山东省济南市槐荫区2023-2024学年七年级下学期期末考试英语试题

这是一份山东省济南市槐荫区2023-2024学年七年级下学期期末考试英语试题，共9页。
本试题分选择题部分和非选择题部分，共10页，满分为150分，考试用时120分钟。
答题前，请考生务必将自己的姓名、班级和座号填写在答题卡上，并同时将姓名、班级和座号填写在试卷上。
答题时，选择题部分每小题选出答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑；如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。非选择题部分，用0.5毫米黑色签字笔在答题卡上题号所提示的答题区域作答。直接在试题上作答无效。
考试结束后，将本试题和答题卡一并交回。
选择题部分共100分
I. 听力测试 (30分）
A）听录音，从每组句子中选出一个你所听到的句子。每个句子听一遍。
1. A. Have a gd time. B. G alng the rad. C. Tell him t call me back.
2. A. It's ht and sunny. B. I'm watching TV. C. He camped by the lake.
3. A. Was his trip great? B. Can I take yur rder? C. Wuld yu like sme tea?
4. A. There isn't a river here. B. She desn't wear glasses. C. They didn't eat anything.
5. A. Wh did yu talk with? B. Where are yu shpping? C. Hw's everything ging?
B）在录音中，你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。每段对话听两遍。
6. Hw des Jhn get t schl?
A. By bus. B. On ft. C. By bike.
7. Where is the htel?
A. Behind the bank. B. Next t the bank. C. In frnt f the library.
8. Hw was Tny's schl trip?
A. Nt bad. B. Terrible. C. Nice.
9. Wh is Frank's favrite actr?
A. The man with glasses. B. The man f medium build. C. The wman in black.
10. What are they talking abut?
A. Sprts. B. Fd. C. Weather.
C）在录音中，你将听到一段对话，对话后有五个小题，从每小题A、B、C 中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。对话听两遍。（听对话前，你将有40秒钟的读题时间；听完后，你将有40秒钟的答题时间）
11. Hw des Jack feel?
A. Afraid. B. Scared. C. Wrried.
12. Where did Jack lse his bag?
A. On the street. B. In the library. C. In the classrm.
13. What kind f bag is it?
A. A sprts bag. B. A schl bag. C. A shpping bag.
14. What is in the bag?
A. His ntebk. B. His pen. C. His vilin.
15. Wh are Jack and Jenny?
A. Friends. B. Classmates. C. Brther and sister.
D）在录音中，你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。短文听两遍。（听短文前，你将有40秒钟的读题时间；听完后，你将有40秒钟的答题时间）
16. When did Mike g t the muntains?
A. On Saturday mrning. B. On Saturday evening. C. On Sunday mrning.
17. Hw lng did it take Mike t climb the muntains?
A. Tw hurs. B. Half an hur. C. Abut an hur.
18. Wh did Mike feed the sheep with?
A. His parents. B. His grandpa. C. His grandma.
19. Why did Mike g t Shanghai?
A. T buy a rbt. B. T watch a shw. C. T taste sme fd.
20. What des Mike think f his weekend?
A. Tiring but happy. B. Bring but relaxing. C. Busy and terrible.
Ⅱ.阅读理解 阅读下列材料，从每题A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出一个能回答所提问题或完成所给句子的最佳答案。（40分）
A
Oliver is a middle schl student. It's Sunday mrning. He desn't g t schl. He lks utside frm his rm. He wants t g t the park with his father, but it is raining nw. He has t watch TV r read bks in his rm. But it's bring fr him t d these tw things. He really wants the rain t stp nw.
The rain stps in the afternn. Oliver is very happy t see that. Then he ges t the park with his father. The clud ges away, and the sun cmes ut. A big rainbw is in the sky. Many peple like the rainbw because they think it can bring gd luck t them.
" ▲ " Oliver asks his father.“When the sun shines（照射） the raindrps, the rainbw cmes ut. We can't see rainbws if there is n rain,”Oliver's father tells him. And Oliver learns smething frm his father. When we meet had things. just enjy them. And all can be better sn.
21. Hw is Oliver in the mrning?
A. Lucky. B. Busy. C. Relaxed. D. Bred.
22. Hw's the weather in the afternn?
A. Sunny. B. Cludy. C. Rainy. D. Windy.
23. What is a rainbw?
A. B. C. D.
24. What can we put int " ▲ "?
A. Why is there a rainbw? B. Can we see the rainbw at night?
C. Can the rainbw bring us gd luck? D. What makes the rainbw s beautiful?
25. What des the last paragraph（段落） want t tell us?
A. Oliver likes asking questins. B. Oliver's father likes telling stries.
C. Dn't be afraid f bad things in life. D. The rainbw cmes ut befre the rain.
B
On July 31, a very special baby giraffe was hrn（出生） at a z in America. Tall giraffes are famus fr their spts（斑点）, but this giraffe lks different —it desn't have any spts.
David Bright, wh runs the z, said, "We dn't ften see this kind f giraffes. The last time I saw that was in Japan in 1972." A giraffe has its spts when it is still grwing inside its mther. S this giraffe will never have spts in her life.
The yung giraffe's name is Kipekee, which means "special" in English. Mr Bright said that his family thught abut hundreds f names fr the giraffe. And there were fur chices: Kipekee, Firyali, Shakiri, Jamella. At last, the z asked peple arund the city fr help t decide（决定） ne fr the special animal.
Giraffes are brn really large. When Kipekee was a mnth ld, she was abut 1.8 meters tall. Mr Bright said Kipekee is a girl and she's very sweet and friendly. Peple like t see her, s she is really ppular at the z.
26. Why is the baby giraffe special?
A. It has n spts. B. It is very tall. C. It has lng legs. D. It stays in the z.
27. When d the giraffe's spts frm（形成）?
A. When it is 1.8 meters tall. B. When it is in gd health.
C. When it is ne mnth ld. D. When it is in its mther's bdy.
28. What can we knw frm paragraph 2?
A. The special giraffe is ne mnth ld.
B. Peple dn't ften see a giraffe at the z.
C. Japan had this kind f giraffe ver 50 years ag.
D. The giraffe is the secnd ne with n spts in Japan.
29. Wh decided the name Kipekee fr the special giraffe?
A. David Bright. B. Brights Z's wrkers.
C. Peple arund the city. D. David Bright's family.
30. On which website（网站） may yu read this text?
A. B.
C. D.
C
D yu have a garden? D yu help yur parents r grandparents in the garden? S why nt grw yur wn vegetables? We all need t eat lts f vegetables and grwing vegetables is a lt f fun.
What is yur favrite vegetable? What vegetables d yur family like t eat? Pick the vegetables yu want t grw. Tmates, nins, and cabbages are all easy t grw. Plant lts f different nes, and then yu can see which yu and yur family like best!
Yu shuld rake（翻土） and dig sme hles（挖洞）. Then plant yur seeds（种子） r vegetable plants in the hles. Yu shuld water yur vegetable plants every day. The best time t water them is in the mrning. Ask a friend r smene in yur family t water them when yu can't d it. Remember, yu shuld always plant vegetables in a sunny place and in gd sil（土壤）. Yu can't plant vegetables utside when the weather is cld because they wn't grw.
Yu dn't need a big garden t grw vegetables. Yu culd grw them in big bxes. And when yur vegetables are ready, yu can pick them, wash them, ck them and eat them! Als, yu dn't need t spend a lt f time. S, why nt start yur vegetable garden tday?
31. Hw des the writer start the text in paragraph 1?
A. By telling sme stries. B. By asking sme questins.
C. By giving different ideas. D. By using different numbers.
32. What des the writer mainly tell us in paragraph 3?
A. Hw we can plant vegetables. B. Hw the weather is.
C. Why we can plant vegetables. D. What vegetables we can plant.
33. What can we learn frm the text?
A. Tmates and nins are difficult t grw.
B. It's best t water vegetables in the mrning.
C. Yu shuld plant vegetables when it is cld.
D. Yu must have a big garden t grw vegetables.
34. What des the writer think f grwing vegetables?
A. It's interesting but expensive. B. It's easy but takes yu much time.
C. It's great fun and yu can try（尝试）. D. It's bring but yu can learn a lt.
35. Which is the best title（标题） fr the text?
A. Terrible Farm Wrk B. Gd Eating Habits
C. Favrite Vegetables D. A Vegetable Garden
D
D yu ften play with yur phne befre bedtime? D yu like playing games with yur friends n the Internet? Accrding t a study, it will be difficult fr us t sleep well when we lk at the screens（屏幕） at night. In the evening, ur bdies make melatnin（褪黑素）. It can help us feel sleepy and relaxed. And it's an imprtant part f ur sleep cycle（周期）. Hwever, ur electrnic screens stp that cycle frm wrking nrmally.
;/hy d we say that? That is because phnes, cmputers and TVs can make blue light. The blue light stps ur bdies frm making melatnin. Even just a little bit f blue light can have an effect（影响）. Eight minutes f blue light can keep yur brain“awake”fr anther hur. Yur brain wn't have a gd rest.
It's even wrse（更差） if yu play an exciting game befre bed. Games make ur hearts beat faster and s we have a harder time falling asleep（入睡）. Even we fall asleep, we dn't get as much "deep sleep" as we need.
●Sleep is s imprtant. Hw d we get a gd sleep? Here are five tips fr yu:
●Take a warm shwer r read a bk.
●Sleep in a dark, quiet rm that is nt t warm r t cld.
●Cunt sheep. It's the ldest way, but it really wrks!
●Dn't eat a big meal r have cffee. Instead, drink milk.
●Dn't run arund r exercise three hurs befre bedtime.
36. What can we learn abut melatnin?
A. It helps us feel sleepy and relaxed. B. T much f it makes us sleep badly.
C. It makes us feel hungry and tired. D. It stps ur sleep cycle frm wrking well.
37. Hw d phnes and cmputers make it hard fr us t sleep?
A. They cannt make us feel relaxed.
B. They can help us make mre dreams.
C. They help ur bdies make mre melatnin.
D. Our bdy can't make melatnin with the blue light.
38. What des "awake" mean in paragraph 2?
A. Dreaming a lt. B. Nt being asleep. C. Falling asleep. D. Having a rest.
39. What shuld yu d befre bedtime if yu want t get a gd night's sleep?
A. Drinking cffee with milk. B. Running frm 7 p. m. t 10 p. m.
C. Taking a cld shwer. D. Keeping yur bedrm dark.
40. What's the text mainly abut?
A. What we shuld d befre bed.
B. Why peple shuld have enugh sleep.
C. Hw phnes affect（影响） sleep and hw t have a gd sleep.
D. Why melatnin is an imprtant part f ur sleep cycle.
III.阅读理解七选五 根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。（10分）
The Mna Lisa(《蒙娜丽莎》) is a famus painting arund the wrld. Many peple lve it and want t see it. 41
Sme peple say it's Alng the River During the Qingming Festival(《清明上河图》). It is the best-knwn sc rll painting in Chinese art histry. 42 Lts f peple wait fr abut six hurs t see it there every day.
43 He is a great artist. And it is the nly existing（现存的） painting frm him. Thepainting is 24.8 centimeters wide and 5.28 meters lng. It shws us the real life in the cuntryside and in the city during the Qingming Festival in the Nrthern Sng Dynasty（朝代）.
There are three parts in the painting: spring in the cuntryside, crwded Bianhe River prts and busy city streets. There are a lt f peple in it. 44 And they wear different clthes which lk beautiful.
This painting is a great artwrk. 45 As students, we culd learn smething abut ur Chinese histry and be prud（自豪） f it.
IV.补全对话 阅读对话，从每题A、B、C、D 四个选项中，选出一个最佳答案完成对话。（5分）
A: Hw was yur weekend, Liming?
B: 46 I had a great time.
A: Where did yu g?
B: 47
A: Really? 48
B: I saw a lt f lvely animals and played games there. What abut yu?
A: I had a gd time at Lisa's party. And I met a new friend, Jack.
B: Jack? 49
A: He is frm America. And he has shrt hair and wears glasses.
B: What is he ding in China?
A: 50 He wrks in a language schl.
B: Sunds great.
46. A. Terrible! B. Pretty gd!
C. Nt much. D. Just s s.
47. A. I went t the z. B. I ate in a restaurant.
C. I swam with my friends. D. I read a bk in the library.
48. A. Where did yu g? B. What did yu d there?
C. Did yu have fun there? D. Hw did yu g there?
49. A. Hw ld is he? B. Where is he frm?
C. What des he d? D. What des he think f the party?
50. A. He is learning Chinese. B. He is visiting his parents.
C. He is lking fr a jb. D. He is teaching English.
V.完形填空 阅读短文，从每题A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出一个能填入文章中相应空白处的最佳答案。（15分）
A crw（乌鸦） lived in the frest and was very happy with his life. But ne day he 51 a swan（天鹅）.“This swan is s white,”he thught,“and I am s black. This swan must be the happiest bird in the wrld.”
He tld his ideas t 52 swan. The swan answered, "I was feeling that I was the happiest bird 53 I saw a parrt, which has tw clrs. Nw I 54 the parrt is the happiest bird." The crw then went t the parrt. The parrt said, "I lived a very happy life until I saw a peacck（孔雀）. I have nly tw 55 , but the peacck has many clrs."
The crw then visited a peacck in the z and saw that many peple 56 him. After the peple left, the crw went t the peacck. "Dear peacck," the crw said, "yu are s 57 . Every day s many peple visit yu. But when peple see 58 , they g away at nce. I think yu are the happiest bird in the wrld."
The peacck answered, "I 59 thught that I was the mst beautiful and happiest bird in the wrld. But because f my beauty, peple catch me int this 60 . I lk arund the z very carefully, and I find that the crw is the nly bird nt in a cage（笼子）. S I hpe that if I were a crw, I culd fly everywhere 61 ."
We als have the same 62 as the crw. We always cmpare（比较） 63 thers and becme sad. As a result, this leads t the wrst cycle f unhappiness! 64 t be happy with what yu have is imprtant. If n c is 65 with himself, he is the happiest in the wrld.
51. A. arrived B. helped C. left D. saw
52. A. a B. an C. the D. /
53. A. because B. s C. befre D. after
54. A. think B. hpe C. ask D. answer
55. A. eggs B. clrs C. feet D. hands
56. A. gt B. talked C. came D. visited
57. A. big B. beautiful C. busy D. free
B. yu C. him D. her
59. A. never B. always C. ften D. usually
60. A. pl B. garden C. park D. z
61. A. quickly B. easily C. early D. differently
62. A. stry B. dream C. frest D. prblem
63. A. fr B. at C. with D. in
64. A. Learning B. Wrking C. Ding D. Hping
65. A. angry B. sad C. surprise D. happy
非选择题部分 共50分
Ⅵ.阅读填空 阅读下面句子和短文，在空白处填入适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。（15分）
Many peple d nt like t stay at hme n vacatins. They want t g ut t see different things r try 66. ______.(excite) things. Smetimes peple frm the cuntry g t the city and peple frm the city g t the cuntry fr vacatins. Trains, buses and planes are all very busy n vacatins. It is very hard 67. ______ (buy) tickets（票）. Many peple take cars r buses fr travelling.
I like travelling, t. Here is a pht f 68. ______(I) family during last summer hliday. I was enjying the delicius fd with my parents in the pht. Last summer hliday, my family went t the cuntry by car. There 69. ______(be) t many cars n the rad, s we had t drive 70. ______(slw). It tk us abut an hur t get ut f the city. After sme time, we came t a farm71. ______ lts f flwers. It was clean and the animals were very lvely. We thught it was a nice place fr picnic（野餐）,72. ______ we stpped and had the fd, fruit and drinks ut f the car. We lved t spend time having delicius fd with ur family. After that, we bught sme 73. ______(gift) fr ur friends. But sn it started t rain. We 74. ______(drive) back hme quickly. All in all, it was 75. ______ excellent trip and it left sweet memries in my life.
VII. 书面表达 (35分）
第一部分 情境运用 根据所提供的图片，用一个完整的句子提问或应答。
76.
A: _____________________________?
B: At 7:00.
77.
A: Is Rick playing vlleyball?
B: N. ____________________________.
78.
A: _____________________________?
B: She has lng curly hair.
79.
A: _____________________________?
B: It was rainy yesterday.
80.
A: What did yu d last weekend?
B: ______________________________.
第二部分 写作
步入中学校园已满一年，相信你不仅学到了丰富的知识，也结识了志同道合的朋友，请你以“My friend”为题， 介绍一下你的朋友。
要点包括：
1.朋友的外貌、性格等；
2.你们一起经历的难忘的事情。
注意：
1.词数100左右；
2.不得抄袭试卷中的原文、原句；
3.可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯；
4.不得出现真实的人名、校名等相关信息。
My friend
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2023~2024学年度第二学期期末质量检测
七年级英语试题参考答案（2024.06)
I. 1-5 BBCAA 6-10 CBCAB 11-15 CBAAC 16-20 ACBBA
II.21-25 DABAC 26-30 ADCCB 31-35 BABCD 36-40 ADBDC
III.41. B 42. C 43. A 44. G 45. D
IV.46-50 BABBD
V.51-55 DCCAB 56-60 DBABD 61-65 BDCAD
VI. 66. exciting 67. t buy 68. my 69. were 70. slwly
71. with 72. s 73. gifts 74. drve 75. an
Ⅶ.第一节
76. What time d yu/ des he get up?
77. He is flying a kite/ the kite/ kites.
78. What des Carl lk like?
79. Hw was the weather yesterday?/ What was the weather like yesterday?
80. I/ We climbed the muntain/ muntains (last weekend).
第一节 评分标准：本题共10分。第76—80题，每小题2分。每个句子完全正确给2分；出现错误但关键信息正确给1分；关键信息错误给0分。
第二节 评分标准：略A. The artist Zhang Zeduan made it.
B. But d yu knw China's Mna Lisa?
C. Nw it is at the Palace Museum in Beijing.
D. It is als a "textbk" （课本） fr us t learn abut histry.
E. D yu want t knw mre abut The Mna Lisa?
F. These three parts shw what life was like in Bianjing.
G. They are ding all kinds f things like selling and drinking tea.