河北省邯郸市冀南新区2023-2024学年七年级下学期期末英语试题

这是一份河北省邯郸市冀南新区2023-2024学年七年级下学期期末英语试题，共13页。试卷主要包含了 A等内容，欢迎下载使用。
本试卷共8页。总分120分，考试时间120分钟。
第一部分 听力（共30分）
Ⅰ. 听句子，选出该句的最准答语（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
( ) 1. A. Sunds gd.B. Yes, there is.C. Sure, here yu are.
( ) 2. A. Gd idea.B. It’s relaxing.C. I like instruments.
( ) 3. A. OK, I see.B. It lks cute.C. Fr a lng walk.
( ) 4. A. I hpe s.B. Nt badC. Last Mnday.
( ) 5. A. Once a week.B. Cme in, please.C. Srry, I’ll clean it nw.
Ⅱ. 听对话和问题，选择正确答案（共13小题；每小题1分，满分13分）
( ) 6. Which seasn des Sally like better?
A. B. C.
( ) 7. What’s Jhn’s brther ding?
A. B. C.
( ) 8. What activity will Sam take part in n July 15?
A. An art festival.B. The schl trip.C. An English cmpetitin.
( ) 9. What subject des the new teacher teach?
A. Art.B. Shp.C. Music.
( ) 10. Hw des Kim like the class?
A. Hard.B. Bring.C. Interesting.
( ) 11. What will Kim shw Dave tmrrw?
A. A watch.B. A pht.C. A paper bridge.
( ) 12. What sprt will Michael try?
A. Ping-png.B. Vlleyball.C. Tennis.
( ) 13. What is his bad habit?
A. Ging t bed late.B. Being late fr schl.C. Playing nline games.
( ) 14. What is he asking fr frm Miss White?
A. Life suggestins.B. Ways f study.C. Wrk experience.
( ) 15. What will the weather be like tmrrw?
A. Sunny.B. Rainy.C. Windy.
( ) 16. Where will Jack g tmrrw?
A. T the park.B. T the village.C. T the beach.
( ) 17. Hw will Jack get there?
A. By bus.B. By bike.C. By car.
( ) 18. Why des Jenny like running?
A. It helps her grw tall.B. It makes her sleep well.C. It helps her stay in shape.
Ⅲ. 听短文和问题，选择正确答案（共7小题；每小题1分，满分7分）
( ) 19. When is the final exam?
A. On June 26.B. On June 28.C. On June 30.
( ) 20. What’s the secnd suggestin?
A. Never Swim alne.B. G back hme early.C. Eat mre healthy fd.
( ) 21. What shuld the students d n the last schl day?
A. Give away bks.B. Make hliday plans.C. Clean the classrm.
( ) 22. Where is Vera frm
A. The U.K.B. Germany.C. Russia.
( ) 23. What des her father d in Lndn?
A. A dctr.B. A guide.C. A teacher.
( ) 24. Hw did she imprve her English?
A. She watched English vides.
B. She read English magazines.
C. She read English strybks
( ) 25. What des Vera ften d with her classmates after class?
A. They sing sngs.B. They draw pictures.C. They tell jkes.
Ⅳ. 听短文填空（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
第二部分 语言运用（共25分）
Ⅴ. 完形填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）阅读下面短文，从各小题所给的四个选项中选出最佳选项。
In the future, maybe rbts will wrk as teachers. They will 31 us English, Chinese, science and even P.E.
The rbt teachers are quite 32 and they seem (似乎) t knw everything. Yu can ask them any questins at any time. With a gd knwledge f everything, they can answer yur questins 33 and easily. 34 yu meet smething bad in yur studies r life, ask them. They will share their ideas 35 yu.
The rbt teachers will have a gd temper (脾气). They will 36 get angry. S, dn’t wrry abut making 37 . They are always nice t students and can help them with their mistakes. At the same time, they will never feel 38 fr wrking day and night. What’s mre, they are better at mind activities, such as chess and card games. We can imprve ur thinking 39 by (通过) playing with them. That’s fun.
I 40 such gd rbt teachers. I believe there will be rbt teachers in the near future.
( ) 31. A. leaveB. teachC. bringD. shw
( ) 32. A. richB. sillyC. busyD. clever
( ) 33. A. angrilyB. luckilyC. quicklyD. especially
( ) 34. A. IfB. OrC. ButD. Befre
( ) 35. A. frB. withC. abutD. frm
( ) 36. A. neverB. alwaysC. usuallyD. smetimes
( ) 37. A. changesB. examplesC. mistakesD. sentences
( ) 38. A. tiredB. relaxedC. shameD. interested
( ) 39. A. rightsB. skillsC. chancesD. facts
( ) 40. A. laugh atB. think fC. take care fD. lk frward t
Ⅵ. 短文填空（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）阅读下面短文，在空白处填入一个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式（每空不多于两词）。
Frank is in the baseball team. The team’s name is the Lins. It 41.___________ (mean) everyne in it is strng and fast.
A mnth ag, Frank tk part in the 42.___________ (fur) baseball game. He felt 43.___________ (excite) then. And he decided 44.___________ (try) his best fr it. After schl, Frank and his teammates spent their free time 45.___________ (practice) baseball. When the day came, each f 46.___________ (they) felt nervus. The cach (教练) said, “Take it easy. I’ll be n 47.___________ (yu) side. Wish yu 48.___________ big success.” During the game, Frank played hard 49.___________ usual. The cach tk many 50.___________ (pht) f them.
Finally, they wn the game. 51.___________ gd news it was! The teammates thught that they were just lucky, 52.___________ the cach said they were wrth it. 53.___________ hard wrk, they wuldn’t win. After the game, they held a party. At the party, they 54.___________ (share) a cake. And Frank played 55.___________ guitar. They enjyed themselves.
第三部分 阅读（共40分）
Ⅶ. 阅读理解（共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分）阅读A、B、C、D四篇材料，然后从各小题所给的四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Everyne in the Smith family shares the husewrk. Let’s see what they usually d.
( ) 56. When des Linda make breakfast?
A. On Mnday.B. On Thursday.C. On Saturday.D. On Sunday.
( ) 57. What des Mr. Smith help d in the kitchen?
A. Set the table.B. Ck dinner.C. D the dishes.D. Clean the flr.
( ) 58. Hw ften d the kids clean their bedrms?
A. Once a week.B. Twice a week.
C. Three times a week.D. Every day.
B
It was s bring fr me t stay at hme last Sunday. S after lunch, I went t the library and wanted t read sme interesting bks. But when I gt there, unluckily, I fund it wasn’t pen. I felt very unhappy, s I bught an ice cream. It tasted gd, and the price wasn’t high. When I was eating, I fund it lked like a rund face. In fact, it lked like a cute panda! “Why nt g t the z?” I thught. S I quickly went t the bus statin.
Just as I gt t the statin at 2:00 p.m., anther unlucky thing happened—it started t rain! I culdn’t g t the z because the rain was s heavy. I culd just eat my ice cream and stay in the statin fr abut 3 hurs befre the rain stpped!
At last, I had t g back hme sadly. I realized ▲ . That way, when life was bring. I wuld have smething t d.
( ) 59. What did the writer think f the ice cream?
A. Bad and expensive.B. Gd but expensive.
C. Bad but nt expensive.D. Gd and nt expensive.
( ) 60. What time did the rain stp?
A. At abut 3:00 p.m.B. At abut 4:00 p.m.
C. At abut 5:00 p.m.D. At abut 6:00 p.m.
( ) 61. Which is the best fr ▲ ?
A. I had a terrible day.B. I lived a bring life.
C. I shuldn’t g ut tday.D. I shuld learn smething new.
C
What is Andy ging t d when he is free n weekends? Lk at what he writes!
( ) 62. What is Uncle Liu’s farm famus fr?
A. Ging fishing.B. Feeding animals.
C. Planting vegetables.D. Picking grapes.
( ) 63. What is Andy ging t d n June 9?
A. Wrk as a vlunteer.B. Spend time in nature.
C. Learn abut the city culture.D. Have a party with his friends.
( ) 64. Hw will Andy help his parents understand his English?
a. Use bdy language.b. Just say English wrds.
c. Only speak easy sentences.d. Shw them pictures f wrds.
A. abB. bcC. cdD. ad
( ) 65. What are the plans fr?
A. Andy’s jb.B. Andy’s lessns.
C. Andy’s weekends.D. Andy’s schl activities.
D
I’m Je. I’m fat fr bad habit. My dctr said I must lse weight. I tld my father I wanted t d sme sprts. He said I culd g t the sprts centre. I tk his suggestin. I went there the next day.
A wman teacher there met me. She asked me sme questins first and then she said swimming was right fr me. Then I learned t swim frm her. But I always felt scared when swimming. I nce asked my teacher, “Can I d ther sprts?” She said, “Yes, f curse. Yu can run r dance. They are als gd ways t lse weight.” I hated running because it was difficult and bring fr me. I was interested in dancing, s I tk it.
Frm Mnday t Friday. I went t the sprts centre. On Saturday mrning, I played basketball with my friends. On Sunday afternn, I rde my bike. In the first mnth, I lst 5 kg (公斤). Then in the third mnth, I lst 5 kg again. Six mnths later. I lst 25 kg in all.
Nw, I exercise almst every day t stay thin. And I lve dancing very much! I even signed up (报名) fr a dancing cmpetitin. D yu have any interests in the cmpetitin? If yes, let me intrduce it t yu next.
( ) 66. What is the father’s suggestin?
A. Being a dctr.B. Lsing weight.
C. Changing habits.D. Ging t the sprts centre.
( ) 67. Why did Je give up swimming?
A. He was afraid in the water.B. Swimming was bring fr him.
C. T many peple swam there.D. He didn’t meet a right teacher.
( ) 68. What des the underlined wrd “hated” mean?
A. Kept.B. Enjyed.C. Didn’t like.D. Practiced
( ) 69. Hw much weight did Je lse in all after 6 mnths?
A. 30 kg.B. 25 kg.C. 10 kg.D. 5kg.
( ) 70. What will Je tell us next?
A. His new interests.B. His practice fr dancing.
C. Ways f keeping thin.D. Infrmatin abut the cmpetitin.
Ⅷ. 阅读表达（共5小题；第71题1分，第72～74题每题2分，第75题3分，满分10分）阅读短文，根据短文内容回答问题。
Campbell is a student frm Australia. He makes ty bears fr sick children in his free time.
The stry began when Campbell was nine. He wanted t send gifts t children in hspital. But he didn’t have enugh mney. The little by didn’t give up. He planned t make presents fr them by himself
Campbell made his first ty bear in his bedrm. He learned frm the vides n the Internet. It was hard fr Campbell. It tk him a lng time t finish the first ne—abut five hurs. But nw he can make a ty bear in an hur. He als started a prject called “Prject 365 by Campbell”. He tries t make ne every day.
T raise mre mney fr the sick kids, Campbell helps his parents with husewrk. Smetimes, he als sells (卖) ty bears nline. With the mney, the kids with pr health can get well sn. And his tys are becming ppular day by day.
Campbell gave away abut 1,300 ty bears. He is nw busy making this year’s tys. He never thinks f stpping and he will keep putting smiles n children’s faces.
71. Wh des Campbell make ty bears fr?
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
72. Hw did Campbell learn t make his first ty bear?
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
73. Hw lng did it take Campbell t finish his first ty bear?
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
74. What des Campbell d t raise mre mney? (列举文中提到的两点)
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
75. What d yu think f Campbell? Why?
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
第四部分 情景交际（共10分）
Ⅸ. 补全对话（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）根据下面的对话情景，在每个空白处填上一个恰当的句子，使对话的意思连贯、完整。
A: Oh, Amy. Help me, please. I’m nt gd at English at all.
B: 76.______________________________. There will be a talk abut English tday. Wuld yu like t listen t it?
A: 77.______________________________. That’s imprtant t me.
B: Wnderful! We can g tgether.
A: 78.______________________________?
B: A teacher frm America. She is ging t give us the talk.
A: 79.______________________________?
B: She will tell us sme gd ways f learning English.
A: That wuld be nice! 80.______________________________?
B: It will start at 2:30 p.m. Time is up. Let’s g nw!
第五部分 写作（共15分）
Ⅹ. 书面表达（满分15分）
81. 假如你是李华，你的英国朋友Tm想了解你的志愿经历及计划。请你根据以下邮件内容，用英语进行回复。
注意：(1) 回复内容须回答邮件中的3个问题，可适当发挥。
(2) 文中不得出现真实的人名、校名和地名。
(3) 词数60个左右（开头和结尾已给出，不计入总词数）。
Dear Tm,
Thanks fr yur e-mail. I’m happy t share my vlunteer experience and plan.
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
Yurs,
Li Hua
河北省2023—2024学年七年级第二学期期末考试
英语（冀教版）听力部分
第一题：听句子，选出该句的最佳答语。下面你将听到五个句子，每个句子读两遍。请你听完句子的第二遍朗读后，从各小题所
给出的A、B、C三个选项中，选出该句的最佳答语。
N. 1. Is there a pet in yur hme?
N. 2. Why dn’t yu jin the music club?
N. 3. Tim, dn’t leave yur cat alne utside.
N. 4. Hw did yu d n the math exam?
N. 5. What a mess yur rm is, Greg!
第二题：听对话和问题，选择正确答案。下面你将听到六组对话和十三个问题，每组对话和问题读两遍。请你听完对话和问题的第二遍朗读后，从各小题所给出的A、B、C三个选项中，选出正确答案。
请听第一组对话，回答第6题。
M: I like summer. It’s a gd seasn fr swimming. Hw abut yu, Sally?
W: Well, summer is t ht. I like winter better. I can play snwball fights.
M: Oh, that’s a very interesting game.
Questin N. 6. Which seasn des Sally like better?
请听第二组对话，回答第7题。
W: Dn’t speak s ludly, Jhn.
M: Why? I’m talking with my friend n the phne.
W: Lk, yu brther is playing chess.
M: All right. I’ll be quiet.
Questin N. 7. What’s Jhn’s brther ding?
请听第三组对话，回答第8题。
M: Hell, Helen. When is the schl trip?
W: It’s n July 15. Will yu take part in it, Sam?
M: I’m afraid I can’t. I have an English cmpetitin that day.
W: All right. Gd luck t yu.
Questin N. 8. What activity will Sam take part in n July 15?
请听第四组对话，回答第9至11题。
W: Hey, Dave! Lk at the pht f my new teacher.
M: She lks nice. Des she teach music r art, Kim?
W: Oh, n, she is my shp teacher.
M: Really? The class must be very interesting.
W: Yu are right. Last class we learned t make paper bridges.
M: Sunds gd. Can yu shw me yurs?
W: Sure. I will bring it t yu tmrrw.
M: OK.
Questin N. 9. What subject des the new teacher teach?
Questin N. 10. Hw des Kim like the class?
Questin N. 11. What will Kim shw Dave tmrrw?
请听第五组对话，回答第12至14题。
M: Miss White, I want t imprve my life. But hw can I d that?
W: Yu can exercise mre, Michael. It keeps yur mind active.
M: All right. I’ll try tennis. That’s fun.
W: And yu can als change yur bad habit.
M: Well, I used t g t bed late. That’s really nt gd.
W: Dn’t wrry. It’s never t late. Change it frm nw n.
M: OK, I will. Thanks fr yur life suggestins.
W: Yu’re welcme.
Questin N. 12. What sprt will Michael try?
Questin N. 13. What is his bad habit?
Questin N. 14. What is he asking fr frm Miss White?
请听第六组对话，回答第15至18题。
M: Is it ging t be rainy tmrrw, Jenny? I plan t g utside.
W: The radi said it will be sunny. And where will yu g, Jack?
M: T the village fr fun.
W: Is it far frm here?
M: N, just abut 5 kilmetres. Riding a bike is OK. D yu want t jin me?
W: Srry, I plan t d sme sprts in the park.
M: N prblem. Then what sprts d yu like?
W: I like running very much. It can help me stay in shape.
M: Yeah, a very gd sprt. Enjy yurself tmrrw!
W: Thank yu. The same t yu.
Questin N. 15. What will the weather be like tmrrw?
Questin N. 16. Where will Jack g tmrrw?
Questin N. 17. Hw will Jack get there?
Questin N. 18. Why des Jenny like running?
第三题：听短文和问题，选择正确答案。下面你将听到两篇短文和七个问题，短文和问题读两遍。请你听完短文和问题的第二遍朗读后，根据所听内容，从各小题所给出的A、B、C三个选项中，选出正确答案。
请听第一篇短文，回答第19至21题。
Hi, everyne. The summer hliday is cming. Befre that, yu need t take the final exam. It’s n June 28. Are yu ready fr that? Here I have three hliday suggestins fr yu. First, g back hme early. Dn’t play utside t late. Secnd, never swim alne. It’s nt safe and yu may lse yur life. Third, eat mre healthy fd. It’s gd fr yu. There’s anther thing. Remember t clean the classrm n the last schl day. That’s all. Hpe yu d well in the exam and have a gd hliday.
Questin N. 19. When is the final exam?
Questin N. 20. What’s the secnd suggestin?
Questin N. 21. What shuld the students d n the last schl day?
请听第二篇短文，回答第22至25题。
Hell, I’m Vera. I’m frm Germany. I mved t Lndn, the U.K. with my parents last year. My father fund a jb here and nw he wrks as a dctr. I lve the city. Hwever, at first, my English was nt gd. It wrried me a lt. One day, the English magazines in the bkshp caught my eyes. They were full f funny pictures and stries. Frm then n, I started t read magazines. My English imprved in this way. Nw I can cmmunicate mre with my classmates in English. We ften tell jkes after class. I live a happy life here.
Questin N. 22. Where is Vera frm?
Questin N. 23. What des her father d in Lndn?
Questin N. 24. Hw did she imprve her English?
Questin N. 25. What des Vera ften d with her classmates after class?
第四题：听短文填空。下面你将听到一篇短文，短文读两遍。请你听完短文的第二遍朗读后，根据短文的内容和提示，在信息表中相应的横线上填入所缺信息。
Mike likes camping. Yesterday he went t a hill with his friends fr a camp. The air was fresh and the sky was blue and clear. After they gt there, it was almst nn. They had sme pie fr lunch. In the afternn, they walked arund the hill. At the suth f the hill, there is a field fr fruits. They picked strawberries there. It was wnderful. Time passed quickly. It was getting dark. Befre ging hme, they wished t take a shrt tur tgether again. What a nice day!
参考答案与评分标准
第一部分 听力
Ⅰ. 1—5 BAABC Ⅱ. 6—8 BAC 9—11 BCC 12—14 CAA 15—18 ABBC Ⅲ. 19—21 BAC 22—25 BABC
评分标准：1. 1—25小题，每小题1分，满分25分。2. 凡与答案不符者不得分。
Ⅳ. 26. hill 27. clear 28. pie 29. strawberries 30. tur
评分标准：1. 每小题1分，满分5分。2. 凡与答案不符，但所填信息与答案意思相同且与题目要求相符者，可酌情给分。
第二部分 语言运用
Ⅴ. 31—35 BDCAB 36—40 ACABD
评分标准：1. 每小题1分，满分10分。2. 凡与答案不符者不得分。
Ⅵ. 41. means 42. furth 43. excited 44. t try 45. practicing 46. them 47. yur 48. a 49. as 50. phts 51. What 52. but 53. Withut 54. shared 55. the
评分标准：1. 41-55小题，每小题1分，满分15分。2. 凡与答案不符，但所填词语与题目要求相符者，可酌情给分。
第三部分 阅读
Ⅶ. 56—58 DCB 59—61 DCD 62—65 DBDC 66—70 DACBD
评分标准：1.每小题2分，满分30分。2. 凡与答案不符者不得分。
Ⅷ. 71. Sick children.
72. He learned frm the vides n the Internet.
73. Abut 5 hurs.
74. He helps his parents with husewrk. He als sells ty bears nline.
75. I think he is helpful and kind. Because he helps kids and brings them happiness.（答案不唯一，合理即可）
评分标准：1. 第71题1分,第72-74题每题2分，第75题3分，满分10分。2. 凡与答案不符，但所填内容与答案意思相近且与题目要求相符者，可酌情给分。有关语法及拼写（包括大小写）等错误酌情减分。
第四部分 情景交际
IX. 76. Dn’t wrry./ Dn’t be sad./ ...
77. Yes, I’d lve t./ Sure./ Yes, f curse./ ...
78. Wh will give the talk?/ ...
79. What will the teacher tell us?/ What will she talk abut?/ ...
80. What time is it ging t start?/ What time will it begin?/ ...
评分标准：1. 每小题2分，满分10分。2. 句中大小写错误，每两个扣0.5分。单词拼写错误，每两个扣1分。
3. 此题答案不唯一。如果考生写出的句子与情景相符，符合英语表达习惯，且上下文意思连贯，表达无误，应当给分。
第五部分 写作
X. 81. One pssible versin:
Dear Tm,
Thanks fr yur e-mail. I’m happy t share my vlunteer experience and plan.
I nce vlunteered in the animals’ centre. There, I tk gd care f pets like feeding and cleaning. Als, I walked the dgs almst every day. T tell yu the truth, it was tiring, but I felt happy fr making the animals live a cmfrtable life.
During the summer hliday, I plan t help mre animals withut hmes. It’s ging t be a wnderful summer.
Yurs,
Li Hua
一、评分原则
1. 本题总分为15分，按五个档次给分。
2. 评分时，先根据短文的内容要点初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的语言要求来衡量、确定或调整档次，最后给分。
3. 短文中若出现真实的人名、校名或地名，酌情减分。
二、评分标准
三、说明
1. 内容要点可以用不同方式表达。 2. 相同的错误不重复计算。
题号
Ⅰ
Ⅱ
Ⅲ
Ⅳ
Ⅴ
Ⅵ
Ⅶ
Ⅷ
Ⅸ
Ⅹ
得分
A camping trip
Place26. t a ___________
The sky27. blue and ___________
Fd fr lunch28. sme ___________
In the afternntake a walk;
29. pick ___________
Wish t30. take a shrt ___________ again
Make breakfast
Mnday t Wednesday: Mrs. Smith
Thursday and Friday: Mr. Smith
Saturday: Sam
Sunday: Linda and Bb
Help in the kitchen
Mrs. Smith cks dinner.
Sam sets the table.
Bb clears the table.
Linda cleans the flr.
Mr. Smith washes the dishes.
Clean the living rm
Mnday, Wednesday and Friday: Mrs. Smith and Linda
The ther days: Mr. Smith and the bys
What else
●The kids clean their bedrms every Thursday and Sunday.
●The kids thrw rubbish (垃圾) in turn every day.
June 2: Fruit picking time
Sme farms are famus fr feeding animals, thers fr planting vegetables, but Uncle Liu’s farm is famus fr its delicius grapes. Why nt wear cmfrtable clthes and have a fruit picking with Mum and Dad?
June 8: Museum trip
G t the art museum. Learn abut the culture and histry f ur city.
June 9: Play utdrs
G n a trip t the frest r play n the grass. Having a great time in nature is gd fr bdies and minds.
June 16: Supper party
June is the best time t have a party. I’d like t invite my best friends t my garden. We can play games fr a gd time!
June 23: English Day
Try t speak nly English with Mum and Dad fr a whle day. Pictures f wrds and bdy language may be helpful when they dn’t understand difficult sentences. I’ll try these ways and see if they wrk.
June 30: Be a vlunteer
It’s cl t g t the Old Age Hme and wrk fr thers fr free.
Dear Li Hua,
Last week. I read t the kids at the children’s centre. I was busy but happy. What vlunteer experience did yu have? Hw did yu feel abut it? Then what vlunteer wrk are yu ging t d this summer hliday?
Wait fr yur e-mail!
Yurs,
Tm
档 次
分 值
语 言 要 求
一档
13 ～ 15分
包含了所有要点，能围绕内容要点适当发挥，内容具体、丰富；应用了较丰富的语言结构和词汇，用词准确，句子通顺，行文连贯，表达清楚；没有或几乎没有语言错误，具备较强的语言运用能力，达到了预期的写作目的。
二档
10 ～ 12分
基本包含了所有要点，并有一定的发挥，内容比较丰富；应用的语言结构和词汇能满足任务要求，句子较通顺，表达较清楚；有少量语言错误，基本达到了预期的写作目的。
三档
7 ～ 9分
包含了多数要点，并有所发挥，内容不够丰富、具体，词数较少；句子不够通顺，语言表达过于简单，行文不够连贯；有部分语言错误。
四档
4 ～ 6分
只包含了少数要点，内容过少；句子无条理，语言不规范，行文不连贯；语言错误较多。
五档
0 ～ 3分
只包含一个要点或所写内容与要求几乎无关，内容杂乱，不知所云；语言很不通顺，用词很不准确；错误过多，几乎难以读懂。