广东省河源市紫金县2023-2024学年七年级下学期期末英语试题

这是一份广东省河源市紫金县2023-2024学年七年级下学期期末英语试题，共14页。试卷主要包含了考生必须保持答题卡的整洁， What des Mr等内容，欢迎下载使用。

七年级英语
本试卷共8页，81 小题，满分120分。考试用时90分钟。
注意事项：1.答卷前，考生务必用黑色字迹的钢笔或签字笔将自己的学校、姓名和准考证号填写在答题卡上。
2.作答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目选项的答案信息点涂黑；如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案，答案不能答在试卷上。
3.非选择题必须用黑色字迹的钢笔或签字笔作答，答案必须写在答题卡各题目指定区域内相应位置上；如需改动，先划掉原来的答案，然后再写上新的答案；不准使用铅笔和涂改液。不按以上要求作答的答案无效。
4.考生必须保持答题卡的整洁。考试结束后，将试卷和答题卡一并交回。
一、听说应用(本大题共30小题，每小题1分，共30分；A、B、C、D部分为听力理解，E部分为情景对话)
A.听句子(本题共5 小题，每小题1分，共5分)
请根据所听内容，选择符合题意的图画回答问题，并将答题卡上对应题目所选的选项涂黑。每个句子听两遍。
1. What is the girl ding?
2. What can't we d in the reading rm?
3. Hw is Wei Hua feeling?
4. Where is Miss White frm?
5. Wh is Helen's friend?
B.听对话(本题共10 小题，每小题1分，共10分)
请根据每段对话的内容回答问题，从每小题所给的三个选项中选出一个最佳答案，并将答题卡上对应题目所选的选项涂黑。每段对话听两遍。
听第一段对话，回答第6 小题。
6. Why can't Lucy cme t the phne?
A. Because she is taking a class.B. Because she is taking a walk.C. Because she is taking a shwer.
听第二段对话，回答第7 小题。
7. What did Peter d last night?
A. He watched a sccer game. B. He played a cmputer game. C. He watched a basketball game.
听第三段对话，回答第8小题。
8. Which class visited the farm?
A. Class 3. B. Class 4. C. Class 5.
听第四段对话，回答第9小题。
9. What des Mr. Smith lk like?
A. Tall and heavy. B. Shrt and heavy. C. Tall and thin.
听第五段对话，回答第10 小题。
10. What is the weather like tday?
A. Sunny. B. Rainy. C. Cludy.
听第六段对话，回答第11 ~12 小题。
11. Where is the science museum?
A. It is next t a supermarket. B. It is acrss frm a bank. C. It is next t a bank.
12. Hw far is it frm here?
A. It is twenty minutes n ft.B. It is twenty mínutes by bus. C. It is twenty minutes by bike.
听第七段对话，回答第13~15 小题。
13. What des the by want t buy?
A. A blue cap. B. A white cap. C. A white cup.
14. Wh des the by buy the gift fr?
A. His mther. B. His brther. C. His father.
15. Hw much is it?
A.25 yuan. B.35 yuan. C.55 yuan.
C.听短文(本题共5小题，每小题1分，共5分)
请根据所听内容，从每小题所给的三个选项中选出一个最佳答案，并将答题卡上对应题目所选的选项涂黑。短文听两遍。
16. What is Mr. Smith?
A. A dentist. B. A teacher. C. An fficer.
17. Where des Mr. Smith live?
A. In a small city. B. In a small twn. C. In Washingtn, D. C.
18. When des Mr. Smith g t wrk?
A. At 6:30 a. m. B. At 7:00 a. m. C. At 7:30 a. m.
19. Hw des Mr. Smith g t wrk?
A. By car. B. By bus. C. By train.
20. Why d all the children like Mr. Smith?
A. Because he is very tall.
B. Because he is very friendly.
C. Because he cleans the children's teeth.
D.听填信息(本题共5 小题，每小题1分，共5分)
你将听到的是一封邀请函。请根据所听内容填写下面的信息卡，并将答案写在答题卡对应题目的答题位置上。短文听两遍。
E.情景对话(本题共5 小题，每小题1分，共5分)
请通读下面对话，根据对话内容，从方框内的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，并将答题卡上对应题目所选的选项涂黑。选项中有一项为多余选项。
A. Hw lng did yu stay in Beıyıng?
B. When did yu g t Beijing?
C. What did yu d there?
D. Hw was the weather in Beijing?
E. It was great.
F. Did yu g there by train r by plane?
Alex: Hi, Jane. Did yu have a gd hliday?
Jane: Hi, Alex. Yes. 26
Alex: Where did yu g?
Jane: I went t Beijing with my family.
Alex: 27
Jane: By plane.
Alex: 28
Jane: We went sightseeing, went shpping, tk sme phts and ate delicius fd and s n. We had a gd time.
Alex: 29
Jane: Oh, it was cld. S we bught sme warm cats there.
Alex: 30
Jane: Fr a week.
Alex: I think yu really had a gd time.
二、语法选择(本大题共10小题，每小题1分，共10分)
请通读下面短文，掌握其大意，根据语法和上下文连贯的要求，从每小题所给的三个选项中选出一个最佳答案，并将答题卡上对应题目所选的选项涂黑。
Tday I am ging t talk smething abut bullying(霸凌) in schl. I think bullying can make children feel unsafe and unhappy At 31 same time, if yu are bullied, it is 32 fr yu t learn at schl and get n well with thers.
N ne has the right t hurt 33 . If smene bullies us r we see bullying happening, we shuldn't be afraid t stp it.
Here are 34 ideas abut stpping schl bullying. 35 , we shuld learn hw t prtect urselves 36 ur persnal safety(人身安全) is the mst imprtant. Secnd, we shuld treat thers prperly. When we dn't have the same ideas with ther 37 , we shuld try t understand them. We shuldn't fight 38 them. Finally, it's a 39 way t fllw the schl rules, because it can 40 us becme better and better.
I hpe that there will be n schl bullying at schl in the future. It's everyne's duty t make ur schls safe and beautiful. I hpe all f us shuld be friendly t thers and say n t schl bullying.
31. A. a B. an C. the
32. A. difficult B. difficulty C. difficulties
33. A. we B.us C. ur
34. A. few B. sme C. any
35. A. One B. First C. The first
36. A. but B. s C. because
37. A. classmate B. classmates C. classmates'
38. A. fr B. f C. with
39. A. gd B. well C. better
40. A. let B. lets C. letting
三、完形填空(本大题共10小题，每小题1分，共10分)
请通读下面短文，掌握其大意，从每小题所给的四个选项中选出一个最佳答案，并将答题卡上对应题目所选的选项涂黑。
Hipps(河马) live in Africa. They're big and fat. They have small eyes, small ears and
shrt legs. They als 41 very big teeth! Hipps are usually three t fur meters lng. Hipps usually live fr abut 40 42 .
The name“hipp”cmes frm the Greek(希腊的) wrd. It means“river hrse”and it is 43 t see why. They live in rivers and n 44 . Hipps ften walk n land, but they spend mst f their time in the water. 45 even give bi rth t their babies in the water. 46 hipps, called calves, are brn very small,usually abut 50 kg. Hipps spend s much time in the water, but they are nt gd 47 . Staying mstly underwater during the day helps keep them cl. As the 48 ges dwn, hipp s will climb ut f the water t 49 grass. They can eat up t 40 kg f grass in ne night. Althugh hipps lk slw, they can run n land very 50 . They can travel up t 10 km t find fd.
Hipps are ne f the mst dangerus animals in the wrld. Every year they kill hundreds f peple!
41. A. make B. have C. draw D. buy
42. A. days B. weeks C. mnths D. years
43. A. easy B. difficult C. big D. small
44. A. sky B. land C. water D. muntains
45. A. He B. She C. They D. It
46. A. Girl B. By C. Baby D. Animal
47. A. swimmers B. singers C. players D. dancers
48. A. clud B. sun C. mn D. star
49. A. grw B. drink C. eat D. ck
50. A. slwly B. well C. badly D. fast
四、阅读理解(本大题共15 小题，每小题2分，共30分)
请阅读A、B 两篇短文，从每小题所给的四个选项中选出能回答所提问题或完成所给句子的最佳答案，并将答题卡上对应题目所选的选项涂黑。
A
Welcme t Sunshine Twn!
There are lts f things t d in Sunshine Twn.
Wuld yu like t…
g shpping?
There are lts f nice shps in ur twn. Mst things are nt expensive. Yu can buy wnderful presents fr yur family and friends there.
eat Chinese fd?
Beijing Rast Duck is very famus. Wuld yu like t try sme? There are many Chinese restaurants here. If yu d nt like Chinese fd, there are sme Western restaurants, t.
enjy Beijing Opera?
Why nt visit ur lcal theater and enjy Beijing Opera? If yu want t learn mre abut Chinese art,dn't miss the pera shws there.
stay in a quiet twn?
The air is fresh here. Yu can see many trees, lakes and green hills. There is als a beautiful park in the twn center. Lcal peple like jgging in the park in the mrning. Sunshine Twn is nt far frm the center f Beijing. It takes nly 70 minutes by undergrund.
Welcme t ur twn. We are lking frward t meeting yu sn.
51. What kind f place is Sunshine Twn accrding t the passage?
A. Quiet. B. Busy. C. Big. D. Far.
52. There are things yu can d in Sunshine Twn.
A.3 B.4 C.5 D.6
53. What CAN'T yu d in Sunshine Twn?
A. Buy sme presents. B. Eat sme Western fd.
C. G t the theater. D. Visit a museum.
54. Hw lng des it take frm Sunshine Twn t Beijing by undergrund?
A. An hur. B. Half an hur.
C. One hur and ten minutes. D. Furteen minutes.
55. Where can yu prbably find the passage?
A. In a textbk. B. In a strybk.
C. In a travel magazine. D. In a dictinary.
B
An ld man lived in a nice small huse with a big garden in a twn in England. He lked after his flwers all the time.
One day a yung painter went by this garden. He was attracted by the beautiful flwers and thught hw happy he culd be if he lived there. Then he fund the ld gardener was blind. The painter asked,“Why are yu busy lking after these flwers? Yu can't see them.”The blind gardener smiled and answered, “I can tell yu sme reasns. First, I was a gardener when I was yung and I really like this jb. Secnd, althugh Ican't see these flwers, yet I can tuch them. Third, I can smell the flwers. As t the last ne, that's yu.”“Me? But yu dn't knw me,”said the painter. “Yeah, it's true that I dn't knw yu. But I knw flwers are s beautiful and lvely, and everyne will like them. I knw many peple wh lve life wuld stp by and the beauty f my garden will make them happy. It is als let me talk with yu here and t enjy the flwers.”
I believe every flwer has eyes. They can see the kindness f the ld man's heart. He grws flwers in his heart. I think althugh the ld man can't see the flwers blming(盛开), he surely can hear the vice f it.
56. Where did the ld man live?
A. In a small huse in a city.
B. In a big garden in a city.
C. In a small huse in a twn.
D. In a big huse in a twn.
57. What is the ld man?
A. A painter. B. A wrker.
C. A gardener. D. A farmer.
58. What des the underlined wrd“attracted”in Paragraph 2 prbably mean?
A. Relaxed. B. Interested. C. Bred. D. Excited.
59. Which f the fllwing is TRUE accrding t the passage?
A. The ld man is very kind.
B. The ld man knew the painter.
C. The ld man tld the painter three reasns.
D. The ld man can see the flwers.
60. Which is the best title fr the passage?
A. Plant Flwers in the Heart B. Plant Flwers in the Garden
C. Paint Flwers in the Garden D. Paint Flwers in the Heart
C
配对阅读。学校正在举办摄影展，左栏是五张摄影作品的名字，右栏是对七张摄影作品的描述，请为这五张摄影作品选择合适的描述，并将答题卡上对应题目所选的选项涂黑。
五、短文填空(本大题共10 小题，每小题1.5分，共15分)
请从方框内选择适当的词并用其正确形式填空，使文章完整连贯。注意每空一词，每词仅用一次，有两词为多余项。请将答案写在答题卡对应题目的答题位置上。
I favrite class lve make when after in skate away an place
Alysa Liu is a great American skater. She is sixteen years ld. She answered sme questins fr ur readers frm her hme 66 Califrnia.
Hw ld were yu when yu started skating?
My dad tk me and ne f 67 sisters t the rink(溜冰场) fr fun ne day 68 I was five. Iseemed t enjy 69 . S my dad asked me,“D yu want t d grup lessns?”And I said yes.
Hw much d yu travel each year, and d yu have a(n) 70 place t visit?
I am usually away between tw and three mnths a year. I like ging t new 71 , like Italy and HngKng. Italy is ne f my favrite places. I 72 the ice cream there.
Being 73 frm hme s much, what is schl like fr yu?
I am in 74 nline high schl. I take 75 , usually at the rink, when I am nt skating.
D yu have any advice fr the yung readers?
Try yur best, and gd things will happen!
六、读写综合(本大题分为A、B两部分，共25分)
A.回答问题(本题共5 小题，每小题2分，共10分)
请阅读下面短文，根据所提供的信息，回答5个问题。要求所写答案语法正确、语义完整切题，并将答案写在答题卡对应题目的答题位置上。
Hell. My name is Anna. I am a girl frm Germany. I am 13 years ld. I am tall and thin, and I have lng and blnde hair.
I like many sprts. I lve playing badmintn. I am interested in swimming and playing tennis, t. I als like listening t pp music and drawing pictures. I have an ld guitar and I am learning t play it. I speakGerman, but I als enjy reading and speaking English.
My mm is a teacher and my dad is a taxi driver. I have a big family. We live in a flat. The flat us quite small, but I like it because it is very clse t the muntains! I lve drawıng pıctures f the muntains. I share a rm with my sister, Marina. She is 15 years ld. I have tw ther little sisters and ne brther. We all lve t have family parties tgether.
I g t schl by bus. My favrite subjects are math, art and English. I g t schl frm 8:00 a. m. t1:00 p. m. n weekdays. I d nt wear a schl unífrm. I like my schl because the teachers are all very friendly. My dream is t be an artist when I leave schl.
I wuld like t have penfriends frm all ver the wrld! I hpe that yu will e-mail me, and maybe cme and visit me in Germany ne day!
76. Where is Anna frm?

77. What kinds f sprts des Anna like?

78. Hw many peple are there in Anna's family?

79. Hw des Anna g t schl?

80. Why des Anna like her schl?

B.书面表达(本题15 分)
请根据要求完成短文写作，并将写作内容写在答题卡对应题目的答题位置上。
81.假如你是王小红，你很想和 Anna交朋友，请你给 Anna写一封信，介绍一下自己。内容包括：
(1)你想和她成为笔友。
(2)介绍你自己的情况(姓名，年龄，爱好，家庭和学校生活等)。
(3)欢迎她来中国游玩。
注意：
(1)不能照抄原文；不得在作文中出现真实校名、地名和考生的真实姓名。
(2)语句连贯，词数70左右。作文的开头和结尾已经给出，不计入总词数，也不必抄写在答题卡上。Dear Anna,
Nice t see yu n the Internet.
Best wishes!
Yurs,
Wang Xiahng
2023—2024学年度第二学期期末综合测评
七年级英语听力材料
一、听说应用
A.听句子
请根据所听内容，选择符合题意的图画回答问题，并将答题卡上对应题目所选的选项涂黑。每个句子听两遍。
1. Lk, the girl is playing the gutar.
2. We can't eat fd in the reading rm.
3. Tday is Wei Hua's birthday and she is very happy.
4. Our freign teacher Miss White cmes frm America.
5. Helen likes singing and her friend Lucy likes dancing best.
B.听对话
请根据每段对话的内容回答问题，从每小题所给的三个选项中选出一个最佳答案，并将答题卡上对应题目所选的选项涂黑。每段对话听两遍。
听第一段对话，回答第6 小题。
W: May I speak t Lucy?
M: Srry, Lucy can't cme t the phne nw. She is taking a shwer.
听第二段对话，回答第7 小题。
W: Peter, why d yu lk s tired tday?
M: Well, because I stayed up late t watch a sccer game last night.
听第三段对话，回答第8 小题。
W: Where did the students f Class 5 visit?
M: They visited Mike's farm and saw many chickens there.
听第四段对话，回答第9 小题。
W: Wh is that shrt and heavy man?
M: He is my uncle, Mr. Smith.
听第五段对话，回答第 10 小题。
W: It is a sunny day, isn't it?
M: Yes. But the weather reprt says it is ging t raın tmrrw.
听第六段对话，回答第11~12 小题。
W: Excuse me, culd yu tell me hw t get t the science museum?
M: Yes. It is n Center Street. It is acrss frm a supermarket and next t a bank.
W: Is it far frm here?
M: Nt very far. Yu can take a bus. It takes yu 20 minutes.
W: Thank yu.
听第七段对话，回答第13~15 小题。
W: Hell. What can I d fr yu?
M: Father's Day us cming. I wuld like t buy a cap fr my father as a gift.
W: Hw abut this blue ne?
M: My mther bught a blue ne fr him last year. I wuld like t have a lk at a white ne.
W: OK. Here yu are. This ne is n sale. It is nly 35 yuan.
M: Great. I will take it.
C.听短文
请根据所听内容，从每小题所给的三个选项中选出一个最佳答案，并将答题卡上对应题目所选的选项涂黑。短文听两遍。
Mr. Smith is a children's dentist. He is tall with glasses. Mst f his patients are children.Children like t cme t his ffice. He takes care f their teeth. He helps them clean their teeth, t. Then he gives them small gifts.
Mr. Smith lives in a small twn near Washingtn, D. C. But his ffice is at Center Street inWashingtn. He gets up at 6:30 every mrning. He has breakfast at 7:00 and leaves fr wrk at7:30. He drives t wrk and gets t his ffice at abut 8:15. He is friendly t everyne s all the children like him very much. They think he is a gd dentist.
D.听填信息
你将听到的是一封邀请函。请根据所听内容填写下面的信息卡，并将答案写在答题卡对应题目的答题位置上。短文听两遍。
Dear Yuanyuan,
What a sunny and windy day! I'm here t invite yu t fly a kite with us n Sunday mrning. Here is hw yu can find us.
We'll fly a kite in the park. Yu ften g there t play with yur parents n weekends,right? After yu g int the park, walk straight fr five mInutes, and then yu cme t a small but clean river. Crss the river and turn left. Yu'll cme t a big building. Dn't miss it.Behind the building, yu will see a playgrund. We'll fly a kite n the playgrund.
I'm sure it's easy fr yu t find us. I hpe that we will have a gd time.
Yurs,
Wang Gang
61. Bks Are Our Best Friends
62. Like a Teacher, Like Friends
63. One Year Older
64. The Wrld Is Full f Lve
65. A Wnderful Wrld under the Sea
A. It is a relaxing beach. Sme peple are swimming in the sea.Sme peple are lying n the chairs n the beach.
B. There are sme bys and girls in a library. They are reading bks at the desk. A by is lking fr a bk n the shelves. Agirl is taking ntes when she is reading.
C. It is a train statin. There are many peple. Everyne is in a hurry. A yung man is helping an ld man carrying a heavy bx.
D. There are all different kinds f fishes. Sme are red. Sme are yellw. They are clrful and beautiful. They are swimming and playing.
E. In a schl, a teacher is playing a game with sme students.They are laughing happily.
F. The students are having a class. They are listening t the teacher carefully.
G. It is a birthday party. Sme bys and girls are singing arund a big birthday cake. They are very happy.
2023—2024 学年度第二学期期末综合测评
七年级英语参考答案及评分标准
一、听说应用(共30小题，每小题1分，共30分)
A.听句子(共5小题，每小题1分，共5分)
1 ~5 CACBB
B.听对话(共10小题，每小题1分，共10分)
6~10 CACBA 11~15 CBBCB
C.听短文(共5 小题，每小题1分，共5分)
16 ~20 ABCAB
D.听填信息(共5 小题，每小题1分，共5分)
21. sunny 22. kite 23. Sunday 24. park 25. behind
本题主要考查考生听的能力，单词拼写如有大小写错误(专有名词除外)和单复数错误，建议不扣分；单词拼写如有词性错误，扣0.5分。
E.情景对话(共5 小题，每小题1分，共5分)
26~30 EFCDA
二、语法选择(共10 小题，每小题1分，共10分)
31 ~35 CABBB 36~40 CBCAA
三、完形填空(共10 小题，每小题1分，共10分)
41 ~45 BDABC 46 ~50 CABCD
四、阅读理解(共15 小题，每小题2分，共30分)
51~55 ABDCC 56~60 CCBAA 61 ~65 BEGCD
五、短文填空(共10 小题，每小题1.5分，共15分)
66.ı n 67. my 68. when 69. skating 70. favrite
71. places 72. lve 73. away 74. an 75. classes
考生所填答案选自题目方框内所给的词，且与所给答案一致，给满分；所填答案形式有错，每个扣0.5分；大小写错误，每个扣0.5分。
六、读写综合(本大题分为 A、B两部分，共25 分)
A.回答问题(共5 小题，每小题2分，共10分)
76. Germany.
77. She likes playing badmintn, swimmIng and playıng tennis.
78.7/Seven.
79. By bus.
80. Because the teachers are all very friendly.
所写答案信息准确，语义完整，语法正确，给满分；
所写答案信息准确，语义完整，语法有误，每处扣0.5分；
所写答案信息不完整，每题扣1分；出现无关信息，每题扣0.5分；
信息错误不给分。
B.书面表达(本题15分)
81.略
1.评分原则与方法：
从内容与语言两方面予以分档给分。
(1)内容方面要求考生能完整地按写作要点进行表述，要点详略得当、表述合理，词数符合写作要求。(参考下面2-A)
(2)语言方面要求考生表达准确连贯、符合逻辑。(参考下面2-B)
允许考生合理运用原文句式结构，但不可以照抄原文。如考生把文章所给出的开头部分抄写在答题卡上，不扣分(即使抄写有错误)。
2.内容分与语言分的分配：
A.内容分:6分
(1)你想和她成为笔友⋯⋯⋯⋯⋯⋯⋯⋯⋯⋯⋯⋯⋯⋯⋯⋯⋯⋯⋯⋯⋯⋯⋯1分
(2)介绍你自己的情况(姓名，年龄，爱好，家庭和学校生活等)⋯⋯⋯⋯⋯⋯4分
(3)欢迎她来中国游玩……………………………………………………………1分
内容要点完整且词数符合写作要求的作文可以得6分，词数在70以下的在内容分上酌情扣分。
B.语言分：9 分(确定语言分档次时要考虑内容的涵盖)
第一档：8—9分 要求：内容涵盖所有的要点，表达准确，意思连贯，符合逻辑，只有个别语言错误。
第二档：6—7分 要求：内容涵盖绝大部分要点，表达清楚，意思连贯，符合逻辑，但有少量语言错误。
第三档：4——5分 要求：内容涵盖大部分要点，表达较为清楚连贯，基本符合逻辑，但有一些语言错误。
第四档：1—3分 要求：内容涵盖部分要点，能写出少量正确句子，但整体表达不太连贯，且语言错误较多。
第五档：0分 空白卷或者完全没有相关内容。
注：以上答案及评分标准仅供参考。