and turn right at the crssing. Then 5 alng the street. The park is at the end f the street. I usually take 6 walk with my family there n weekends. Smetimes, we 7 the muntain in the park. When we get t the tp f the muntain, the air and the sunshine make us 8 . Arund my huse there is a pst ffice 9 a bank and a clthes stre. I can send letters t friends there. But my favrite place is the library. It's behind the bank. It is very quiet and I can read and enjy 10 there.
D yu like my twn? I like it very much.
二、完形填空（本大题有10小题，每小题1分，共10分）
通读下面短文，掌握其大意，然后在每题所给的四个选项中，选出一个最佳答案，并将答题卡上对应题目所选的选项涂黑。
May 15th, Sunday
It was Mther's Day tday.In the mrning, my brther and I 11 early and cked breakfast fr mum. This desn't happen ften.
I nly knew 12 t ck eggs. That was enugh fr breakfast! I cut up sme 13 , like bananas and apples. Then my 14 put them tgether with eggs and bread in a dish. After that we made tea. 15 , we gt the meal ready!
The 16 was t sweet and the eggs were a little burned(焦的). The meal wasn't perfect, but mum ate 17 f it with a smile. My brther and I als made a 18 tgether. We drew sme flwers 19 wrte ur best wishes(祝愿) n it. Mum read it and said. “It's 20 . Thank yu s much. I lve yu tw!" "I lve yu, mum,” we said. I felt warm and happy.
三、阅读理解。（本大题有15小题，A、B篇每小题2分，C篇每小题1分共25分）
阅读A、B两篇短文，从每题所给的四个选项中，选出能回答所提问题或完成所给句子的最佳答案，并将答题卡上对应题目所选的选项涂黑。
A
（ ）21.Which day is the Sunshine Sprts Park clsed?
A.Mnday B.Tuesday C.Friday D. Sunday
（ ）22.The pening hurs f the Sunshine Sprts Park n Thursday are .
A.9:00-20:00 B.10:00-21:00 C.10:00-19:00 D.8:00-17:00
（ ）23.T use a basketball curt fr 2 hurs,the grup shuld pay .
A.120 yuan. B.160 yuan. C.180 yuan. D.240 yuan.
（ ）24. There are buses frm Park t Undergrund.
A.10 B.12 C.14 D.16
（ ）25.Where can yu mst prbably(最可能) see this passage?
A.In a newspaper. B.In a dictinary. C.In a strybk. D.In a guide bk.
B
My sister finished high schl tw weeks ag. As a special gift,ur parents tk us t India last weekend. It was interesting but scary. I never frget.
We went camping in a small village in India. First, we tk a lng bus ride t a lake in the cuntry. There we put up ur camps and made a fire(火) t keep us warm and ck fd n. On the first night,we just sat arund the fire and tld each ther stries. But I was s tired that I went t sleep early.
The next mrning, when my sister and I lked ut f ur camp, we saw a big snake sleeping near the fire.I was s scared that I culdn't mve.We shuted t ur parents t tell them the dangerus snake.My dad started t jump up and dwn in their camp.The snake mved int the frest near the lake.“Snakes dn't have ears but they can feel things mving,"my dad said,“s it was imprtant nt t g near a snake.”
( )26. Wh did the writer g t India with?
A. His classmates. B.His friends. C.His family. D.His students.
( )27. Hw did they get t the lake?
A. By bike. B.By bus. C.On ft. D.By car.
( )28. Where did the writer sleep at night?
A.In the huse. B.Arund the fire. C.In the camp. D. By the lake.
( )29.What des the underlined wrd “scared” in Paragraph 3 mean?
A.afraid B.excited C.bred D.strict
( )30.Which can be the best title (题目) fr the passage?
A. A Dangerus Animal B.A Fantastic Village t Camp
C. A Family Day D.A Weekend t Remember
C
信息匹配。左栏是五位学生的设想，右栏是七个俱乐部的描述。请为左栏的学生选择相应的俱乐部，并将答题卡上对应题目所选的选项涂黑。
四、短文填空。（本大题有10小题，每小题1分，共10分）
run sing hungry muth hw what in piece it still n happy
请从方框内选择适当的词并用正确形式填空，使文章完整连贯。注意每空一词，每词仅使用一次，有两词为多余项、请将答案写在答题卡上对应题目的答题位置上。
One day, a fx was lking fr smething t eat. He was very 36 . Then, he fund a yung crw 37 a tree. The crw had a 38 f meat in her muth. The fx lked happy and he wanted t get the meat frm the crw. But he culdn't get 39 under the tree.
The fx's eyes turned and said, “Dear Miss Crw, 40 are yu tday?" N answers. “Dear, Miss Crw, yu are s nice.” The crw lked at the fx and 41 didn't answer. The fx wagged(摇) his tail." Yur vice is s gd. I heard that yu were gd at 42 , really?”
The crw was very 43 t hear that and she decided t shw the fx she culd sing well. She pened her 44 and began t sing. The meat fell(落下) dwn frm her muth. The fx caught it and then 45 away with the meat in his muth.
五、语言应用（本大题分为A、B、C三部分，共15分）
A.单词拼写。（本大题有5小题，每小题1分，共5分）
根据所给的中文提示，按照句子结构的语法和上下文连贯的要求，在所给的每个空格中填入一个形式正确、意义相符的单词，并将答案写在答题卡上对应题目的答题位置上。
46.Tea (变得) ppular in America nw.
47. This shirt is n sale tday, s it is (便宜的）.
48. One year (以前)，I'm nly a primary schl student.
49. (乘坐) the undergrund is cmfrtable.
50. Grandpa Huang learned t live a lng and happy （生活）.
B.完成句子（本大题共5小题，每小题1分，共5分）
根据所给的中文提示，按照句子结构的语法和上下文连贯的要求，补充完整句子，每空填一词，并将答案写在答题卡上对应题目的答题位置上。
51.每天都有数百人来到失物招领处。
peple cme t the Lst and Fund ffice every day.
52.大明一家决定暑假去青岛观光。
Daming's family decided t in Qingda in the summer hliday.
53.儿童节是哪一天？
Which date is .
54.在中国，互相握手问候是礼貌的。
It's plite t greet each ther by in China.
55.孔子不仅是一位教育家，也是一位思想家。
Cnfucius was an educatr a thinker.
组词成句（本大题共5小题，每小题1分，共5分）
请根据括号内的标点符号，把所给单词连成一句符合逻辑、意义完整的句子，不能增减单词，并将答案写在答题卡上对应题目的答题位置上。
these, hers, crayns, are (.)
______________________________________________________________________________
pian, I, play, can, the (.)
______________________________________________________________________________
will, rbts, wrk, heavy, d (.)
______________________________________________________________________________
was, Lingling, in, brn, Beijing (.)
______________________________________________________________________________
camera, with, be, yur, careful (.)
______________________________________________________________________________
九、读写综合（本大题分为A、B两部分，共20分）
A．回答问题（共5小题，每小题1分，共5分）
请阅读下面这篇文章，根据所提供的信息，回答5个问题。 要求所写答案语法正确、语义完整，并把答案写在答题卡指定的位置。
61.Where is Li Lin studying English in Australia?

62.Hw is Li Lin when he see his ld friends?

63.What's the weather like in Australia?

64.Is Tm studying hard r having fun nw?

65.Why desn't Tm call Jenny?

B、书面表达 (15 分)
请根据要求完成短文写作，并将作文写作答题卡指定的位置上。
假如你是李华，你想邀请你校交换生Mike参加你的班级活动——参观玉都公园，请你写一封电子邮件给Mike，对他发出邀请并谈谈你制订的旅游计划。
内容包括：
1、说明你的写信意图；
2、出发时间和地点以及你们即将进行的活动等；
3、游览的注意事项(至少两项)。
作文要求：
1.不能照抄原文，不得在作文中出现学校的真实名称、地名和考生的真实姓名。
2.注意详略得当，语句连贯，词数70词左右。作文的开头和结尾已经给出，不计入总词数，也不必抄在答题卡上。
Best Wishes
Li Hua
2023-2024学年度第二学期期末热身试
七年级下册英语参考答案
一、语法选择（本大题有10小题, 每小题1分, 共10分）
1-5 BCABA 6-10ABCCA
二、完形填空（本大题有10小题, 每小题1分, 共10分）
11-15 ABBDC 16-20 CABCD
三、阅读理解（本大题有15小题, A、B篇每小题2分，C篇每小题1分, 共25分）
21-25 AADBA 26-30CBCAD 31-35 G EA DF
四、短文填空（本大题有10小题, 每小题1分, 共10分）
36. hungry 37. in 38. piece 39. it 40.hw
41.still 42.singing 43.happy 44. muth 45.ran
评分标准：
考生所填答案与所给答案一致，或其他语义符合句子内容要求且形式正确的答案给1分满分；
所填答案语义正确，但形式有错，每个扣0.5，
所填答案语义正确，大小写错误扣0.5分；
语义不符不给分。
五、语言应用（本大题分为A、B、C三部分，共15分）
A. 单词拼写（本大题共5小题，每小题1分，共5分）
46. becmes （说明：becme/became/becming0.5分）
47. cheap
48.ag
49. Taking （说明： Take/Takes/Tk 0.5分）
50. life
评分标准：
1）所填单词形式正确、意义相符得满分；
2）所填单词形式错误，扣0.5分,不存在的形式错误0分；
B. 完成句子（本大题共5小题，每小题1分，共5分）
51. Hundreds f
52. g sightseeing
53. Children’s Day
54. shaking hands
55. nt nly,but als
评分标准：
与答案一致满分；符合句意，语法正确得满分；
每空0.5分，倒扣完1分不再扣分，
每个形式错误扣0.5分，每个大小写错误扣0.5分；
与答案不符不给分。
C.组词成句（本大题共5小题，每小题1分，共5分）
56. These crayns are hers.
57. I can play the pian.
58. Rbts will d heavy wrk.
59. Lingling was brn in Beijing.
60. Be careful with yur camera.
评分标准：
1）句子句法、语义正确，顺序逻辑正确，得1分满分；
2）如果主谓或主系正确可得0.5分，其它无论多少处顺序错误都仅扣0.5分；
（例如： 56.crayns are 得0.5； 57. I can play 得0.5； 58. Rbts will d 得0.5； 59. Lingling was brn 得0.5； 60.Be careful 得0.5）
3）如果有正确顺序词块，可表达一个完整意义的，可得0.5；
（例如：56. These crayns 57.play the pian 58. heavy wrk 59. in Beijing 60. yur camera )
4）每小题的首字母不大写扣0.5分,2个小题内出现首字母不大写的统一扣0.5，超过3个小题出现首字母不大写的统一扣1分；
5）每小题句末缺标点符号，或标点号错误扣0.5分，2个小题内出现句末缺标点符号，或标点号错误的统一扣0.5分，超过3个小题出现句末缺标点符号，或标点号错误的统一扣1分。
六、读写综合（本大题分为A、B两部分, 共20分）
A. 回答问题（共5小题，每小题1分，共5分）
61.1)He/Li Lin is staying English in a summer schl in Australia. 1分
2)He/Li Lin is staying English in a summer schl. 1分
3)In a summer schl. 1分
照抄原文 I’m ging t a summer schl. 得0.5分
62. 1)He/Li Lin is happy when he see(s) his ld friends. 1分
2)Li Lin/He is happy. 1分
3) Happy. 1分
照抄原文 I’m s happy t see them again. 得0.5分
63.1)The weather / It is/It’s warm and sunny (in Australia). 1分
2) Warm and sunny. 1分
照抄原文 It’s warm and sunny, and it’s very relaxing here. 得0.5分
64.1)Tm /He is having fun (nw). 1分
2)Having fun (nw). 1分
3) Tm /He is having a great time nw. 1分
照抄原文 I’m having a great time in Eurpe!. 得0.5分
65.Because his mbile phne isn’t wrking. 1分
照抄原文 I want t call yu but my mbile phne isn’t wrking. 得0.5分
评分标准：
1）信息准确，语法正确，语义完整，无论是完整句子回答还是短语回答都给1分满分；
2）信息准确，有语法或单词拼写错误，一个语法或单词错误各扣0.5分，倒扣完1分不
再倒扣，但是主要关键信息正确，无论其它多少处错误则得0.5分；
3）句首不大写扣0.5，2个小题内出现首字母不大写的统一扣0.5，超过3个小题出现首字母不大写的统一扣1分;
4）每小题句末缺标点符号，或标点号错误扣0.5分，2个小题内出现句末缺标点符号，或标点号错误的统一扣0.5分，超过3个小题出现句末缺标点符号，或标点号错误的统一扣1分
5）答案主要关键信息正确，出现了无关多余信息，每题扣0.5分；
6）信息错误不给分。
B、书面表达（15分）
66. Dear Mike,
Hw is it ging? I knw that yu like travelling.
Our class is ging t visit the Yudu Park this weekend. I’d like t invite yu t jin us.（说明你的写信意图） We are ging t meet at schl this Saturday mrning. Then we started at eight ’clck. （出发时间和地点）First, we plan t climb the muntain. At nn, we will have a picnic n the tp f the muntain tgether. Then we will play games, take phts and sn n.（即将进行的活动）
We need t wear sprts shes and cmfrtable clthes. Dn’t frget take a bttle f water. Last but imprtant, we must make sure we are safe. （至少两项游览的注意事项）
Best Wishes
Li Hua
1. 评分原则与方法：
从内容与语言两方面予以分档给分。内容方面要求考生能完整地按写作要点进行表述，要点详略得当、表述合理，词数符合写作要求。语言方面要求学生表达准确连贯、符合逻辑。允许学生合理运用原文句式结构，但不可以照抄原文。如考生把文章所给出的开头部分抄写在答题卡上，不扣分（即使抄写有错误）。
内容分与语言分的分配
假如你是李华，你想邀请你校交换生Mike参加你的班级活动——参观玉都公园，请你写一封电子邮件给Mike，对他发出邀请并谈谈你制订的旅游计划。
内容包括：
1、说明你的写信意图；
2、出发时间和地点以及你们即将进行的活动等；
3、游览的注意事项（至少两项）。
作文要求：
1.不能照抄原文，不得在作文中出现学校的真实名称、地名和考生的真实姓名。
2.注意详略得当，语句连贯，词数70词左右。作文的开头和结尾已经给出，不计入总词数，也不必抄在答题卡上。
内容分：7分
1、说明你的写信意图；————————1分
2、出发时间和地点以及你们即将进行的活动等；—————— 4分
3、游览的注意事项（至少两项）——————————2分
语言分：8分
第一档：7-8分 要求：内容涵盖所有的要点，表达准确，意思连贯，符合逻辑，只有极个别不影响交际的语言错误。
第二档：5-6分 要求：内容涵盖所有的要点，表达清楚，意思连贯，符合逻辑，但有少量语言错误。
第三档：3-4分 要求：内容涵盖大部分要点，表达较为清楚、连贯，基本符合逻辑，但有一些语言错误。
第四档：1-2分 要求：内容涵盖部分要点，能写出一两句正确句子，但整体表达不太连贯，且语言错误较多。
第五档：0分 空白卷或完全没有相关内容。
注：以上答案及评分标准仅供参考。
1.全卷共8页，满分为90分，考试用时为80分钟。
2.答卷前，考生务必用黑色字迹的签字笔或钢笔在答题卡的指定区域填写自己的镇别、学校、姓名、考场号、座位号和考号。用2B铅笔把对应该号码的标号涂黑。
3.选择题每小题选出答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目选项的信息点涂黑，如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案，答案答在试题上无效。
4.非选择题必须用黑色字迹钢笔或签字笔作答，答案必须写在答题卡各题目指定区域内相应位置上；如需改动，先划掉原来的答案，然后再写上新的答案；不准使用铅笔和涂改液。不按以上要求作答的答案无效。
5.考生务必保持答题卡的整洁：考试结束时，将试卷和答题卡一并交回。
( )1. A.and
but
r
( )
B. was
C.are
( )3. A. easily
B. easy
C. easiness
( )4. A. walking
t walk
C. walked
( )5. A. walk
walks
C.walking
( )6. A. a
B./
C. the
( )7. A. will climb
B.climb
C.climbed
( )8. A.relax
B. relaxing
C.relaxed
( )9. A.next
B. frnt
C.between
( )10. A. myself
mine
C. yu
( )11.A. gt up
B.went ver
C.picked up
D.tried n
( )12. A.what
B.hw
C.why
D.wh
( )
B.fruit
C.flwers
D.presents
( )
B.mther
C.sister
D.brther
( )
B.Really
C.Finally
D.Specially
( )
B.juice
C.tea
D.water
( )
B.sme
C.little
D.many
( )
B.card
C.face
D.scarf
( )
B.s
C.and
D.but
( )
B.successful
C. fresh
D.beautiful
Sunshine Sprts Park
Opening Hurs
Tuesday-Friday
Saturday
Sunday
9:00-20:00
10:00-21:00
10:00-19:00
Hw many curts
Hw much
Buses
2 vlleyball curts
2 basketball curts
3 badmintn curts
T use ne curt fr ne hur，each grup pays.
Vlleyball—¥120
Basketball—¥120
Badmintn—¥80
(Yu can take a bus every 30 minutes.)
Undergrund→Park
8:00-17:00
Park → Undergrund
10:30-16:00
We dn't have any ball r rackets(球拍)
Yu must nt eat n the curts.
( )31.Betty likes sprts best. She wants t learn flying kites.
( )32. Tny is studying in China. He is wrried abut his Chinese.He needs sme help.
( )33. Daming is gd at singing and dancing. But nw he wants t learn smething new like cking.
( )34. Li Lei can't speak English well. He wants t talk in English mre.
( )35. Jenny is a cleaning mnitr.She wants t make the schl beautiful.
A. Cking Club
Welcme t the Cking Club. Only bys can jin the club.Yu will find the club very interesting.Yu can learn many kinds f dishes every week.
B. Dancing Club
Can yu dance? D yu want t dance? Jin us! The Dancing Club is in ur art building. There are thirty students in ur club.
C.Music Club
The club is fr all students. Each weekend, we play different kinds f music fr yu.I'm sure yu'll enjy the stry behind the music.
D.English Club
D yu wrry abut yur spken English? Yu can have a free talk in ur club.There are sme English teachers here,t.
E.Hmewrk Club
It's a ppular club. Mst students spent their afternns at these clubs because it is a quiet place fr them t d their hmewrk. Teachers there can help with the hmewrk.
F.Green Schl Club
Please help us t make ur schl green and beautiful. Every Wednesday afternn,we help ur schl frm 4:30 5:00p.m.
G.Kite-flying Club
D yu like flying kites? D yu think it is interesting? We meet n Saturday and Sunday frm 9:30 a.m. t 11:00 a.m. D yu want t jin us?
Dear Jenny,
Hw's it ging? I'm having a great time visiting my aunt in Australia. She's wrking here and I'm ging t a summer schl. I'm studying English and I'm learning a lt. I'm als visiting sme f my ld friends. I'm s happy t see them again. It's afternn right nw and I'm sitting in the garden and drinking range juice. It's warm and sunny and it's very relaxing here.
See yu sn.
Li Lin
Dear Jenny,
Hw's yur summer hliday ging? Are yu studying hard r are yu having fun? I'm having a great time in Eurpe! My family and I are n a hliday in the muntains. I want t call yu but my mbile phne isn't wrking. s I'm writing t yu. The weather here is cl, just right fr walking
See yu next mnth.
Tm
Dear Mike,
Hw is it ging? I knw that yu like travelling.