山东省烟台市海阳市2023-2024学年六年级下学期期末英语试题

这是一份山东省烟台市海阳市2023-2024学年六年级下学期期末英语试题，共7页。试卷主要包含了非选择题必须用0，考生必须保持答题卡的整洁， /bæk/ A， /drɪŋk/ A， /peɪ/ A， /seɪv/ A， /hɑ等内容，欢迎下载使用。
注意事项：
1.本试卷共8页，满分90分，考试用时100分钟；
2.答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号、座位号填写在试卷和答题卡规定的位置上；
3.选择题选出答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的选项标号涂黑；如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其它选项；
4.非选择题必须用0.5毫米黑色签字笔作答，答案必须写在答题卡各题目指定区域内相应位置上；如需改动，先划掉原来的答案，然后再写上新答案；不能使用涂改液等。不按以上要求作答无效；
5.考生必须保持答题卡的整洁。考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回
第一部分 基础知识运用（共四节，满分25分）
第一节 语音考察（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
A.从每小题A、B、C、D四个选项中选出划线部分与其他三个不同的选项。
1. A. gd B. lk C. cl D. bk
2. A. learn B. near C. early D. earth
3. A. yung B. huse C. arund D. cludy
4. A. much B. chess C. schl D. chicken
5. A. unifrm B. useful C. student D. supermarket
B.根据所给的音标，从A、B、C、D四个选项中选出与所给音标对应的单词。
6. /bæk/ A. bag B. bike C. back D. bank
7. /drɪŋk/ A. dry B. dress C. drive D. drink
8. /peɪ/ A. pay B. play C. pair D. pear
9. /seɪv/ A. say B. save C. same D. center
10. /hɑ:f/ A. hall B. hard C. hair D. half
第二节 词汇运用（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
根据句意和所给的汉语提示，写出句中单词的适当形式。
11. Mary spends ne hur ______（打扫） her rm every Sunday.
12. There is a ______（餐馆） acrss frm the hspital.
13. She can answer the questin ______（容易地）.
14. The ______（男人） in white are Jack’s uncles.
15. The by wishes t have his mther’s ______（美味的） fd.
第三节 句型转换（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分；每空一词）
16. The little girl likes cats because they are cute.（对画线部分提问）
______ des the little girl ______ cats?
17. Remember t bring me the ntebk .（改为同义句）
______ ______ t bring me the ntebk.
18. Sam always plays sccer every Saturday.（改为否定句）
Sam ______ always ______ sccer every Saturday.
19. The students are reading bks in the library.（改为一般疑问句）
______ the students ______ bks in the library?
20. Lily is ding her hmewrk in her rm nw.（对画线部分提问）
______ is Lily ______ in her rm nw?
第四节 完成句子（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分；每空一词）
根据所给汉语句子，把英语句子补充完整。
21.你能给他捎个信吗？
Culd yu take a ______ ______ him?
22.今天是周日。超市里有许多人在购物。
Tday is Sunday. Many peple ______ ______ in the supermarket nw.
23.邮局在旅馆的后面。
The pst ffice is ______ the ______.
24.当你面临危险时，请记得马上拨打110。
Please remember call 110 at nce when yu are ______ ______.
25.我妈妈喜欢听轻柔的音乐。
My mther enjys ______ ______ sft music.
第二部分 语言知识运用（共两节，满分20分）
第一节 完形填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Julie is my aunt. She is a teacher. Let me tell yu abut 26 life. She gets up at 6:30 in the mrning. Then she 27 fr twenty minutes. She thinks it’s gd exercise. It can make her 28 . She eats breakfast at abut 7:20. She usually eats it quickly 29 she desn’t have much time. After breakfast, she ges t wrk 30 subway. At 12:00, she eats 31 at schl. Her favrite fd is chicken. She thinks it 32 nice. She has n classes in the afternn. S she wrks in the teachers’ ffice（办公室）. She ges hme at abut 5:30 p. m. She desn’t g t wrk n Saturday r Sunday. She usually ges t the 33 with her family. Lk! Her sn Sam is 34 a small lin in the z. And she is drinking water. 35 is Sam’s father ding? Oh, he is bating.
26. A. my B. her C. his D. their
27. A. reads B. draws C. writes D. runs
28. A. healthy B. bring C. healthily D. quiet
29. A. r B. but C. because D. s
30. A. n B. in C. at D. by
31. A. lunch B. dinner C. breakfast D. vegetables
32. A. lks B. tastes C. sunds D. gets
33. A. z B. club C. library D. supermarket
34. A. see B. watch C. listening D. watching
35. A. Wh B. When C. What D. Where
第二节 语法填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入一个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Yu can’t see this schl n any map f New Delhi, India. There are n desks 36 chairs fr the students here. There 37 （be） nly a blackbard and three walls. Rajesh Kumar Sharma pens（开办） it.
Sharma is frty-nine years ld. He is frm a family f eleven. N ne in 38 （he） family ges t university（大学）. He pens the schl 39 （help） pr（贫穷的） bys and girls g t schl. Any student 40 Grade 1 and Grade 9 can study here. Nw there are abut 200 41 （student） in the schl. They dn’t have a classrm, but they are happy in the schl. Lk! They 42 （have） classes near flwers and trees nw.
Sharma ften 43 （tell） his students, “Study hard, and yu can g t university ne day.” Mamta is 44 student in Grade 9 here. “Our teacher is Sharma. We really thank him fr 45 （teach）us.” she says.
第三部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分20分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下列短文，从短文后每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。
A
Wang Mei is a girl frm Shanghai, China. Tday is July 1st. She is chatting（聊天） with her new friends n the Internet at hme.
46. What’s the weather like in Sydney these days?
A. Snwy. B. Windy. C. Rainy. D. Cludy.
47. What des Jenny usually d in summer?
A. She usually swims in the sea. B. She usually ges t the mvies.
C. She usually ges t the muntains. D. She usually travels arund the cuntry.
48. What can we learn frm the passage?
A. Wang Mei is frm Beijing. B. Jenny likes snwy days very much.
C. It’s summer in Sanya nw. D. Linda wants t skate with her brther.
B
Mst peple g t schl r g t wrk by car r by bus. They think it’s cnvenient（方便的）. I usually ride a bike t schl. Here are the reasns（原因）.
It’s healthy. Riding a bike is gd exercise fr us. It makes us feel gd.
It’s green. Riding a bike is green. It causes very little pllutin（污染）, s if mre peple ride bikes, the air will be cleaner.
It’s fun. It’s very interesting t ride a bike if yu want t g n a trip with friends. Yu can stp if yu’d like t see the beautiful things. Yu can als talk and sing happily and feel relaxed.
49. Hw many reasns are there fr the writer t ride a bike?
A. Tw B. Three C. Fur D. Five
50. The writer desn’t think it’s ______ t ride a bike.
A. healthy B. green C. interesting. D. expensive
51. Frm the passage we can knw that the writer’s life may be ______.
A. busy B. bring C. cheap D. clrful
52. What’s the best title fr this passage?
A. A cheap bike. B. Different jbs.
C. Reasns fr riding bikes. D. Hw t ride bikes.
C
My name is Amy. I cme frm Australia. Nw let me tell yu smething abut my neighbrhd.
There are three streets and a lt f buildings（建筑物） in it. On Star Street, there is a htel and it is acrss frm the park. The park is very beautiful. Many peple g there t have fun. I like t play there n weekends, t. A bank is next t the htel and sme clthes stres are near the bank.
There is a pst ffice n Green Street. A library is between the pst ffice and the hspital. Acrss frm the hspital, there is a restaurant. The fd there is gd. Many peple like t have lunch and dinner there, s it’s very crwded every day.
On Center Street, there is a big middle schl with abut 3000 students and 200 teachers. It’s my schl. At the end f the street, there is a z. It’s a place fr peple t see animals. I really like spending time there.
★
53. Where can peple buy clthes in the passage?
A. On Star Street. B. On Green Street. C. On Center Street. D. In a park.
54. What des the underline wrd crwded in Paragraph 3 mean in Chinese?
A. 现代的 B. 拥挤的 C. 宽敞的 D. 发达的
55. Which is the map f Center Street?
A. B.
C. D.
56. Which f the fllwing can be put in ★ ?
A. D yu like my cuntry? B. D yu like my schl?
C. I lve my schl very much. D. I lve my neighbrhd very much.
D
In Thailand there are many elephants. The elephants are very big and kind. They can carry heavy things, s they can d a lt f hard wrk fr peple. And they are very cute and clever. They can act（表演） and dance. Smetimes they can play games with peple. Nw peple frm all ver the wrld g t Thailand t have fun with elephants. It is very interesting.
But d yu knw there is a festival fr the elephants in Thailand? It is Elephant Day. It cmes at the third weekend f Nvember. On that day, the elephants dn’t wrk r act, s they can have a gd rest. The elephants can als wear clrful clthes. And peple give them a lt f gd fd, such as fruit and vegetables, s they are happy and have a gd time.
57. What can’t elephants d in Thailand in this passage?
A. Dance and act. B. Carry heavy things.
C. Take phts fr peple. D. Play games with peple.
58. What des the underlined （划线） wrd “they” refer t（指）?
A. The peple in Thailand. B. The elephants in Thailand.
C. The fruit and vegetables. D. The peple frm all ver the wrld.
59. What des it mainly talk abut in Paragraph（段） 2?
A. Smething abut Elephants Day. B. Elephants can eat gd fd.
C. Elephants can have a gd rest. D. The elephants can wear clrful clthes.
60. What fd d peple give elephants n Elephant Day?
A. Rice. B. Eggs. C. Bananas. D. Chicken
第二节（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
阅读下列对话，从对话后的选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有一项为多余选项。
A: Excuse me, culd yu tell me the way t the pst ffice?
B: I’m srry I dn’t knw. 61 Yu can ask the man ver there.
A: 62
（A walks t a man.）
A: Excuse me, sir. 63
C: N, there isn’t. But there is ne n Xinhua Street.
A: 64
C: It’s abut five kilmeters. Yu can take a bus there.
A: 65
C: Yu shuld take N.108 bus. It will take yu t the pst ffice.
A: OK, I see. Thank yu very much.
第四部分 书面表达（共两节，满分25分）
第一节 阅读表达（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
阅读下列短文，完成短文后的问题。
There are seven days in a week. They are Sunday, Mnday, Tuesday, Wednesday, Thursday, Friday and Saturday. The students g t schl frm Mnday t Friday. They have many lessns and play happily after schl. On weekends, they dn’t g t schl. They ften stay at hme. They d their hmewrk, help their parents with the husewrk, read bks and watch TV. Sme bys like t play cmputer games. But they can’t play t much. It’s bad fr their eyes. They have fun playing with their friends. They talk abut interesting things, chat with each ther and have snacks（零食） and drinks. Smetimes they g ut. They g swimming with their parents, walk their dgs, visit museums, see films and watch ball games like ftball, basketball, vlleyball and badmintn. They enjy themselves n weekends.
66. What’s the first day f a week?
________________________________________________________________________________________
67. When d the students g t schl?
________________________________________________________________________________________
68. Why can’t the bys play t much cmputer games?
________________________________________________________________________________________
69. Please list（列举） tw ball games in the passage.
________________________________________________________________________________________
70. What d yu usually d n weekends?（开放题）
________________________________________________________________________________________
第二节写作（满分15分）
假如你是李华，现在升入初中已经一年了，请根据以下信息提示介绍一下你的中学概况及你的班级和学习近况。
1.学校概况：有15个班级和60名老师，你的教室在一楼，教室后面是一个大操场，右面是一个小花园，里面有很多花和树，在花园的前面有一个图书馆；
2.班上同学很友好、互相帮助；
3.你最喜欢的学科是……并说明理由。
提示词汇：the first flr 一楼；playgrund 操场；garden花园
要求：
1.必须包含以上提示内容，可适当增加细节，以使语句通顺，行文连贯；
2.书写认真规范，词数60左右（开头已给出，不计入总词数）；
3.文章中不得出现个人真实姓名和校名。
I’m Li Ha. I’m in Grade Six. Nw let me tell yu smething abut my schl and my study here.
________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
初一英语参考答案及评分标准
第一部分 基础知识运用（共四节，满分25分）
第一节 语音考察（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
1-5 CBACD 6-10 CDABD
第二节 词汇运用（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
11. cleaning 12. restaurant 13. easily 14. men 15. delicius
第三节 句型转换（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分；每空一词）
16. Why like 17. Dn’t frget 18. desn’t play 19. Are reading 20. What ding
第四节 完成句子（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分；每空一词）
21. message fr 22. are shpping 23. behind htel 24. in danger 25. listening t
第二部分 语言知识应用（共两节，满分20分）
第一节 完形填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
26-30. BDACD 31-35. ABADC
第二节 语法填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
36. r/ and 37. is 38. his 39. t help 40. between
41. students 42. are having 43. tells 44. a 45. teaching
第三部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分20分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
46—50 ADCBD 51-55 DCABD 56-60 DCBAC
第二节（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
61-65 ABFCD
第四部分 书面表达（共两节，满分25分）
第一节 阅读表达（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
（注意：答案不唯一，表达语言准确规范，内容符合题目要求即可。）
66. Sunday 67. Frm Mnday t Friday. 68. Because it’s bad fr their eyes.
69. ftball, basketball（列举文中任意两种球类运动，首字母大小写皆可）
70. I usually d sme reading at hme.（开放题）
第二节 写作（满分15分）
One pssible versin:
I’m Li Ha. I’m in Grade Six. Nw let me tell yu smething abut my schl and my study here.
There are 15 classrms and 60 teachers in my schl. My classrm is n the first flr. There is a big playgrund behind my classrm. There is a small garden n the right. There are a lt f flwers and trees in it. They are very beautiful. There is a library in frnt f the garden. My classmates are friendly. We help each ther. We have English, Chinese, maths, art and PE. My favrite subject is maths. It is difficult but interesting. I lve my schl.Li Hua
I’m a girl frm China, and I live in Sanya, Hainan Island. It’s summer here nw. It is usually sunny and ht in summer. I like t play vlleyball n the beach and swim in the sea.
Linda
I’m frm Sydney, Australia. It’s snwing here these days. It’s very cld. I’m wearing a cat. I like snwy days because I can make a snwman with my brther. I als like skating.
Jenny
I live in Lndn, the UK. It’s summer nw, and it is sunny and ht. I think it’s the best time t travel（旅行）. I usually g t sme beautiful places f the cuntry with my parents.
A. I’m new here.
B. Thanks all the same.
C. Hw far is it frm here?
D. Which bus shuld I take?
E. I’m lking fr a pst ffice.
F. Is there a pst ffice arund here?