2023-2024学年江苏省南通市海安市译林版（三起）六年级下册期末学业质量监测英语试卷(无答案)

这是一份2023-2024学年江苏省南通市海安市译林版（三起）六年级下册期末学业质量监测英语试卷(无答案)，共6页。试卷主要包含了单项选择，阅读短文，完成练习，根据首字母，选词填空，按要求改写句子，书面表达等内容，欢迎下载使用。
听力部分（共35分）
一、听录音，选出你所听到的内容，听两遍。（每题1分，共8分）
（ ）1. A. B. C.
（ ）2. A. B. C.
（ ）3. A. B. C.
（ ）4. A. B. C.
（ ）5. A. Sunday B. send C. sund
（ ）6. A. plant B. plan C. plane
（ ）7. A. lk fr B. lk at C. lk ut f
（ ）8. A. care abut B. talk abut C. think abut
二、听录音，根据所听内容，选择合适的应答句，听两遍。（每题2分，共12分）
（ ）9. A. He plays the pian. B. He tld a stry. C. He's ging t tell a stry.
（ ）10. A. Next Mnday. B. Last week. C. The day befre yesterday.
（ ）11. A. In Canada. B. In the US. C. In Australia.
（ ）12. A. By bus. B. At seven. C. On Jinshan Rad.
（ ）13. A. Let's eat first. B. Yes, yu are C. N, we aren't.
（ ）14. A. Yes, I d.B. N, I didn't. C. N, thank yu.
三、听录音，根据所听对话及问题，选择正确答案，听两遍。（每题1分，共5分）
（ ）15.When is it nw?
A. It's in March. B. It's in May. C. It's in June.
（ ）16. Where des Mike's grandma live?
（ ）17. Hw will Mike g there?
A. B. C.
（ ）18. What present will Grandma and Mum get frm Mike n that day?
A. Sme nice fd B. Sme beautiful flwers.
C. A beautiful garden.
（ ）19. What can Nancy d?
A. She can draw beautifully. B. She can ck well.
C. She can grw beautiful flwers.
四、听录音，根据所听内容，完成短文，听三遍。（每空1分，共10分）
Amy gets up 20 and has breakfast at hme every day. She has a 21 diet. She ges t schl n ft. T keep 22 , she always 23 fr the green man befre crssing the 24 . She 25 her classmates at schl. She 26 her hmewrk befre dinner. She has sme hbbies. She likes 27 . She will g t Beijing next 28 . She will take a lt f 29 there. This is all abut Amy's life. What abut yurs?
笔试部分（共65分）
第I卷（选择题共30分）
五、单项选择（1至3题选出划线部分发音不同的一项）。（每题1分，共15分）
（ ）30. The wrker is reading a stry abut frty hrses.
A B C
（ ）31. Can yu shw me nw t make a snwman.
A B C
（ ）32. There is a white rabbit n the chair. It has big ears.
A B C
（ ）33. She is talking abut the ftball game.
A. excitedly; exciting B. excited; exciting C. excited; excitedly
（ ）34. Please give me ranges. I nly have range juice in the glass. I want t make sme.
A. a few; a little B. a lt; little C. sme; a lt
（ ）35. Many peple want t live a life and they eat .
A. healthy; health B. health; healthy C. healthy; healthily
（ ）36. Mary is in Australia. The natinal flag（旗）f it is . She can find and there.
A.①③⑤B.②④⑤C.①④⑤
（ ）37. Playing ftball n the rad is nt .
A. safe B. safety C. safely
（ ）38. the twins ging t at the party next week?
A. Are; sing B. Will; sing C. Are; singing
（ ）39.My parents read newspapers and my brther a ty car yesterday evening.
A. makes B. make C. made
（ ）40. Mike wants t be a . He beautifully.
A. dancer; dance B. dancing; dance C. dancer; dances
（ ）41.— is Helen ging t d at the party?—She is ging t dance.
A. Hw B. What C. Where
（ ）42. There a fashin shw at schl last Mnday.
A. is B. was C. will be
（ ）43. He will g t Shanghai May. He will stay there tw weeks.
A. in; fr B. n; abut C. n; fr
（ ）44.—Shall we visit the Ty Market this Sunday afternn, Alan?
— . There are many interesting things there.
A. Sunds great B. Nt at all C. Thank yu
六、阅读短文，完成练习。（每题1分，共15分）
（A）
The Lantern Festival is ne f the traditinal Chinese 45 . It's n the 46 day f the first lunar mnth. It means the 47 f the Spring Festival, and it has the first full mn f the new year. Sme peple make and 48 clurful lanterns. Family members get tgether and have delicius tangyuan. Peple guess lantern riddles, watch lin dances and s n. It is als an imprtant chance fr peple t 49 Chinese cultures t the wrld.
完形填空。
（ ）45. A. festival B. festivals C. day
（ ）46. A. fifteenth B. fiftieth C. fifth
（ ）47. A. end B. beginning C. start
（ ）48. A. watch B. lk C. wait
（ ）49. A. tell B. ask C. talk
（B）
阅读影院告示，判断正误，正确的用“T”表示，错误的用“F”表示。
（ ）50. The name f the film is Bnnie Bears.
（ ）51. Jhn wants t see the film n 13th July. That means he will see it n a Sunday.
（ ）52. Sam is 9. He needs 20 yuan t watch it in the afternn.
（ ）53. Uncle Li wants t see the film with his 4 friends n Sunday mrning. They need 160 yuan.
（ ）54. We can eat sme snacks when we watch the film.
（C）
Even's favurite city is Yangzhu. Nw she is making a travel bk abut it.
● 55① The fur seasns here are very beautiful. My favurite ne is spring. It is warm and rainy. Many peple cme t see Chinese peny and Viburnum. They are bth the city flwers f Yangzhu. In autumn, peple usually g camping in the parks. The trees dance in the wind. What abut summer and winter? Cme and have a lk!
● 55② Yu'll see many beautiful gardens in Yangzhu, like Slender West Lake, Ge Yuan Garden, He Yuan Garden and s n. Ge Yuan Garden is ne f the Fur Famus Gardens in China. It gt the name because the three leaves n the tip f a bamb branch lks like the Chinese character Ge（个）. There are fur hills in the garden. They mean the fur seasns. The stnes f the hills are frm fur different places.
● 55③ T travel arund the city, yu can take the bus. Yu can travel by taxi t. Maybe there will be the metr in this city sme day. Let's wait and see!
Can yu make a travel bk abut yur favurite city?
任务一：阅读短文，选择正确答案。
（ ）55. What can be the subtitles（小标题）fr the travel bk?
A. ①Seasns ②Gardens③Traffic B.①Flwers ②Gardens ③Traffic
C. ①Flwers ②Ge Yuan Garden ③Minibuses
（ ）56. Hw many kinds f city flwers des Yangzhu have?
A. Tw B. Three. C. Fur.
（ ）57. is ne f the Fur Famus Gardens in China.
A. Slender West Lake B. Ge Yuan Garden C. He Yuan Garden
（ ）58.We can take the t travel arund Yangzhu nw.
A.①②③B.①②C.②③
任务二：回答问题。
59. After reading Even's travel bk, what d yu want t d in Yangzhu? Why?

第II卷（非选择题共35分）
七、根据首字母、中文或上下文提示完成句子。（每空1分，共10分）
60. Bbby likes Science. He wants t be a s in the future.
61. Australia is an interesting c .
62. The baby is sleeping. Please talk q .
63. Yang Ling has many gd habits. She n ges t schl late.
64. My grandma is in Nantng nw. She （回去）Nanjing tmrrw.
65. （儿童节）is n the first f June.
66. She is ging t Taipei next week. She will （拍许多照片）.
67.— （多久）will he stay in Beijing? —Srry, I dn't knw.
68. Peple in Jiangsu are friendly. We （欢迎游客）.
69.This is （第二个博物馆）f the city.
八、选词填空（每个单词或短语只使用一次）。（每空1分，共10分）
A.从方框中选择合适的单词或短语填空（有一项多余）。
Nancy: Hi, Jim. Where are yu ging fr yur 70 ?
Jim: We're ging t Beijing.
Nancy: Really? It's 71 . Hw will yu g there, by train r by plane?
Jim: By train.
Nancy: 72 are yu ging t visit?
Jim: I'm ging t visit 73 , the Summer Palace and s n.
Nancy: Ww, 74 . Have a gd time!
B.从方框中选择合适的单词或短语，并用其适当形式填空。
75. The girl , "I will g t the park." Then she gt n the bus.
76. clean, we shuld put the rubbish in the bin.
77. It's late fr schl. Let's walk .
78. Wuld yu like t my birthday party?
79. We smke in the library.
九、按要求改写句子。（每空1分，共8分）
80. Mike is singing. Helen is als singing. I am singing t.（合并成一句话）
Mike, Helen and I singing.
81. I gt sme presents frm my parents.（改成一般疑问句）
yu get presents frm parents?
82. Helen isn't gd at Maths.（改成同义句）
Helen in Maths.
十、书面表达。（共7分，含书写分2分）
83.梦想是一种力量，可以激励我们不断前进，不断挑战自我。你有什么梦想呢？请以“My dream”为题写一写你的梦想。
要求：1.条理清晰，语法正确，语句通顺，用词恰当；
2.书写工整、规范，正确使用标点符号；
3.不少于5句话。
注意事项
考生在答题前请认真阅读本注意事项
1.本试卷共6页，满分为100分，考试时间为60分钟。考试结束后，请将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
2.答题前，请务必将自己的姓名、考试证号用0.5毫米黑色字迹的签字笔填写在答题卡指定的位置。
3.请认真核对监考员在答题卡上所粘贴的条形码上的姓名、考试证号与你本人的是否相符。
4.答案必须按要求书写在答题卡上，在草稿纸、试卷上答题一律无效。
Centre Cinema
Bnnie Bears《熊出没》
Time
Frm Mnday, 1st July t Saturday, 31st August
Day time: 9:30a. m.~3:30 p. m
Evening time: 6:00 p. m.~9:00 p. m.
Price（价格）
Day time: ¥40
Evening time: ¥60
50% ff fr children under 10 all the time.
Grups（团票）
Grups f 5~9: 10% ff（九折）
Grups f 10 r mre: 20% ff（八折）
Rules
What places sunds great the Great Wall
the Bund a big city summer hliday
cme quick must say keep