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    浙江省杭州市临平区2023-2024学年七年级下学期期末考试英语试题

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    浙江省杭州市临平区2023-2024学年七年级下学期期末考试英语试题

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    这是一份浙江省杭州市临平区2023-2024学年七年级下学期期末考试英语试题,共10页。
    考生须知:
    1. 本试卷共8页,共七大题,76小题,全卷满分120分,考试时间100分钟。
    2.请用2B铅笔将选择题的答案填涂在答题纸的相应位置,用0.5毫米及以上黑色字迹的钢笔或签字笔将非选择题的答案写在答题纸相应的答题区域内,超出答题区域书写的答案无效。
    3.答题前,在答题纸上规定区域填写学校、姓名、准考证号等信息。认真阅读答题纸上的《注意事项》,按规定答题。
    一、听力理解 (有三节, 共15小题, 其中1-5小题每题1分, 6-15小题每题1.5分, 共20 分)
    第一节:听下面五段对话,每段对话后有1个小题,请从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
    1. Hw des Mike usually g t schl?
    A. By bike: B. By car. C. On ft.
    2. What's the weather like in Beijing nw?
    A Sunny. B. Snwy. C. Rainy.
    3. What is Peter ding nw?
    A. He's ding his hmewrk. B. He's playing sccer. C. He's watching TV.
    4. Wh is the by with curly brwn hair?
    A. Alice's cusin. B. Alice's brther. C. Alice's friend.
    5. Where are the speakers prbably?
    A. In a z. B. At schl. C. In a shp.
    第二节:听下面两段较长对话,每段对话后有3个小题,请从题中所给的A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟。听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话读两遍。
    听下面一段较长对话,回答第6-8三个小题。
    6. What club is Jhn in?
    A. The basketball club. B. The singing club. C. The dancing club.
    7.Hw lng des Jhn practice in the club every day?
    A. Fur hurs. B. Three hurs. C. Tw hurs.
    8. What des the wman mean(意思是) in the cnversatin?
    A. Jhn shuldn't jin the schl club.
    B. Jhn shuld have hard practice..
    C. Jhn shuld have mre hbbies.
    听下面一段较长对话,回答第9-11三个小题。
    9. What des the man rder?
    A. Fd and drink. B. Fd and fruits. C. Drink and fruits.
    10. Hw much des the man spend n the rder?
    A.25 yuan. B.50 yuan. C.75 yuan.
    11. When can the man get the meal?
    A. At9:30. B. At 10:00. C. At 10:30.
    第三节:听下面一段独白,独白后有4个小题,请从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟。听完后,各小题将给出 5 秒钟的作答时间。独白读两遍。
    12. Where may yu listen t the ntice(通知)?
    A. In a hspital. B. In a htel. C. In a schl.
    13. Which may be the best visiting time?
    A.8 a. m. B.3 p. m. C.9p. m.
    14. What can peple d accrding t the ntice?
    A. Play the guitar in the rm. B. Play ping-png in the hallway. C. Have fd n the third flr.
    15. Why did the speaker make the ntice?
    A/ T tell peple sme new rules.
    B. T make peple fllw the rules.
    C. T help peple make the rules.
    二、完形填空 (共15小题,每小题 1分,共15分)
    通读下面短文,掌握其大意,然后在各题所给的四个选项(A、B、C和D)中选出一个最佳选项。
    Daming is a bus driver f N. 7 Bus. He 16 his bus alng the streets f Changchun every day. He is a 17 man and always gets ready t give a hand t the peple wh need it.
    18 a snwy night, Daming was n his usual rute(路线). When he was driving his bus in the 19 , he saw a little by walking in the heavy snw. Daming gt a 20 because the by's bdy turned white n the cld night. Daming guessed the by might have prblems and need help 21 he stpped the bus.
    “Hi, by! D yu need help? Culd I give 22 a ride?” But the by didn't 23 r answer him. He went n walking.
    “Yung man, what can I d fr yu? Wuld yu like t get n my 24 and I can take yu t yur hme.” Then the by stpped and lked at Daming. He 25 didn't say anything.
    Daming thught the by must need help s he tk ut his 26 and called the plice t find the by's family. It turned ut the by had autism(自闭症). He ften lst his ways and culdn't talk with ther peple easily. It was really difficult fr him t 27 himself well.
    28 the by's family thanked Daming because f his help. Daming said he had a daughter and a sn. As a father f 29 children, he was very happy t help kids when they had prblems. He believed a 30 activity can make a big difference(影响).
    16. A. washes B. buys C. makes D. drives
    17. A. kind B. tall C. cl D. shy
    18. A. Fr B. At C. In D On
    19. A. park B. street C. village D. cuntry
    20. A. stry B. shw C. surprise D. prblem
    21. A. but B. r C. and D. s
    22. A. yu B. him C. her D. it
    23. A. mve B. walk C. stp D. start
    24. A. bike B. car C. bus D. ship
    25. A. just B. still C. nly D. usually
    26. A. mney B. key C. phne D. picture
    27. A. lk at B. lk like C. lk fr D. lk after
    28. A. All in all B. At first C. At last D. After that
    29. A. ne B. tw C. three D. fur
    30. A. big B. small C. difficult D. slw
    三、阅读理解(共15小题,每小题2分,共30分)
    阅读下列短文,从每题所给的四个选项(A、B、C和D)中选出最佳选项。
    A
    If yu are planning a trip, dn't miss Hangzhu. The fllwing infrmatin in the pster(海报)may help yu.
    31. In which mnth may Tm visit Hangzhu if he likes the ht days?
    A. In January. B. In April. C. In July. D. In Nvember.
    32. What can peple d in Hangzhu accrding t the pster?
    A. Learn t make special fd. B. Have famus meat and tea.
    C. Buy nice stnes in Tnglu. D. Knw histry abut swimming.
    33. What's the purpse(目的) f the pster?
    A. T sell fd t the visitrs. B. T ask peple t d exercise.
    C. T shw the weather in Hangzhu. D. T attract(吸引) peple t visit Hangzhu.
    B
    One day, a hungry fx(狐狸) sees a chicken. He thinks, “Great! It must be my breakfast. ”He cmes up t the chicken and says, “Hell, Miss Chicken! As we all knw, yu are very gd at singing. Can yu teach me t sing a sng?” The chicken is happy t hear that. She clses her eyes and begins t sing. The fx sees that and catches her in his muth quickly. Then he takes the chicken away. The farmers n the farm see the fx. They shut, “Lk! Lk! The fx is taking the chicken away.” Then they run after the fx. The chicken says t the fx,“Mr. Fx, can yu hear that? The peple say yu are taking their chicken away. Yu'd tell them I am yurs, nt theirs.” The fx thinks it's a great idea, s he pens his muth and says,“ Miss Chicken is mine, nt yurs.” Just then the chicken runs away frm the fx and flies int the tree.
    34. When des the fx meet the chicken?
    A. In the mrning. B. In the afternn. C. In the evening. D. At night.
    35. Why des the fx tell the chicken t teach him t sing a sng?
    A. He wants t be a great singer like the chicken.
    B. He wants t catch and eat the chicken easily.
    C. He wants t make friends with the chicken.
    D. He wants t d useful things fr the farmers.
    36. Which f the fllwing sentences may be the best ending f the article(文章)?
    A. The chicken makes friends with the fx. B. The fx eats the chicken fr breakfast.
    C. The chicken cmes back t the farm happily D. The fx learns t sing sngs frm the farmers.
    37. Where may yu see the article?
    A. In a stry bk. B. In an ad. C. In a health guide. D. In a pst card.
    C
    Lily is a student frm Grade Five. She didn't knw what a timeline was. S she asked her father fr help. Her father said. “That is a list f imprtant events(事件) in yur life.”
    “Can yu shw me hw t make a timeline, dad?”
    “Sure! Let's take ut a piece f paper, a pencil and a ruler.”
    Then Lily used the pencil and the ruler t draw a straight line. Then her father marked(标记)a small line acrss the lnger line at the left end. Near the small line, he wrte “Lily is brn.”
    “Why did yu make that small line at the left end, Dad?” Lily asked.
    “On a timeline, we rder events frm left t right. We place the first event n the left end and the last event n the right end.”
    Lily then wrte the mnth, day, and year f her birthday under the first line. Her dad drew anther small line t the right f the first small line. He wrte, “Lily learns t walk” ver that line. Then he marked anther small line t the right f the secnd small line. Over this line he wrte “Lily starts schl”.
    “Oh! I still remember hw I learned t ride my bike. It was exciting!”
    “Right! We shuld write that,” her dad said.
    “I want t draw a picture abut it,” Lily tld her dad. She made a drawing f herself riding a bike and put it n the paper. Her dad put a pht f Lily's first day f schl n the timeline, t.
    In the end, they finished their wrk. Lily said, “That timeline is a picture f my life.”
    38. What des the underlined wrd “timeline” mean in Chinese in Paragraph 1?
    A. 时区 B. 日历 C.时刻表 D.时间轴
    39. Which is Lily's timeline prbably like?
    40. What des the article mainly(主要地) tell us?
    A. Lily learned t draw pictures. B. Lily liked t ask questins.
    C. Lily learned t make a timeline. D. Lily liked t wrk with her dad.
    41. Which wrd can best describe Lily's father?
    A. Smart. B. Strict. C. Shy. D. Lazy.
    D
    D yu hear a little nisy sund when yu're trying t sleep at night? That's me, a msquit. I am singing and flying arund yur bed. Oh, let me give yu a “kiss”! Then yu wake up and scratch(挠痒). Maybe yu want t kill me. But I fly away fast. Maybe yu can't g t sleep. The next mrning yu are late fr schl.
    The type f bld (血型)
    Msquites like t bite(咬) peple with type O bld mst(最). Did yu hear peple say this befre? But that's nt true! In fact, I can't tell which bld type yu have. Only dctrs can d that well. S hw d I pick whm t kiss?
    Clr
    I als use my eyes t lk fr fd. But I dn't see very well. If yu want t keep away frm my kiss, d nt wear clrs such as black. red r dark blue. These clrs help me t see yu better.
    Sweat(汗)
    I find peple by smelling(闻) their sweat. When yu d sprts and start sweating, I can smell yur sweat frm far away. S yummy! But if yu take a shwer t wash yur bdy after exercising. It's very difficult fr me t find yu.
    Heavy Peple
    I can als smell the carbn dixide(二氧化碳) yu breathe ut. If yu are fat r heavy, yu will make mre carbn dixide, and it is really easy fr me t find yu. S, larger and heavier peple are mre likely t(有可能) get my kiss.
    42. What des the underlined wrd “this” mean?
    A. Yu hear a little nisy sund when yu're trying t sleep at night.
    B. The next mrning yu are late fr schl.
    C. Msquites like t bite peple with type O bld mst.
    D. Only dctrs can tell the type O bld.
    43. Which clthes can peple wear if they want t keep away frm a msquit?
    A. Dark brwn shirts. B. White trusers.
    C. Red jackets. D. Black shrts.
    44. Which f the fllwing kids will “I” kiss mst easily?
    45. What's the best title f the article?
    A. A msquit's sund B. A msquit's muth
    C. A msquit's eyes D. A msquit's kiss
    四、任务型阅读(有两节,共5小题,46-49题是选择题,50题回答问题,每小题2分, 共10分。)
    第一节:阅读下面四则广告,请从下面方框所给的A、B、C、D和E五个选项中选择正确的选项填入空白处,其中一项是多余选项。
    46
    Our schl sccer club needs sme players. D yu like playing sccer? Then yu can talk with ur sccer teacher, Mr. Zhang. Please call him at 8665-7868.
    47
    Are yu a lver f music? Can yu play the guitar? Can yu sing r dance? Jin ur Sunshine Rck Band. Please call Mike at 5487-6598 r send an email t sunshine@yah. cm.
    Swimmers Wanted
    48 Are yu gd with children? Can yu teach them t swim n Sundays? Cme and jin us. Call Je at 8472-9999.
    A Pet caregiver(宠托师) wanted
    49 Wuld yu like t lk after dgs? Can yu keep ne r tw pet dgs at hme. D yu have free time t stay with animals n weekends? Please call Mrs. White at 5298-2468.
    A. A vlunteer fr Summer Jb
    B. Guitar Players Wanted
    C. Can yu swim?
    D. Sccer Players Wanted
    E. D yu like dgs?
    第二节:你的朋友Tm是个吉他手,且能歌善舞,请你根据他的特长在第一节的四个招聘广告中为他推荐一份工作并说明理由。 (25词左右)
    50. I think is right fr Tm. Because he
    五、词汇运用(有两节,共15小题,每小题1分,共15分。)
    第一节:选词填空。用方框中所给词语的适当形式填空,每词限用一次。
    eat; beef five different f
    Jack and Lily are brther and sister. They are bth tall and strng. But in sme ways, they are 51 . Jaek lves all kinds f meat very much, like muttn, 52 and chicken. Lk! He 53 bread with fish. But Lily lves vegetables. She eats at least 54 kinds f vegetables every day. She can have a large bwl 55 tmat sup at lunch time. She thinks it's gd fr her health.
    第二节:单词拼写。结合短文内容,根据括号内所给中文或者首字母提示,用单词的正确形式填空,每空限填一词。
    D yu think yu need spend a lt f mney n fun? But sme peple think fun desn't have t be expensive. They have sme c ways t have a gd time. Here are tw f them.
    Yu needn't spend much mney. Fr example, it's a gd way t g 57 (在外面) n fine days. Yu culd leave the city, 58 the green muntains and have the clean air in the cuntryside. Als yu can sit under the 59 (月亮) and watch the beautiful sky.
    Friends are very special peple in yur life. Meeting yur friends is als an 60 (极好的) gd way t have fun. Yu culd c 61 sme delicius fd at hme. Yu can e 62 play sprts n the playgrund r see a film in a cinema. 63 (有时) yu can just have a talk. It must be a gd way t (放松) yurself. 65 (所有事物) is always fine when yu are with yur friends.
    See? Yu dn't need much mney t have a fun day.
    六、语法填空 (共10小题,每小题1分,共10分。)
    We live in a nisy neighbrhd. There 66 (be ) three streets in my neighbrhd- RenmingStreet, Dngfang Street and Hngqi Street. There is a supermarket and a small park in 67 (we)neighbrhd. My mther ften buys different 68 '(kind) f fd r vegetables in the supermarket. My father ften 69 (exercise) in the park. He als likes t play 70 vilin with his friends there. My schl is in the neighbrhd, 71 . It's acrss frm my huse. It's really cnvenient(方便的) fr me /2 (g) t schl. My favrite place is the library near the park 73 it is quiet and I enjy reading there. I ften g there 74 bike. When I read bks in the library, time ges 75/ .(quick).
    七、书面表达 (共1小题,共20分)
    76.假如你是李明,请根据下面记录的一日活动手账图完成一篇英语日记。
    要求: (1)日记必须包括下面图表中所有信息,可适当补充和拓展;
    (2)日记中不得出现姓名、校名等真实信息。
    (3) 词数80-100, 开头已给出, 不计入总词数。

    June 8th
    J had a happy Saturday.



    参考答案
    一、听力 (共三节,满分20分)
    第一节 1-5BACBA
    第二节 6-8ACB 9-11ACC
    第三节 12-15ABCB
    二、完形填空 (本题共 15小题,每小题 1分,共15分)
    16-20 D A D B C 21-25DACCB 26-30CDCBB
    三、阅读理解 (本题共15小题,每小题2分,共30分)
    31-33 C BD 34-37ABCA 38-41DCCA 42-45CBAD
    四、任务型阅读 (本题共5小题,每小题2分,共10分)
    任务一: 46-49 D BC E
    任务二:50.要点:选择工作和陈述理由。
    根据答题要点、语言规范性,语言连贯性酌情给分。
    第一空 guitar players 或者单数 a guitar player或者直接抄写小标题, 都可给分。
    第二空,合理正确即可得分。
    Pssible versin:
    I think guitar players wanted /a guitar player/guitar players is right fr Tm. Because he is gd at playing the guitar and he can sing and dance well.
    五、词汇运用 (本题共两节,共15小题,每小题1分,共15分)
    第一节:选词填空。
    51. different 52. beef 53. is eating 54. five 55. f
    第二节:单词拼写。(单词拼写正确,但是句首首字母没有大写可以不扣分)
    56. cheap 57. ut/ utside 58. climb 59. mn 60. excellent
    61. ck 62. either 63. Smetimes 64. relax 65. Everything
    六、语法填空(本题共10小题,每小题1分,共10分)
    66. are 67. ur 68. kinds 69. exercises 70. the
    71. t 72. t g 73. because 74. by 75. quickly
    七、书面表达 (共1 小题,满分20分)
    评分要点:
    (1)上午三项活动(6分),下午两项活动(4分),晚上活动(4分):
    (2)活动感受或意义 (3分):
    (3)语篇整体结构清晰,语句连贯,表意清楚(2分):
    (4)书写整洁(1分)。
    评分原则:
    1. 按5个档次给分,中档属第三档(9分—12分)。
    2.按学生所写内容和所用语言确定档次(内容分和语言分各占一半)。
    3.总词数不足40个可在本题总得分中扣去2分:超过120个可在本题总得分中扣去2分。
    评分细则:
    第五档(17-20分):涵盖所有要点,条理清楚,逻辑严密,词汇丰富,无或少量影响理解的语言错误,书写规范美观。
    第四档(13-16分):基本涵盖主要内容。语句较流畅,语言通顺,语意连贯。有少量语法和词汇错误。
    第三档(9-12分):部分涵盖主要内容,语言基本通顺,语意基本连贯,存在一些语言错误,句式单一, 但不影响整体理解。
    第二档 (5-8分):能以句子形式表达个别要点,语句不够通顺,语法错误较多,尚能达意。
    第一档 (1-4分):能以与主题相关的完整词组或个别语句表达, 内容不完整,表达不连贯。
    0分:未作答:文字无法识别:书写内容与题目要求无关:抄袭试卷中与主题无关的内容。
    Pssible versin:
    I had a happy Saturday. Frm mrning t evening, I did many interesting things.
    I gt up at 7 and spent the whle mrning ding my hmewrk. Then I was s hungry that I ate lts f delicius vegetables and fish fr lunch.
    In the afternn I had utdr activities. First I visited a farm. There I milked the cw and talked with the farmer abut farming. After that, I played basketball with my friends. We felt great.
    In the evening, I helped my mm ck dinner at hme. After supper we watched a funny mvie and enjyed a relaxing time.
    What a wnderful Saturday!

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