辽宁省锦州市2023-2024学年七年级下学期7月期末考试英语试题

这是一份辽宁省锦州市2023-2024学年七年级下学期7月期末考试英语试题，共8页。试卷主要包含了5分，共5分)， 我想要一大碗牛肉面，看！那些孩子们在泳池里游泳， 露西可能一会儿会给你回电话等内容，欢迎下载使用。
考试时间：90分钟试卷满分：90分
★考生注意：请在答题卡各题目规定的答题区域内作答，答在本试卷上无效。
I.单词读音归类 (共5小题，每小题1分，共5分)
下面单词划线部分读音相同的是一家，请帮助所给的单词找回自己的家，并将答案填在答题卡(纸)的相应位置。
take, draw, Ictter, talk, sale
II. 完成句子(共5小题，每小题1分，共10个空，每空0.5分，共5分)
根据所给中文完成句子翻译，并将答案写在答题卡 (纸)的相应位置。
6. 我想要一大碗牛肉面。Ia large bwl f beef ndles.
7. 这儿附近有一座图书馆和两家书店。a library and tw bkstres near here.
8.看！那些孩子们在泳池里游泳。
Lk! Thse children in the pl.
9. 露西可能一会儿会给你回电话。Lucy may yu later.
10.今年，马拉松长跑比赛在我们的城市变得受欢迎。
Marath n running race in ur city this year.
III. 阅读理解(共16小题, 每小题2分, 共32分)
第一节单项选择根据短文内容从各题的四个选项中选择一个最佳答案，并将其代表字母涂在答题卡(纸)的相应位置。
A
There are sme ppular restaurants arund Three Tree Park and yu can have a nice meal there.
11. When can yu have sme seafd at Fresh Taste Restaurant?
A.9:30 pm. B.10:00 pm. C. 10:30 pm. D.8:00 pm.
12. If a 16-year-ld by eats dinner with his parents in Dafu Restaurant, hw much will they pay?
A.$30. B.$42. C.$26. D.$32.
13. Which f the fllwing is TRUE?
A. Peple can have rast dumplings in Rund Seat Restaurant.
B. Peple can have fish in the restaurant n 2 Bridge Rad.
C. Fresh Taste Restaurant is very clean but nisy.
D. Peple can have cffee in Jhn's Dining Huse at 9:00 pm.
14. In which part f the newspaper can yu read the text?
A. Fd. B. News. C. Histry. D. Animals.
B
D yu want t travel arund the wrld? Lexie frm America finished traveling t every cuntry in the wrld at the age f 21. She has set a new recrd in the Guinness(吉尼斯世界纪录), and she has becme the yungest persn t travel arund the wrld. Lexie cmes frm a traveling family. At the age f 18,she visited 70 cuntries. In Octber 2017, Lexie began a trip t visit ther cuntries in the wrld. Tw years later she finished it.
Lexie used planes, bats, buses and trains t travel. But she likes t travel by train mst.“Traveling nthem is great travel. I can watch the different views(景色) frm the windw,”she said.
Lexie likes traveling s much. Even in the difficult times, she never thught f giving up(放弃).“I'm lucky I made it. I felt tired. But it was still an exciting trip. I enjyed the lve and kindness frm the peple in each cuntry, and I learned a lt abut the wrld.”She said.
Lexie hpes thers can g ut and see the wrld. She wants t encurage (鼓励) thers t pen their eyes during their travel, n matter hw big r small the places may be.
We live in such a big and beautiful wrld. Why nt spend sme time traveling just like Lexie?
15. Hw des the writer start the text(文本)?
A. The writer tells us the ways t travel. B. The writer tells a stry.
C. The writer asks a questin. D. The writer shws numbers.
16. What des the underlined wrd“them”refer t(指示) in Paragraph 2?
A. trains B. planes C. bats D. buses
17. Which f the fllwıng is the right rder(顺序) fLexie's travel?
① Lexie finished traveling t every cuntry in the wrld at the age f 21.
②At the age f 18, she visited 70 cuntries.
③ In Octber 2017,Lexıe began a trip t visit ther cuntries in the wrld.
A. ①②③ B. ②③① C. ③①② D. ①③②
18. What is the main purpse(主要目的) f the last paragraph(段落)?
A. Traveling is nly fr the rich peple.
B. Traveling can make peple feel tired.
C. Encurage everyne t travel and see the wrld.
D. Only big places can we visit.
C
After a lng busy week, a relaxing weekend can be just what yu need. S hw can yu enjy yurself n weekends? Here is sme advice (建议) fr yu.
Fllw yur sleep rutine. A regular(有规律的) sleeping is very imprtant t yu. It is nt gd t sleep as much as yu want n weekends. Adults usually need 7 t 8 hurs f sleep each night.Children need mre time t sleep. Of curse, it is kay t get mre sleep if yu stay up late.
Spend time n yur favrite activities (活动). Weekends ffer yu free time t d things that make yu truly happy. Yu can watch a sccer game n TV, g shpping r play a vide game. All these can make yu feel happy and relaxed.
Hang ut with friends r family. Try t play an utdr activity with the peple yu lve n weekends. Yu can g n a picnic, fly kites r climb a muntain. It is gd fr yur health and mind.Many peple like t stay utdrs nw because they can enjy fresh air and warm sunshine. Even a30-minute walk arund yur neighbrhd can be gd.
Weekends are the best time t relax and rest. S plan yur weekends well and enjy every minute!
19. Hw many hurs f sleep may children usually need each night?
A. 5 t 6 hurs. B.7 t 8 hurs. C.9 t 10 hurs. D. As much as yu want.
20. What des the underlined wrd“ffer”mean?
A. take B. give C. shw D. get
21. Hw is the text rganized (组织)? (①=Paragraph 1, ②=Paragraph 2,…)
22. What is the text mainly abut?
A. Hw t relax n weekends.
B. Why it's gd t sleep enugh.
C. Why peple like utdr activities.
D. Hw great it is t g ut with friends r family.
第二节还原句子阅读短文，从方框内所给的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，并将其代表字母涂在答题卡(纸)的相应位置。其中有一个多余的选项。
D
Here are sme things fr yu t knw abut befre visiting a Chinese friend's hme fr dinner.
First, make sure yu wear clean clthes and get there n time.23
Usually, yur friend will ask what yu wuld like t drink. Then, if there's time, maybe yur friend will shw yu arund their hme befre dinner.24|
When it's time fr dinner, yu shuld behave well(举止得体) at the table. Fr example, try nt t drp any fd n the table. And never put yur chpsticks (筷子) standing straight in yur rice.25 Yu can say the fd is delicius r the ck is great.
26 Yu can help them take the dirty dishes int the kitchen r wash the dishes. But d nt be unhappy if yur friend desn't let yu help. They want t make yu feel relaxed!
When leaving yur friend's hme, remember t thank yur friend. And yu can als ask yur friend t visit yur hme later.
IV. 完形填空 (共10小题, 每小题1分, 共10分)
阅读短文，理解其大意，从各小题的四个选项中选择一个最佳答案，并将其代表字母涂在答题卡(纸)的相应位置。
This is a stry abut a girl. She can't see anything, 27. she uses her lve fr music as a way f helping her thrugh difficult times.
The name f the girl is Sirine.28. she was five, she lst visin(视力) in ne eye. After5 years, the wrld in her eyes became dark. One day, Sirine was in a car with her 29. . Her father played music fr her. Then she just started singing in the car. She 30.it and she lked s happy. That was when Sirine was interested in music.
It didn't 31. a lng time fr her parents t find Sirine's talent (天赋) fr music. And music brught gd luck 32.her. At the age f 14, she jined in a famus shw calledBritain's Gt Talent. On the shw, she tld everyne that music was very 33. t her. Then she walked t a pian and sat at it. She started playing the pian and singing. After listening t her playing, lts f peple gt a 34. . She played 35. 坐标号。well that sme f them cried.
27. A. s B. but C. and D. r
28. A. Where B. Why C. Hw D. When
29. A. parents B. grandfather C. mther D. grandparents
30. A. frgt B. liked C. stpped D. knew
31. A. spend B. cst C. pay D. take
32. A. in B. t C. with D. n
33. A. imprtant B. bring C. nisy D. difficult
34. A. luck B. message C. surprise D. gift
35. A. t B. very C. s D. quite
36. A. student B. writer C. actress D. musician
v. 语篇填空 (共10小题, 每小题1分, 共10分)
阅读短文，在空白处填入一个适当的单词或括号里单词的正确形式，使短文通顺、连贯，并将答案写在答题卡(纸)的相应位置。
Last week, I went t Lndn with my friend. There was 37. art festival. We were very
We arrived in Lndn ne day befre the art festival started. It was 39. (sun) and ht in the city, s we wanted t g camping in the hills(小山) arund Lndn that night. We thught it wuld be a fun way fr 40. (we) t stay in nature(大自然) and spend time tgether.
But in the hills, the weather changed (变化) quickly. We put up ur tent 41.it started raining. S we didn't get wet. But then it rained hard and there was als a strng wind. We tried ur best t keep the rain ut f ur tent, but we culdn't.42. the end, we had t leave and take ur things t a htel.
When we gt t the htel, we fund that there weren't any rms. 43. (luck), a nice htel wrker let us sleep in the dining rm. We fell asleep (入睡) quickly because we were s tired.The next mrning, when we 44. (wake) up, we were happy that it was sunny again.
Our camping trip didn't g very well, but we 45. (feel) very warm. When we left the
VI.阅读与表达 (共4小题,每小题2分,共8分)
阅读短文，然后根据内容回答问题，并将答案写在答题卡(纸)的相应位置。
Children usually like animals, but many zs are t far away frm children's huses. A“smallz”in Qingda is special —it is in a welfare hme(福利院).
The Qingda Children's Welfare Hme has abut 200 children and mst f them have health prblems. They are lucky because the z is near their huses. They can see animals ut f the windws.
Last year,a big by there wasn't in gd health. The head f the welfare hme visited him every day. On ne visit, the head asked,“What d yu want t d after yu get well?”The by said,“I want t see animals.”Then the head said,“I'll take yu t the z after yu get well.”But, the next day,the by left the wrld.“I was very srry because the by's dream didn't cme true,”the head said.Just then he wanted t build a small z in the welfare hme. It wuld be fr the children wh lve animals. S here came the small z.
Als, the z is different frm thers because all the animals are children's favrite. Nw there are hrses, sheep and peafwl(孔雀) in the small z. When the weather is gd, the children g t watch and have fun with them.
“Staying with animals will help make the children healthy,”said Yang Suhng, ne f the dctrs in the welfare hme.
47. Hw many children are there in the welfare hme?
48. Wh visited the unhealthy by in the welfare hme every day?
49. Why is the“smallz”special and different?
50. D yu like the“small z”? Say smething abut yur idea.(答案不少于15个单词)
VII. 书面表达 (共20分)
根据要求完成大作文，并将答案写在答题卡(纸)的相应位置。
51.Gina是你的新朋友。上周日她从俄罗斯来到了中国，你带她参观了你家乡的农场。请根据下面问题提示用英语写一篇发言稿，向你的同学和老师介绍Gina 以及你们的行程。
What des Gina lk like?
What was the weather like?
What did yu d n the farm?
Hw did yu feel abut the trip?
注意：1.文中要包含所给的提示信息，可适当发挥。
2.词数70~80词，所给的词不计入总词数。
3.要求字迹工整，语句通顺，条理清晰。
4.文中不要出现真实的学校，班级和姓名。
Dear teachers and classmates,
I have a gd friend Gina.
锦州市2023~2024学年度七年级 (下) 期末质量检测
英语试卷参考答案及评分标准
I.单词读音归类 (共5分，每小题1分，共5个空)
1. draw 2. talk 3. take 4. sale5. letter
(1和2答案可互换：3 和4答案可互换)
II. 完成句子(共5分。每小题1分, 共10个空, 每空0.5分)
6. wuld like 7. There is 8. are swımming 9. call;back 10. gets/becmes ppular
III. 阅读理解 (共 32分, 每小题 2分, 共16小题)
11-14DBDA 15-18CABC 19-22 CBDA 23-26 BDEA
IV. 完形填空 (共10分, 每小题1分)
27-31BDABD 32-36 BACCD
V. 语篇填空 (共10分, 每题1分)
37. an 38. enjyed 39. sunny 40. us 41. befre
42. In 43. Luckily 44. wke 45. felt 46. thanks
评分说明：其中有两个单词需要大写首字母，一个单词没大写不扣分，两个单词没大写扣1分。
VI.阅读与表达 (共8分,每小题2分)
47.(There arc) abut 200 (children).
48. The head f the welfare hme(visited the unhealthy by every day).
49. Because the small z/it is in the welfare hme and all the animals are children's favrite.(答出两点给2分, 每一点1分。)
50. Yes. Children can watch and have fun with animals, and staying with animals will help make the children healthy... etc)
评分说明：本题具有一定的开放度，要求围绕主题、逻辑清晰，合理表达。如有能够满足试题语境的其它答案，评卷教师应该予以给分。单词拼写、字母大小写、标点符号或语法等错误两处以内不扣分。
VII. 书面表达(共20分)
评分标准：
评分说明：
1. 语言错误包括：单词拼写、字母大小写、标点符号、语法等。
2. 在每个档次中，单词拼写、标点符号、语法等错误，每累计两处(含2处)扣1分，累计扣分不超过5分。
参考范文: One pssible versin:
…… She is a very beautiful girl. She has lng straight hair. She is f medium height. She always wears a pair f glasses. She likes dancing and playing the pian.
It was sunny and warm last Sunday. I shwed her arund the farm in the cuntryside. It nly tk us 15 minutes t walk there. We did a lt f interesting things there. We fed sheep,picked strawberries and flew a kite.
All in all, we had an interesting trip. We felt tired but happy.
附：教师在阅卷过程中，对开放性试题的答案要酌情处理，只要符合题意，且语言正确，即使不是参考答案的回答方法，也应该给分。 Rund Seat Restaurant
Place:2 Bridge Rad
Fd: rast(烤制的) muttn, beef and chicken
Pricc:$ 18 fr ne persn
Opening hurs:10:30 am—1:30 pm; 5:00 pm—11:00 pm
There are free rast cakes and vegetable prridge.
Fresh Taste Restaurant
Place: 14 Bridge Rad
Fd: seafd(海鲜)
Price: S 20 fr ne persn
Opening hurs:9:00 am—9:00 pm
It has many kinds f seafd. All the fd is clean and fresh.
Dafu Restaurant
Place:6 Suth Street
Fd: chicken ndles, beef dumplings and vegetables
Price:$ 16 fr an adult(成年人);$ 10 fr a child between 6 and 18 years ld
Opening hurs:10:30 am—10:00 pm
Jhn's Dining Huse
Place: 10 Suth Street
Fd: hamburgers, bread, cakes, cffee, ice- cream and juice
Price: S 12 fr ne persn
Opening hurs:10:00 am—10:30 pm
The restaurant is clean and quiet.
A. After dinner, yu can ask t help yur friends.
B. Yu can als think abut bringing a small gift.
C. When yu eat, yu shuld enjy the fd quietly.
D. Remember nt t take anything away r pen any drs in the huse.
E. Yu shuld say smething abut the fd.
档次(分数)
评分标准
第一档 (18~20 分)
很好地完成了规定的写作任务。包含所有内容要点, 结构完整,语句流畅,意思清楚、连贯。使用较为丰富的语法结构和汇, 语法和词汇错误极少, 格式正确, 书写规范。
第二档 (14~17 分)
校好地完成了规定的写作任务。基本上包含所有内容要点, 结构较为完整,语句完整,意思清楚, 语法结构和词汇错误较少, 格式基本正确, 书写较为规范。
第三档 (10~13 分)
基本上完成了规定的写作任务。包含主要内容要点, 结构欠完整,少数语句不通舰, 意思基本清楚, 语法结构和坷汇错误较多, 格式基本正确, 书写基本规范。
第四档 (6~9 分)
未能按要求完成规定的写作任务。只包含少教内容要点, 结构不完整,多数语句欠完整,意思不够清楚, 语法结构和坷汇错误较多,影响理解, 格式不够正确, 书写欠规范。
第五档 (0~5 分)
未能按要求完成规定的写作任务。只写出个别要点, 结构不完整.多数语句不完整或意思不明,语法和词汇错误很多, 书写不规范。