湖北省武汉市武昌区2023-2024学年七年级下学期期末考试英语试卷+

这是一份湖北省武汉市武昌区2023-2024学年七年级下学期期末考试英语试卷+，共11页。试卷主要包含了听力测试，选择填空，情景交际，完形填空，阅读理解，用所给词的正确形式填空，词与短语填空，综合填空等内容，欢迎下载使用。
第Ⅰ卷 (选择题 共 80 分)
第一部分 听力部分
一、听力测试 (共三节)
第一节 (共 4 小题，每小题 1 分，满分 4分)
听下面4个问题。每个问题后有三个答语，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每个问题后，你都有5 秒钟的时间来作答和阅读下一小题。每个问题仅读一遍。
1. A. I’d like ndles, please. B. Sccer. C. There isn’t any.
2. A. At schl. B. On weekends. C. By bus.
3. A. Abut 20 minutes. B. Tw kilmeters. C. Every Tuesday.
4. A. In Beijing. B. Sunny. C. It’s interesting.
第二节 (共8小题，每小题1分，满分8分)
听下面8段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来作答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
5. What is the man ding?
A. Having cheese. B. Drawing a picture. C. Taking a pht.
6. Where is the Yellw Crane Twer?
A. At the secnd crssing. B. Acrss frm a park. C. In frnt f a park.
7. What des Dingding lk like?
A. It is very small. B. It has brwn eyes. C. It has a black nse.
8. What did Dra d n the afternn f June 1st?
A. She visited her cusin. B. She went t the z. C. She went t a museum.
9. Where are the tw speakers prbably?
A. In a cinema. B. In a bank. C. At hme.
10. What wuld the girl prbably say t the by next?
A. Lucky yu. B. That’s all right. C. Srry t hear that.
11. Which club are the speakers talking abut?
A. B. C.
12. What d the tw speakers mean?
A. The pizzas are t expensive nw.
B. The restaurant is still ne f the best.
C. They dn’t like the restaurant s much nw.
第三节 (共 13 小题，每小题 1 分，满分 13 分)
听下面 4 段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出 5 秒钟的作答时间，每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话，完成第 13 至 15 三个小题。
13. Hw is Dave’s neighbrhd?
A. Big. B. Quiet. C. Nisy.
14. Hw far des Dave live frm the library?
A. One kilmeter. B. Tw kilmeters. C. Three kilmeters.
15. When des Dave read in the library?
A. On Saturday afternns. B. On Sunday mrnings. C. On Sunday afternns.
听下面一段对话，完成第 16 至 18 三个小题。
16. What des the wman prbably d?
A. A reprter. B. A nurse. C. A plice artist.
17. Which f the pictures may shw the real criminal?
A. B. C.
18. Which ne is true accrding t the cnversatin?
A. The man was the real criminal.
B. The man saw the criminal just nw.
C. The plice fund the criminal just nw.
听下面一段对话，完成第19至 22四个小题。
19. Where are they talking?
A. In a classrm. B. On the phne. C. On the street.
20. What is the prbable relatinship between the tw speakers?
A. Mther and sn. B. Teacher and student. C. Friends.
21. Hw is Alice prbably feeling nw?
A. Excited. B. Bred. C. Tired.
22. What can yu learn frm the cnversatin?
A. Tm invites Alice t visit his city.
B. The weather is fine in Alice’s city.
C. Tm is having fun with his friends.
听下面一段独白，完成第 23 至 25 三个小题。
23. What is the text mainly abut?
A. A bike ride. B. A schl trip. C. A bring experience.
24. Hw lng did it take them t climb t the tp f Muntain M?
A. 20 minutes. B. 40 minutes. C. An hur.
25. What did they d n the tp f Muntain M?
A. They enjyed the flwers. B. They rde bikes tgether. C. They relaxed themselves.
第二部分 笔试部分
二、选择填空 (共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分)
26. —D yu want t jin me fr dinner? We can eat ut.
— ____________.
A. Never mind B. Yeah, I’d lve t C. Have a gd time D. Yes, I wuld
27. — Hw lng des it take t get t the library?
— ____________. . . abut 10 minutes by bike?
A. Yes, it des B. Nt at all C. See yu D. I’m nt sure
28. —Des yur family have a pet?
— My mm ____________. She has a big cat.
A. is B. has C. des D. likes
29. —What are yur ____________ at schl, Jenny?
— Well, we have t wear schl unifrms every day.
A. rules B. unifrms C. clubs D. subjects
30. — It’s yur first day at schl. Hw is ____________ ging?
— Great, Ms. Liu. All teachers and classmates are nice t me.
A. smething B. everything C. nthing D. anything
31. — The teacher was angry because Tm didn’t finish his hmewrk nce again.
— He is nt stupid, just ____________.
A. ppular B. terrible C. lazy D. lucky
32. —What did yu ____________ fr in frnt f yur birthday cake?
—I can’t tell yu, r it will nt cme true.
A. wish B. miss C. blw D. turn
33. —It’s necessary t ____________ a map while traveling.
— Yu are right. Or we may get lst easily.
A. describe B. practice C. fllw D. enjy
34. — Tny, yur ty cars are everywhere. Can yu ____________ and put them in the drawer?
—OK, I’ll d it right away.
A. cut them up B. put them up C. wake them up D. pick them up
35. — D yu knw the stry f Yu Bya and Zhng Ziqi?
—Of curse. It tells us ____________.
A. wh is the best friend B. hw difficult it is t find a true friend
C. when we shuld find friends D. what shuld peple d fr their friends
三、情景交际。 (每小题 1 分，共5分)
请你从 A-G 中选出 5 个句子来完成对话。其中有2个多余的选项。
A. Why nt?
B. What animals d yu like best?
C. What are yu ding, Mlly?
D. Hw can we get there?
E. Hw lng des it take t get there?
F. D yu like elephants?
G. But I dn’t like lins.
A: Hell! May I speak t Mlly?
B: Hi! This is Mlly.
A: 36
B: I am reading a bk abut animals. I can learn abut hundreds f animals.
A: It sunds interesting! 37
B: Elephants. They are smart. 38
A: Lins are kind f scary, but they are really strng. I like animals, t. Let’s g t the z tmrrw.
B: Great! I hear the new z is a little far. 39
A: We can get there by subway.
B: 40
A: Abut 15 minutes. Let’s meet at 9 ’clck at the subway statin.
B: OK. See yu then.
四、完形填空 (共 10 小题，每小题 1 分，满分 10 分)
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳答案。
One day, I heard my mum singing alng t a Sandy Shaw sng n TV.
“Hw d yu knw that sng?”
“Oh, that sng was quite 41 when I was in Lndn. Many peple knew it.”
“Lndn 42 ?”
My12-year-ld mind was cnfused (困惑的) by mum’s 43 . I never left my quiet little twn in Ireland. And I thught my parents were always here, t.
“Yes, in the 1960s, I wrked in Lndn.” Her face lit up as she talked abut her 44 years. In the evenings, she liked t enjy 45 in clubs and cinemas. She liked t fllw the fashin (时尚) as the ther yung girls did.
“S. . . if it was s great, why did yu cme 46 here?”
“Why did I cme back here? Well, t marry (嫁) yur father and, f curse, t have yu!” My mum answered. “If I 47 . in Lndn, yu wuldn’t be brn!”
Mum’s wrds made me realize that my mum was nce 48 , t. Just like me, she had many dreams and interests. In rder t take gd care f me, she had t 49 mst f them.
When we are yung, we want ur mthers t be 50 there fr us. When they are nt arund, we feel dwn. But they d have their wn hbbies. They shuld have their wn free time. Once yu realize this, yu will better understand hw much yur mum lves yu.
41. A. terrible B. ppular C. special D. relaxing
42. A. When B. Why C. Where D. Hw
43. A. questin B. prblem C. answer D. sng
44. A. early B. real C. scary D. easy
45. A. themselves B. myself C. himself D. herself
46. A. in B. frm C. back D. ut
47. A. left B. stayed C. arrived D. sang
48. A. beautiful B. smart C. friendly D. yung
49. A. think f B. talk abut C. give up D. run away
50. A. smetimes B. always C. never D. hardly
五、阅读理解 (共15小题，每小题2分，满分30分)
阅读下面三篇材料，从所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。
A
I live in a neighbrhd in Lndn. And I did a fun prject (项目) last weekend. Our teacher asked us t interview (采访) peple abut their jbs. After a little planning, I went fr a walk dwn the shpping street in my neighbrhd.
51. If this article is frm a newspaper, in which sectin can we read it?
A. Science. B. Peple. C. Fd. D. Shpping.
52. What is the fun prject abut?
A. Helping peple with their businesses.
B. Interviewing peple abut their hbbies.
C. Learning abut peple’s jbs in the neighbrhd.
D. Visiting different shpping centers in the neighbrhd.
53. What des Mr. Green enjy the mst abut being a tailr?
A. Meeting new peple and seeing ld friends.
B. Bringing happiness t peple with his skill
C. Having a lt f free time t d what he likes.
D. Making beautiful clthes fr different peple.
54. What can we knw abut Ms. King r her bakery?
A. The bakery is n a main shpping street.
B. The bakery is pen befre 7 a. m. every day.
C. Ms. King is very skilled in selling bread and cakes.
D. Ms. King starts her wrk very early every mrning.
55. The writer interviewed sme peple and fund all f them ____________.
A. funny B. ppular C. friendly D. hard-wrking
B
Peple in India can ften see mnkeys. D yu knw the mnkeys there are famus fr their attacking behavirs (攻击行为)?
One day earlier in April, a 13-year-ld Indian girl named Nikita was playing with her 15-mnth-ld cusin Vamika inside the living rm. Their ther family members were busy with their wn things in different rms. Sme neighbrs visited their hme and then they left with the dr pen an hur ag. Suddenly, five t six mnkeys came int the living rm and started thrwing things here and there. Very sn, the living rm was in a mess. The girls gt scared as ne f the mnkeys came clse t them several times.
At that time, Nikita saw her Amazn Alexa device (设备) , an AI vice assistant (语音助手) , n tp f the shelf. Withut thinking twice, she asked the device t play sunds f a dg barking (吠叫) . “Because f that sund, the mnkeys were scared and ran away.” Nikita laughed and tld her family later that day.
Nikita’s fast thinking saved her and her cusin frm the scary attack. Her stry is als a gd example t shw hw smart technlgy (技术) is.
56. What’s the functin (功能) f paragraph 1?
A. T ask a difficult questin. B. T lead in the fllwing stry.
C. T describe Nikita’s family. D. T give funny facts abut mnkeys.
57. The underlined phrase “in a mess” in paragraph 2 means ____________.
A. nisy B. bring C. clean D. untidy
58. What’s the right rder f the events?
① Neighbrs left the dr pen. ② Nikita asked AI fr help.
③ One mnkey gt clse t the girls. ④ Sme mnkeys came int the huse.
⑤ The barking sund scared away the mnkeys.
A. ①③④②⑤ B. ④①1③②⑤ C. ①④③②⑤ D. ④③②⑤①
59. After scaring away the mnkeys, Nikita might feel ____________.
A. happy B. angry C. afraid D. surprised
60. What wuld be the best title fr the passage?
A. Never T Late t Start B. Smart AI Vice Assistants
C. First Think, Then Act D. Nikita’s Fast and Smart Act
C
Old wives’ tales are thse “helpful” things that yur grandparents say. But they are prbably nt true. They are things like, “If yu watch TV a lt, yu’ll get square eyes”, “If yu eat carrts, yu’ll see well in the dark”, r “If yu eat cheese at night, yu’ll have bad dreams”. But are they nnsense (荒谬的) r smetimes a little bit true? We decided t find ut mre.
Let’s start with a famus ne, “An apple a day keeps the dctr away”. My grandma always says this. Well, everyne knws that fruit is healthy. But can ne apple really make a difference? A study says “yes”. It fund that if peple ver 50 eat an apple a day, they have smaller chances (可能性) t have heart attacks (心脏病) than thse wh dn’t.
My uncle is a big believer that “fish is brain (大脑) fd”. He ften eats it and he is a clever man, t. It lks like he might be right. Fish have a lt f mega-3 and mega-6 fats in their il. Sme scientists frm Oxfrd studied 120 children, and they fund the children wh ate mega-3 and mega-6 did well in their schlwrk. If yu eat fish il, it will help t prevent (预防) heart prblems, t. It seems that eating fish is a gd idea.
★ Can they really help us see well at night? I eat carrts all my life, but I still walk int things when I get up at night. Unluckily, I can’t find anything t tell if this is right r wrng.
61. Accrding t the passage, which f the fllwing is true abut ld wives’ tales?
A. They are all helpful. B. They are always wrng.
C. Sme may tell a little truth. D. They make kids have bad dreams.
62. The study abut apples fund that ____________.
A. eating apples makes us cleverB. apples are the best fruit fr health
C. eating apples can prevent all prblemsD. eating apples every day is gd fr health
63. The writer’s uncle may believe that ____________.
A. eating fish is a gd idea B. fish il isn’t gd fr health
C. eating fish helps us sleep better D. mega-3 and mega-6 make us fat
64. Which f the fllwing can be put in ★ ?
A. Why nt g t a dctr? B. Finally, what abut carrts?
C. Let’s eat mre carrts. D. Carrts can’t help us see well.
65. What’s the structure (结构) f the passage?
第Ⅱ卷 (非选择题 共40分)
六、用所给词的正确形式填空。 (共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分)
注意：可能不止填写一个词。
Dear Jane,
Hw’s it ging? I’m having a great time visiting ____________ (66) (I) aunt in Canada. She’s wrking here and I’m ging t summer schl. I’m studying English and I’m ____________ (67) (learn) a lt. I’m als visiting sme f my ld ____________ (68) (friend). I’m s happy t see them again. It’s afternn right nw, and I ____________ (69) (sit) by the pl and drinking range juice. It’s warm and ____________ (70) (sun), and it’s very relaxing here.
See yu sn.
Su Lin
七、词与短语填空 (共 5 小题，每小题 1 分，满分 5 分)
阅读下面短文，用方框中所给的单词或短语填空，使短文在结构、语意和逻辑上正确。 (提示：方框中有二个单词或短语是多余的。)
helping / big / easily / small / makes nise / animals / it
Nt nly the same animals live tgether, different nes live tgether, t. D yu knw abut the rhin (犀牛)? It is ____________ (71) and strng. But it always lets a small bird, an egret (白鹭), sit n its back. Are they having fun tgether? Maybe, but mainly they are ____________ (72) each ther. The egret helps the rhin stay healthy by cleaning its bdy. It als ____________ (73) t tell the rhin abut cming danger. The rhin helps the egret get fd ____________ (74) Hw? It scares small ____________ (75) in the grass, and the egret eats them. Isn’t that interesting?
八、综合填空 (共 10 小题，每小题 1 分，满分 10 分)
阅读下面短文，根据上下文或括号内单词等提示，在空白处填入适当的单词或括号内单词的适当形式。
A yung cuple (夫妇) wanted t g camping in the muntains t spend the weekend. They tk with ____________ (76) (they) all the things they wuld need t g camping-warm clthes, fd and a tent.
They went up t the muntains and fund the wnderful place where they culd put____________ (77) their tent. After that, they went fr a hike t see mre f the muntains.
After a lng hike, they went back t their camp, ____________ (78) (make) a fire and cked dinner. Finally, it was time ____________ (79) (g) t sleep.
Smetime in the middle ____________ (80) the night, the wife wke her husband up and said, “Lk up at the sky ____________ (81) (careful). What d yu see?”
Her husband answered, “I see millins f ____________ (82) (star).”
His wife said, “That’s right. ____________ (83) des that mean t yu? “
The husband said, “Well, if there are s many stars ut there, that means there might als be a planet (星球) just like urs. And ____________ (84) that’s true t, then there culd be life n ne f thse planets. That’s really ____________ (85) (excite)!”
His wife said, “Yu are wrng. It means that smene has stlen (偷走) ur tent!”
九、书面表达 (共1大题，满分20分)
假如你是李华，你校新来的外教 Mark 想要通过问卷了解学生以及这座城市，请你根据以下问卷问题用英文向 Mark 作详细介绍。
What d yu usually d in yur free time?
What is yur favrite place in yur city? Why?
Hw d yu usually get there?
注意：文中不得透露个人真实信息；词数80词左右；开头已给出，不计入总词数。
Dear Mark,
My name is Li Hua. ____________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Yurs,
Li Hua
武昌区2023-2024学年下学期期末
七年级 英语试卷 参考答案
一、听力测试
1-5 ABABC 6-10 BBCAA 11-15 CCBAC16-20 CВBBC 21-25 AВBAC
二、选择填空
26-30 BDCAB 31-35 CACDB
三、情景交际
36-40 CBGDE
四、完形填空
41-45 BACAD 46-50 CBDCB
五、阅读理解
51~55 BCBDC 56~60 BDCAD 61~65 CDABA
六、用所给词的正确形式填空
66. my 67. learning 68. friends 69. am siting 70. sunny
七、词与短语填空
71. big 72. helping 73. makes nise 74. easily 75. animals
八、综合填空
76. them 77. up 78. made 79. t g 80. f
81. carefully 82. stars 83. what 84. if 85. exciting
First I came t Mr. Green’s tailr shp. He was busy making a beautiful dress with a piece f clth, but he still answered my questins. Mr. Green enjys being a tailr. He meets new peple and sees many ld friends every day. Mre imprtantly, with his skilled hands, he can bring smile t peple’s faces. It sunds like an enjyable jb.
My secnd stp was Ms. King’s bakery. It was nice inside and the air Bakery was filled with delicius smells. The shelves were full f clrful treats. Ms. King gets up every day at 5: 30 a. m. t make yummy bread and cakes. They are ready by 7: 00 a. m. Her hands are skilled in shaping dugh (面团) int different kinds f bread and cakes.
After the bakery, I visited a flwer shp, a bkstre and a clthing shp. I learned a lt abut the peple in my neighbrhd. All f them answered my questins with pleasure and the interviews went well.