2023-2024学年初中下学期七年级英语期末模拟卷(考试版A3)(天津)
展开注意事项:
1.全卷满分120分。考试时间为100分钟。试题包含选择题和非选择题。考生答题全部答在答题卡上, 答在本试卷上无效。
2.请认真核对监考教师在答题卡上所粘贴条形码的姓名、考试证号是否与本人相符合,再将 自己的姓名、考试证号用0. 5毫米黑色墨水签字笔填写在答题卡及本试卷上。
3.答选择题必须用2B铅笔将答题卡上对应的答案标号涂黑。如需改动,请用橡皮擦干净后, 再选涂其他答案。答非选择题必须用0. 5毫米黑色墨水签字笔写在答题卡的指定位置,在其他位置答题一律无效。
4.难度系数:0.65。
第I卷(选择题 共80分)
一、听力理解(本大题共20小题, 每小题1分, 共20分)
A)在下列每小题内,你将听到一个或两个句子并看到供选择的 A、B、C三幅图画。找出与你所听句子内容相匹配的图画。
1. A. B. C.
2. A. B. C.
3. A. B. C.
4. A. B. C.
B)下面你将听到十组对话,每组对话都有一个问题。根据对话内容,从每组所给的A、B、C三个选项中找出能回答所提问题的最佳选项。
5. What is Adam ging t d?
A. T lk fr his bike.B. T buy a new dictinary.C. T write a lst and fund ntice.
6. What des the by think f Vienna?
A. Bring.B. Wnderful.C. Nisy.
7. When was the man brn?
A. In 1988. B. In 1987.C. In 1977.
8. Hw many bedrms des the wman’s new huse have?
A. One.B. Tw.C. Three.
9. Hw will the man g t Dalian?
A. By train. B. By plane.C. By bus.
10. What clr is the by’s bike?
A. Yellw.B. Blue.C. Red.
11. What is the girl’s hme twn famus fr?
A. Clean air and water.B. Sme delicius fd.C. Many wrld-famus peple.
12. Where is the hspital?
A. It’s behind the library.B. It’s in frnt f the pst ffice.
C. It’s between the library and the pst ffice.
13. When will the tw speakers meet?
A. At 10:30 am.B. At 10:20 am.C. At 10:00 am.
14. Hw much shuld the man pay?
A. 250 yuan.B. 100 yuan.C. 50 yuan.
C)听下面长对话或独白。每段长对话或独白后都有几个问题,从题中所给的A、B、C
三个选项中选出最佳选项。
听下面一段材料,回答第15至第17题。
15. When will the man g t the cncert?
A. This Friday afternn.B. This Saturday afternn.C. This Sunday afternn.
16. Hw many tickets has the man gt?
A. One.B. Tw.C. Three.
17. What kind f music des the girl like?
A. Rck music.B. Pp music.C. Beijing Opera.
听下面一段材料,回答第18至第20题。
18. Hw many places will they visit?
A. Seven.B. Fur.C. Ten.
19. What will the teachers d in the park?
A. Play a game.B. Make a picnic.C. Have a party.
20. When will they g back?
A. Befre 3:00 pm.B. Befre 4:00 pm.C. Befre 5:00 pm.
二、单项填空(本大题共15小题;每小题1分, 共15分)
从下列每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中, 选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
21.—Wuld yu like t take ________ walk with me nw, Tm?
—Srry, I want t play ________ ftball with my friends, dad.
A.the;/B.a;theC.a;/D./;the
22.—Is the pen ________, Lucy?
—N, it isn’t. ________ is red.
A.yur; MyB.yurs; MyC.yurs; MineD.yur; Mine
23.Jack can’t sing English sngs and he can’t dance, ________.
A.as wellB.alsC.tD.either
24.My grandma was brn ________ a small village ________ Shanxi Prvince.
A.in; nB.in; inC.n; atD.f; in
25.Susan, wuld yu please pen the windws? Let's have sme ________ air in here.
A.cheapB.freshC.beautifulD.nervus
26.We’re standing ppsite the Natinal Gallery, a famus ________ with lts f famus paintings.
A.museumB.churchC.squareD.cinema
27.Wuld yu like ________ t buy?
A.else smethingB.nthing elseC.smething elseD.else anything
28.Mr. White ________ abut $ 20, 000 fr this new car.
A.tkB.paidC.triedD.spent
29.—When ________ Henry ________ Hainan Island?
—Next Sunday.
A.did;visitB.d;visitC.is;ging t visitD.des;visit
30.Everybdy likes Bb because he ________ get n well with ther classmates.
A.mustn'tB.can'tC.needD.can
31.Mzart gave cncerts in many cities and he wrte ________ wnderful pieces f music.
A.hundredB.hundredsC.hundred fD.hundreds f
32.Bys and girls, please ________ the lessns carefully. There will be a test later.
A.g verB.get nC.take awayD.lk after
33.In the future, maybe ________ traffic jams in the air.
A.there isB.there wasC.there areD.there will be
34.—Excuse me, where is the Mnlight Htel?
—_________. I’m a stranger myself.
A.N, I dn’t think sB.Srry, I dn’t knw
C.It desn’t matterD.Thank yu all the same
35.—We are ging n a trip tmrrw.
—________
A.I’m afraid nt.B.I am srry t hear that. C.Yu’re welcme!D.Have a gd time!
三、完形填空(本大题共10小题;每小题1分, 共10分)
阅读下面短文,掌握其大意,然后从各题所给的A、B、C和D选项中选出最佳选项。
Jhn was riding his new bike. When he gt t the end f the rad, he turned arund. He 36 the bike in frnt f Mm.
“See? I’m gd at ding it. Can I ride t the 37 n my wn(独自) nw?”
Usually, when Jhn rde a bike t the park, Mm r Dad came alng 38 him. But this time, he was sure he culd d it n his wn.
Mm lked at Jhn and said “Okay. But pay attentin t the cars and bikes 39 when yu ride. And remember t cme hme 40 . Nw, have fun n yur wn!”
Jhn felt excited t hear(听到) this. The park was nt far frm hme. Jhn lked bth 41 when he rde int the street and he 42 his mm’s wrds. At the end f the street, Jhn had t turn right t get t the park. He used his arm t make the signal(信号) s cars wuld knw 43 he was ging.
When Jhn gt t the park he slwed dwn(减速). He parked his 44 and ran t find his friends.
“Yu knw what? I rde my bike here all by myself!” Jhn sad. “D yu think it’s very 45 t d it n my wn?”
36.A.stppedB.carriedC.drveD.stayed
37.A.zB.parkC.squareD.garden
38.A.byB.nC.frD.with
39.A.n TVB.in LndnC.n the streetD.in the muntains
40.A.lateB.earlyC.suddenlyD.brightly
41.A.waysB.flagsC.lightsD.shapes
42.A.enjyedB.rememberedC.frgtD.believed
43.A.whyB.whC.whatD.where
44.A.carB.busC.bikeD.train
45.A.warmB.htC.clD.cld
四、阅读理解(本大题共15小题, 每小题2分, 共30分)
阅读下面的短文, 从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
D yu knw Gabi Shull? She cmes frm the US. And she was brn in 2002. Gabi likes dancing, reading and playing ut with her friends and her three sisters.
One day in early January, 2011, 9-year-ld Gabi went ice skating with friends. She fell dwn n the ice. She was very painful. Her parents tk her t the hspital. X-rays shwed that there was a harmful turmur(肿瘤)n her right leg. Three weeks later, the dctr had t cut ff part f her right leg.
It was very cruel(残忍的) t Gabi and her family. Hwever, the little girl smiled at her parents and said, “Dn’t wrry, Dad and Mum. I’m sure I can live better.”
In the fllwing years, the little girl practised ballet with the artificial leg(假肢). She fell dwn many times, but she never gave up. In Octber, 2016, in a dancing cntest(比赛)in New Yrk, Gabi wn first prize.
“I’m nt afraid f any difficulty in life. And I want t be a dctr,” Gabi said t the reprter.
46.When was Gabi Shull brn?
A.In 2001.B.In 2002.C.In 2003.D.In2004.
47.What did Gabi Shull d ne day in early January, 2011?
A.She went shpping. B.She had a trip.C.She went ice skating.D.She visited a z.
48.What was cruel fr Gabi?
A.Falling dwn many times.B.Her parents’ wrries.
C.Living better.D.Lsing part f her right leg
49.Gabi wants t be a _________.
A.dctrB.ckC.ballet dancerD.scientist
50.Frm the passage, we can infer(推断)that ________.
A.Gabi has tw sisters
B.Gabi’s parents are dancers
C.Gabi never says “give up” t life
D.Gabi was nt interested in the dancing cntest in New Yrk in Octber, 2016
B
Emma Philips, a girl frm New Zealand, wants t learn acrbatics (杂技). She traveled acrss the wrld t make her acrbatics dream cme true.
Emma traveled t China by herself t learn acrbatics frm the best teachers. She studied hard at the Wuqia Acrbatics Art Schl. It is in a small twn in Hebei Prvince. Emma culdn’t eat r sleep well. But she did nt care. She learned fr a lng time every day and she even wre ut (用破) six Chinese umbrellas (雨伞) in just five mnths.
“Peple in the schl and in the twn were interested in me. They wanted t knw why I came t a small twn and learn acrbatics. But I knew what I wanted and I kept at it,” she said. She wanted t learn frm the best acrbats and she wanted t cmbine Eastern skill with Western music. That wuld be great.
Emma left the schl ne year ag. She is nw wrking at an Australian circus (马戏团). She hpes t bring Chinese acrbatics t mre peple.
51.Emma came t China t learn __________.
A.ChineseB.medicineC.scienceD.acrbatics
52.The secnd paragraph tells us __________
A.Emma liked traveling in China.
B.China has the best acrbatics teachers.
C.Emma studied acrbatics hard in China.
D.Emma’s life was hard in China.
53.The underlined wrd “it” in the third paragraph refers t (指的是) _________.
A.her acrbatics dreamB.her cuntry
C.western music D.the Wuqia Acrbatics Art Schl
54.Where des Emma wrk nw?
A.In New Zealand. B.In China.C.In Australia.D.In America.
55.Which f the fllwing is Nt true?
A.Emma is frm New Zealand.
B.Emma studied acrbatics in a twn in China.
C.Peple in the twn culd understand Emma’s dream.
D.Emma wants t bring Chinese acrbatics t the wrld.
C
Wlfgang Amadeus Mzart was an Austrian cmpser and pianist. Many peple think he was ne f the best cmpsers f music f all time.
Mzart was brn in Austria in 1756. His father, a very gd vilinist taught him. His father started t give him pian lessns when he was 4 years ld. When he was 6, he went n his first musical tur f Eurpe. Mzart als wrte music. When he was nly abut 5 years ld, he started t cmpse music. At the age f 8, he cmpsed his first real sng. He grew up t write sme f his mst beautiful music ever heard. Hwever, he died when he was nly 35 years ld.
During his shrt life he studied music, taught music, played music and wrte music. Even by wrking s hard, he culdn’t make much mney. Often he had t brrw (借入) mney frm his friends. But his music made him happy, and fr mre than tw hundred years his music has made ther peple happy, t.
56.What was Wlfgang Amadeus Mzart?
A.A cmpser.B.A dancer.C.A dctr.D.A teacher.
57.Hw ld was Mzart when he wrte his first real sng?
A.6 years ld.B.8 years ld.C.35 year ld.D.56 years ld.
58.As he grew up, Mzart ________ .
A.wrte sme beautiful musicB.wrte sme beautiful stries
C.made sme beautiful piansD.made sme beautiful vilins
59.At the age f _________, Mzart died.
A.15B.25C.35D.45
60.Frm the passage, we knw that _________.
A.Mzart was brn in AmericaB.Mzart made a lt f mney
C.Mzart wasn’t happy all his lifeD.Mzart’s music made peple
五、补全对话(本大题共5小题, 每小题1分, 共5分)
根据对话内容,从文后选择恰当的选项将对话补充完整(选项中有两项是多余的)。
A: Hi, Cindy! I didn’t see yu these days. 61
B: Hi, Paul! I went t China n vacatin.
A: Really? 62
B: Well, the fd is delicius! The peple are friendly and the cities are beautiful!
A: 63
B: Yes. Lk! These are the pictures f my trip.
A: Oh, they are great! 64
B: It is the West Lake in Hangzhu.
A: 65
B: I went bating with my parents.
A: Hw nice! I want t g there, t.
A.What’s this?
B.Hw are yu?
C.Where did yu g?
D.Hw did yu g there?
E.What did yu d there?
F.Did yu take any phts?
G.What d yu think f China?
第Ⅱ卷(非选择题 共40分)
注意事项:
1. 用黑色墨水的钢笔或签字笔将答案写在“答题卡”上。
2. 本卷共四大题, 共40分。
六、完成句子(本大题共5小题, 每小题2分, 共10分)
根据所给中文意思完成句子, 每空限填一词。
66.他们想今天下午复习功课。
They want t lessns this afternn.
67.当我远离家乡时,我的父母总是为我担心。
My parents always me when I’m far away frm hme.
68.我父母去年夏天去青岛观光了。
My parents in Qingda last summer.
69.如果我们努力,我们的梦想就会实现。
If we wrk hard, ur deams will .
70.亚当把杯子推到地上,杯子成了碎片。
Adam pushed the cup t the grund and it was .
七、任务型阅读(本大题共5小题, 每小题1分, 共5分)
阅读下面短文,根据短文内容完成句子。
My name is Jessica. I was brn in a small village 25 years ag. There was nly ne schl in the small village. And there were nt many students in it. The teachers were very nice and the students all liked them. Behind the schl, there were sme trees. I liked reading under the trees. Next t the schl, there were tw huses. The small ne was my friend Linda’s huse. Linda and her brther Alan usually walked t schl. And I ften went t her hme t play with her after schl. The big ne was Ms. Green’s huse. Ms. Green was my first English teacher. She was strict but nice. And I learned a lt frm her. There was a small park near my schl. I liked playing with my friends there. A small shp was n the right f the park. We ften bught things in it. I left there when I was fifteen. One day, I’ll g back t the village again.
71.Jessica was brn twenty-five years ag.
72.Sme trees were the schl.
73.After schl, Jessica ften went t Linda’s hme t .
74.Jessica thught Ms. Green was .
75.On the right f the park, there was .
八、 综合填空(本大题共10小题, 每小题1分, 共10分)
根据短文内容及首字母提示,填写所缺单词,使短文意思完整。每空限填一词。
We live in a small twn which is far f 76 the city. My grandma likes s 77 very much. Usually it t 78 us tw hurs t g t the shps in the city. It’s nt cnvenient (方便的) fr us t d this. S when we can shp 79 , we are very happy.
But my grandma thinks this way is nt very s 80 . Because she can’t see the real p 81 when she wants t buy them. But in ur hme, many things are frm the Internet. They are nt very e 82 but f high quality (质量). My grandma wants t t 83 finally (最终).
Nw she lves nline shpping and always says, “It is really easy and cnvenient. Everyne can l 84 it easily. M 85 mre and mre peple will lve this shpping way later.”
九、书面表达(本大题共15分)
86.假如你是李明,你的英国笔友Ken得知你五一假期和父母去了沈阳,发来电子邮件询问你具体情况。请你根据下面的提示信息,给Ken回复一封电子邮件,讲述你和父母的沈阳之旅并谈谈你的感受。
要求:
(1)内容应包括所有的提示信息,可适当发挥;
(2)语句通顺、意思连贯、语法正确;
(3)80词左右(邮件的格式、开头及结尾已给出,不计入总词数)。
Dear Ken.
I’m glad t hear frm yu. Nw I’d like t tell yu abut my trip t Shenyang.
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Wuld yu like t visit Shenyang sme day? I can be yur tur guide.
Yurs,
Li Ming
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