还剩6页未读，
继续阅读
2023-2024学年山西省吕梁市交城市八年级（上）期末英语试卷
展开
这是一份2023-2024学年山西省吕梁市交城市八年级（上）期末英语试卷，共9页。试卷主要包含了情景反应，对话理解，语篇理解，听力填空，补全对话，完形填空，阅读理解，词语运用等内容，欢迎下载使用。
（总分120分 时间120分钟）
听力部分（共20分）
一、情景反应（每小题1分，共5分）
本题共5个小题，每小题你将听到一组对话。请你从每小题所给的A、B、C三幅图片中，选出与你所听到的信息相关联的一项。
二、对话理解（每小题1分，共5分）
本题共5个小题，每小题你将听到一组对话和一个问题。请你从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出一个最佳选项。
( ) 6. A.Gui yang. B.Sanya . C.Beijing.
( )7. A. A ck. B. A pilt. C. An artist.
( )8. A. Meet friends B. G t the dctr. C. Visit grandparents.
( )9. A.Ppcrn . B. Milk shake. C. Beef ndles .
( ) B.43. C.44.
三、语篇理解（每小题1分，共5分）
本题你将听到一篇短文。请你根据短文内容和所提出的5个问题，从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出一个最佳选项。
( )11. What did Miss Smith ask the children t d?
A.T ck a turkey. B. T draw a picture. C. T make a card.
( )12. What did Mike draw?
A. A big tree. B. A big hand. C. A big turkey.
( )13. Wh did Mike want t thank?
A. A farmer. B. A pliceman. C. His teacher.
( )14. What did Miss Smith ften d?
A. She tk Mike fr walks. B. She bught Mike pencils. C. She gave Mike sme pens.
( )15. What can we learn frm the stry?
A. Other kids laughed at Mike. B. Mike wanted t be a teacher.
C. Miss Smith lved the children.
四、听力填空（每小题1分，共5分）
本题你将听到一篇短文。请你根据所听内容，完成下面表格，并将获取的信息填到相应的位置上，每空一词。
16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
笔试部分（共100分）
五、补全对话（每小题1分，共5分）
请根据对话内容，从方框内所给的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，并将答案写在相应的位置上。选项中有两项是多余选项。
A: Hell, Li Lei!
B: Hi, Jim. Can yu cme and play sccer with us n Saturday mrning?
A: Srry, I can’t. 21
B: A pian lessn? Well, hw abut afternn?
A: 22 Yu knw, he has a farm in the village. He asked me t help last week.
B: G t the farm? That sunds great. 23
A: Certainly. That’s very gd. Uncle must be very happy t see yu.
B: 24
A: Nthing. But yu have t put n yur ld clthes.
B: OK. 25
A: Let’s meet at my huse at 2: 30 p. m.
B: OK, see yu then.
A.Can I g with yu?
B. I’ll have a pian lessn.
C.What shuld I take with?
D. I have t g t my uncle’s farm.
E.When and where shall we meet?
F.Will yu give me sme advice?
G.My aunt invites me t her party.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
六、完形填空（每小题1分，共8分）
请阅读下面短文，理解其大意，然后从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出一个能填入空白处的最佳选项。
In 2023, I challenged（挑战） myself and did many things I never thught abut. Fr me, the year f 2024 is a new 26 . In the new year, I’m ging t make sme wishes and really hpe they’ll cme true.
I’m a middle schl student nw, 27 schlwrk is very imprtant t me. My parents always tell me t study hard. Only in this way can I g t a gd high schl. S my first wish is abut studying hard. I need t 28 my math and science. I’m ging t spend 29 time n thse classes and less time watching TV. Besides being busy with schlwrk, I’m ging t take up new 30 like dancing and playing ftball. What’s mre, playing ftball is gd 31 my health. We als have different kinds f after-schl clubs at ur schl and many f my friends 32 thse after-schl activities. S in 2024, I plan t jin in different activities and try smething new.
With the new year cming, I 33 that I’ll be a better persn by fllwing my plans.
( ) B. pening C.beginning
( ) B.s C.because
( ) B.accept C.slve
( )29.A. mre B.better C. less
( )30.A. prgrams B. hbbies C.subjects
( )31. A. at B. fr C. with
( )32. A. plan B. questin C. enjy
( ) sure B.find ut C.turn n
七、阅读理解（这一部分共五篇短文，A至D每篇短文后有五个小题，E篇后有六个小题，每小题2分，共52分）
(A)
请阅读下面信息, 从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。
( ) 34. Tm can take part in the cmpetitin,hw ld is Tm ?
A. 7 years ld. B. 16 years ld. C. 20 years ld.
( ) 35.If yu finish yur picture n ________, yu can e-mail it t the cmpetitin.
A. May 20, 2024 B. April 20, 2024 C. January 1, 2024
( ) 36. Hw many winners will there be in the end?
A. 3. B. 6. C. 9.
( ) 37.If Jack is ne f the winners, but nt the tp three winners, what will he get?
A.An iPad . B. A trip t Japan. C. Sme clr pencils and paints
( ) 38.This passage is prbably . .
A. a stry B. a ntice(通知) C. a piece f news
(B)
请阅读下面短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出一个最佳选项。
Dear Jane,
I’m having a dinner party at Garden Restaurant this Saturday t celebrate my mther’s birthday. It’s a great thing fr ur family. Yu are a gd friend f my family, s my parents and I hpe yu can cme.
The party will start at half past six in the evening. There is ging t be a small cncert. A band (乐队) will perfrm sme ppular and classical (古典的) sngs at first. Then tw 11-year-ld bys will give us a talent shw. They will shw a special kind f dance. At arund eight ’clck, we are starting ur dinner. We can talk and laugh during the dinner. And then we will take sme phts tgether. Every friend can get a red hat befre leaving.
I knw yu’re always busy these days, but I hpe yu can make it.
Yurs,
Dave
( ) 39. Dave is having a birthday party fr his ________.
A. daughterB. snC. mther
( ) 40. Wh is perfrming sngs at first?
A. A band.B. A by.C. A waiter.
( ) 41. The dinner is starting at arund ________.
A. 6: 30 a.m.B. 8: 00 p.m.C. 8: 30 p.m
( ) 42. They will take phts ________.
A. after dinner B. befre the cncert C. befre dinner
( ) 43. The underlined phrase “make it” means ________.
A. keep healthyB. get there n timeC. feel better
（C）
请阅读下面短文,根据短文内容，从方框内所给的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，使短文意思通顺。选项中有一项为多余项。
Rbts seem new t sme peple, but they have a lng histry. 44 Frm then n, all kinds f different rbts came t peple lives. 45 The rbts in these mvies are faster, smarter and strnger than peple.
46 Rbts are ften used t d dangerus and bring jbs in factries. In peple’s hmes, rbts can help clean the windws and the flr. They can take meals frm the kitchen t the sick peple’s rms in hspitals. 47 Sme peple can’t mve, s many f them use a rbt t help them get better. Finally , they culd walk arund like a nrmal man.
Peple will imprve rbts with the develpment(发展) f science in the future. 48 S that they can help us in a lt f different ways.
48.
(D)
请阅读下面短文,根据语篇内容，在方框内的缩写文章中，填入与短文意思最符合的单词。每空一词。
Three years ag, my father and I had a serius disagreement (分歧).We hardly saw r spke t each ther unless we had t meet at Christmas r ther family dinners, much less spke t each ther.
S last Tuesday, when I gt hme, I planned t tell my father I lved him. It’s strange (奇怪的), but just making that decisin seemed t make me happy.
I was s excited that I culdn’t sleep during the night. The next mrning I went t wrk early. At 9:00 in the mrning,I called my Dad t ask if I culd cme ver after wrk. I gt a big surprise that he agreed.
At 5:30 in the afternn I was at my parents’ huse kncking the dr(敲门), expecting that Dad wuld pen the dr. Luckily, Dad did answer the dr.
I walked in and said quickly, “Dad, I just cme ver t tell yu that I lve yu s much.”Believe it r nt! After I said these wrds, a smile appeared n his face and he hugged (拥抱) me , “I LOVE YOU t, my dear sn.”He said happily.
49. 50. 51. 52. 53.
(E)
请阅读下面文本，根据语篇内容，回答问题。
Peple usually feel tired after a day’s wrk, watching sitcms is a gd way fr them t relax. Maybe yu didn’t knw the wrd “sitcm” befre, but yu might understand what kind f mvies are sitcms when yu watch sme f them.
Sitcms ften happen in the same place, such as a living rm r an ffice. The stries are ften abut the small prblems in everyday life, Every character has a special persnality（个性）. Peple lve sitcms because the characters can make them laugh ut lud when they talk t each ther. The characters can keep their sense f humr（幽默感）, even when they’re having a bad day. They tell us that even when bad things happen, we shuld laugh them ff.
54. What is the first sitcm in China?
_______________________________________________________________
55. Hw ld will Friends be in 2024?
______________________________________________________________
56. Translate the underlined sentence int Chinese.
_______________________________________________________________
57. Where d sitcms usually happen?
_______________________________________________________________
58. What can the characters d when they’re having a bad day?
_______________________________________________________________
59. What d yu think f sitcms? Why?
__________________________________________________
八、词语运用（这一部分共两篇短文，A篇有五个小题，每小题2分，B篇有十个小题，每小题1分，共20分）
A.请阅读下面短文，根据语篇内容，在空白处填入恰当的单词，使短文通顺、连贯，每空一词。
Different peple have different hbbies. Sme peple like drawing pictures. Sme peple like taking phts.Hwever, I lve playing 60 . My parents used t (曾经)be basketball players. They are gd 61 playing basketball. They ften teach me t play basketball. With their help, I am very interested in basketball. I 62 tall and strng like them. I jined the schl basketball team last year. I play basketball with my teammates three times a week,n Mnday,Thursday 63 Saturday. I’m ging t be a basketball player when I grw 64 .In my free time, I’m ging t practice basketball really hard.
60. 61. 62. 63. 64.
B.请根据语篇内容，用方框中所给词的正确形式填空，使短文通顺、连贯。方框中有两个词为多余项。
Sme students are talking abut their vacatins last mnth. Everyne had a great time. What did they d? Let’s have a lk.
Wang Cheng went t Guizhu with his family. They saw Huang gu shu Waterfall. It 65 wnderful. And they tk quite a few 66 . They had a gd time there. And they wanted t g there next time.
Ben didn’t d 67 special. Mst f the time he just stayed at hme t read and relax. He enjyed reading bks 68 at hme. He culd 69 abut many things alne.
As fr Alice’s vacatin, because it was ht,she 70 t g t Sanya with her sister and they did smething fun there. It was her 71 time t g there, s everything was really interesting. She bught sme gifts fr 72 parents and herself. Her parents liked the gifts very much.
Tim went t his 73 farm in the cuntryside with his family. The air was 74 than the cities. They fed sme hens and after dinner they walked arund the farm. It was enjyable, and he didn’t feel bad althugh there were n cmputer games.
65. 66. 67. 68. 69.
70. 71. 72. 73. 74.
九、书面表达（共15分）
假如你是李华，之前因妈妈不同意你长时间玩电子游戏而很生气，但和你的朋友交谈后你豁然开朗。请你根据以下要点及要求给你的妈妈写微信倾诉一下你的心声。
要点：1.长时间玩电子游戏是错的，妈妈是对的。
2.玩游戏对眼睛不好，也不利于学习。
3.向妈妈说对不起，应该与妈妈好好交谈。
4.以后不玩游戏，努力学习去的好成绩，帮父母做家务，吃健康的食物。
要求：1.必须包括以上要点，可适当发挥。
2.不少于70词，开头结尾已给出，不计入总词数。
Dear,mm.________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
八年级英语参考答案
听力部分(共20分)
一、情景反应（每小题1分，共5分）1-5 BACAB
二、对话理解（每小题1分，共5分）6-10 BCBAA
三、语篇理解（每小题1分，共5分）11--15 BBCAC
四、听力填空（每小题1分，共5分）16.traditinal 17.salt 18.ninety/90 19.mix 20.again
笔试部分(共100分)
五、补全对话（每小题1分，共5分) 21-25 BDACE
六、完形填空（每小题1分，共8分）26--33 CBAABBCA
七、阅读理解(每小题2分，共52分)
(A)34-38CBCAB
(B)39-43CABAB
(C)44--48CABFE
(D)49. serius 50. hardly 51. planned 52. surprise 53. appeared
(E)54.Lve My Family.
55. It will be 30 years ld. / 30 (years ld).
56.它是美国最受欢迎的情景喜剧之一。
57. In the same place, such as a living rm r an ffice.
58. They can keep their sense f humr.
59. I think they are interesting. Because they can make me laugh.（开放性题目，答案合理即可）
词语运用
A.（每小题2分，共10分）60.basketball 61.at 62.am 63.and 64.up
B.（每小题1分，共10分）65.was 66.phts 67. anything 68.quietly 69.think 70.decided 71.first 72. her 73.uncle’s 74. fresher
九、书面表达（共15分）
评分参考：
本题总分为15分，按五个档次给分。评分时先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量、确定或调整本档次，最后给分。
评分时，应注意的重要内容为：
1. 内容要求、所应用词汇和语法结构的数量和准确性、上下文的连贯性及语言的得体性；
2. 单词拼写累计四处扣1分，语法错误累计两处扣1分；
3. 词数不符合要求，从总分中酌情减去1~2分；
各档次的给分范围和要求:
13~15分：能按要求适当发挥，内容丰富。应用了较丰富的语言结构和词汇，用词准确、句子通顺、行文连贯、表达清楚，没有或有个别语言错误，具备较强的语言应用能力。
10~12分：有一定的发挥，但内容欠丰富。应用的语言结构和词汇能满足任务要求，句子较通顺，表达较清楚，有少量语言错误。
7~9分：内容不够丰富。语言表达简单，行文不够连贯，句子不够通顺，有部分语言错误。
4~6分：所写内容过少。语言不规范，句子不条理，行文不连贯，语言错误较多。
0~3分：所写内容与要求无关，内容杂乱，不知所云。语言很不通顺，用词很不准确，错误过多，几乎难以读懂。
听力材料
一、情景反应（每小题1分，共5分）
本题共5个小题，每小题你将听到一组对话。请你从每小题所给的A、B、C三幅图片中，选出与你所听到的信息相关联的一项.每组对话读两遍。 ( M=Man W=Wman )
(读速要求:每组对话之间停顿00′02″)
1. M:What are yu ging t d next year？
W:Well,I’m ging t take pian lessns.I really lve music.
2. M: Mary. I think I will be late fr wrk.
W: Dn't wrry. If yu take a taxi, yu'll get there n time.
3. M:Did yu eat any special fd in Yun nan?
W:Yes,I ate Yun nan rice ndles.
4.M:May,let’s g t the cncert n the weekend.
W:I’m srry.I have t study fr a math test.
5. M:Anna, what des yur brther want t be when he grws up?
W: He wants t be a ping-png player.
二、对话理解
本题共5个小题，每小题你将听到一组对话和一个问题。请你从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出一个最佳选项。每组对话读两遍。( M=Man W=Wman )
(读速要求:每组对话之间停顿00′03″)
6.M: Hi, Claire. Did yu g anywhere interesting n yur vacatin?
W: Yes,I went t Sanya.It was my first time there.
Q:Where did Claire g n vacatin?
7. M:What des yur brther d?
W:He is a ck.In fact, his dream jb is t be an artist.
Q: What des the girl's brther want t be?
8.M: Jenny,can yu play tennis with me n Saturday mrning?
W: Srry, I can’t.I have t g t the dctr.
Q: What will Jenny d n Saturday mrning ?
9.M: Mum,are yu ging t make milk shake this afternn?
W:Oh,n Mike.I’m ging t make ppcrn.
Q: What will Mike’s mum make this afternn?
M: Is yur mther as ld as yur father,Tina?
W:N,my father is 43,and my mther is ne year yunger than my father.
Q:Hw ld is Tina’s mther?
三、语篇理解
本题你将听到一篇短文。请你根据短文内容和所提出的5个问题，从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出一个最佳选项。短文读两遍。(读速要求:第一遍读完后停顿00′05″,再读第二遍)
Thanksgiving Day was near. T celebrate the festival, the first grade teacher, Miss Smith asked her class t draw a picture t shw their thanks. Mst f the class might draw a big turkey because it is a symbl f the festival.
Hwever, Mike made a special picture. He was a different by frm thers. In his picture, he drew a big hand.
His classmates guessed whse hand it culd be. Sme children said it was the hand f a farmer because farmers raised turkeys. Others said a pliceman's hand, because the plice helped peple. Then the teacher asked, "Mike, whse hand is it?"He said, "It's yurs, Miss Smith."
Mike's wrds let the teacher think f the happy time they spent tgether. Fr many times she said, "Take my hand, Mike,we'll g ut fr a walk. "Or, "Let me shw yu hw t hld yur pencil."
四、听力填空
本题你将听到一篇短文。请你根据所听内容，完成下面表格，并将获取的信息填到相应的位置上，每空一词。短文读两遍。(读速要求:第一遍读完后停顿00′10″,再读第二遍)
If yu travel arund England,yu will find ptates almst everywhere. Jacket Ptat is a kind f traditinal fd in England. It has a histry f ver 200 years. Making ptates isn't difficult, but here are the tips that make the mst differences.Tday I'd like t teach yu hw t make Jacket Ptat. First,clean the ptat and cut it int half. Brush il and salt n it. Next,put it in a ht ven and ck it fr ninety minutes. If the ptat is big, ck it fr lnger time. When the ptat is sft, take it ut and mix it with sme cheese, butter and nins. Then put it in the ht ven again and ck it fr fifteen minutes. It's time t enjy it. Yu can eat it with a cup f cld juice.题号
听力部分
笔试部分
总分
一
二
三
四
五
六
七
八
九
得分
Hw t make Jacket Ptat
*It’s a kind f 16 fd in England.
*It has a histry f ver 200 years.
* Clean the ptat and cut it int half and rush il and 17 n it.
*Put it in a ht ven and ck it fr 18 minutes.
* When the ptat is sft, take it ut and 19 it with sme cheese, butter and nins.
*Put it in the ht ven 20 and ck it fr fifteen minutes.
Dream Car Art Cmpetitin
D yu have a creative idea what the car f the future might lk like? Cme t jin the 2024 Dream Car Art Cmpetitin. All yu need is sme paper and drawing materials(材料), such as clr pencils and paints.
Children f the fllwing ages can take part in the cmpetitin:
Grup 1: Under 8 years ld Grup 2: 8-11 years ld Grup 3: 12-15 years ld
Yu shuld draw yur dream car n a piece f paper n larger than A3 size. Yu shuld als describe hw the car wrks and what makes it special. Then, send yur picture t dreamcarcntest@qq.cm. The clsing date(截止日期) is May10, 2024.
The result will cme ut in a mnth. There will be three winners in each grup. They each can get an iPad . The tp three winners will als take a trip t Japan in 2024.
We hpe the activity lets the children nt nly have fun, but als get t knw hw imprtant their dreams are.
January 5, 2024
A.Yu may see rbts in sme mvies.
B.In real life, yu can see rbts everywhere.
C.The first rbt was made 2, 000 years ag.
D.Peple never knw what will happen in the future.
E.Scientists are wrking hard t make rbts like humans mre.
F.They will nt lse way because they can remember maps easily.
Three years ag, my father and I had a 49 disagreement. Because f that, we 50 saw r spke t each ther. Last Tuesday, I gt hme and 51 t tell my father my true feelings. I called him the next mrning and asked if I culd cme ver after schl. T my 52 , he agreed. In the afternn, I came t the dr f my parents’ huse and expected that Dad wuld answer the dr. Luckily, it was Dad. I walked in and said “I lve yu s much.” A smile 53 n his face ,he hugged me and als said happily, “I lve yu t, my dear sn.”
The US
Friends
Hw I Met Yur Mther
Gd Luck Charli
The Big Bang Thery
China
Lve My Family
Hme with Kids
Lve Apartment （公寓）
My wn Swrdsman
The first sitcm in China is Lve My Family. It began t be created in Nvember 5th, 1992 and came ut in 1994. It tld many funny stries abut a six-persn family and their friends r neighbrs in Beijing. It was directed（导演）by Ying Da, s he is called “the father f the sitcm” in China.
In 2019, the American sitcm Friends turned 25 years ld. It is ne f the mst ppular sitcms in America. The sitcm tells the stries f six yung friends living in New Yrk City. The shw is mainly abut the ups and dwns they face in their life.
quiet she be smething think ne
uncle pht he fresh decide catch
（总分120分 时间120分钟）
听力部分（共20分）
一、情景反应（每小题1分，共5分）
本题共5个小题，每小题你将听到一组对话。请你从每小题所给的A、B、C三幅图片中，选出与你所听到的信息相关联的一项。
二、对话理解（每小题1分，共5分）
本题共5个小题，每小题你将听到一组对话和一个问题。请你从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出一个最佳选项。
( ) 6. A.Gui yang. B.Sanya . C.Beijing.
( )7. A. A ck. B. A pilt. C. An artist.
( )8. A. Meet friends B. G t the dctr. C. Visit grandparents.
( )9. A.Ppcrn . B. Milk shake. C. Beef ndles .
( ) B.43. C.44.
三、语篇理解（每小题1分，共5分）
本题你将听到一篇短文。请你根据短文内容和所提出的5个问题，从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出一个最佳选项。
( )11. What did Miss Smith ask the children t d?
A.T ck a turkey. B. T draw a picture. C. T make a card.
( )12. What did Mike draw?
A. A big tree. B. A big hand. C. A big turkey.
( )13. Wh did Mike want t thank?
A. A farmer. B. A pliceman. C. His teacher.
( )14. What did Miss Smith ften d?
A. She tk Mike fr walks. B. She bught Mike pencils. C. She gave Mike sme pens.
( )15. What can we learn frm the stry?
A. Other kids laughed at Mike. B. Mike wanted t be a teacher.
C. Miss Smith lved the children.
四、听力填空（每小题1分，共5分）
本题你将听到一篇短文。请你根据所听内容，完成下面表格，并将获取的信息填到相应的位置上，每空一词。
16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
笔试部分（共100分）
五、补全对话（每小题1分，共5分）
请根据对话内容，从方框内所给的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，并将答案写在相应的位置上。选项中有两项是多余选项。
A: Hell, Li Lei!
B: Hi, Jim. Can yu cme and play sccer with us n Saturday mrning?
A: Srry, I can’t. 21
B: A pian lessn? Well, hw abut afternn?
A: 22 Yu knw, he has a farm in the village. He asked me t help last week.
B: G t the farm? That sunds great. 23
A: Certainly. That’s very gd. Uncle must be very happy t see yu.
B: 24
A: Nthing. But yu have t put n yur ld clthes.
B: OK. 25
A: Let’s meet at my huse at 2: 30 p. m.
B: OK, see yu then.
A.Can I g with yu?
B. I’ll have a pian lessn.
C.What shuld I take with?
D. I have t g t my uncle’s farm.
E.When and where shall we meet?
F.Will yu give me sme advice?
G.My aunt invites me t her party.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
六、完形填空（每小题1分，共8分）
请阅读下面短文，理解其大意，然后从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出一个能填入空白处的最佳选项。
In 2023, I challenged（挑战） myself and did many things I never thught abut. Fr me, the year f 2024 is a new 26 . In the new year, I’m ging t make sme wishes and really hpe they’ll cme true.
I’m a middle schl student nw, 27 schlwrk is very imprtant t me. My parents always tell me t study hard. Only in this way can I g t a gd high schl. S my first wish is abut studying hard. I need t 28 my math and science. I’m ging t spend 29 time n thse classes and less time watching TV. Besides being busy with schlwrk, I’m ging t take up new 30 like dancing and playing ftball. What’s mre, playing ftball is gd 31 my health. We als have different kinds f after-schl clubs at ur schl and many f my friends 32 thse after-schl activities. S in 2024, I plan t jin in different activities and try smething new.
With the new year cming, I 33 that I’ll be a better persn by fllwing my plans.
( ) B. pening C.beginning
( ) B.s C.because
( ) B.accept C.slve
( )29.A. mre B.better C. less
( )30.A. prgrams B. hbbies C.subjects
( )31. A. at B. fr C. with
( )32. A. plan B. questin C. enjy
( ) sure B.find ut C.turn n
七、阅读理解（这一部分共五篇短文，A至D每篇短文后有五个小题，E篇后有六个小题，每小题2分，共52分）
(A)
请阅读下面信息, 从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。
( ) 34. Tm can take part in the cmpetitin,hw ld is Tm ?
A. 7 years ld. B. 16 years ld. C. 20 years ld.
( ) 35.If yu finish yur picture n ________, yu can e-mail it t the cmpetitin.
A. May 20, 2024 B. April 20, 2024 C. January 1, 2024
( ) 36. Hw many winners will there be in the end?
A. 3. B. 6. C. 9.
( ) 37.If Jack is ne f the winners, but nt the tp three winners, what will he get?
A.An iPad . B. A trip t Japan. C. Sme clr pencils and paints
( ) 38.This passage is prbably . .
A. a stry B. a ntice(通知) C. a piece f news
(B)
请阅读下面短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出一个最佳选项。
Dear Jane,
I’m having a dinner party at Garden Restaurant this Saturday t celebrate my mther’s birthday. It’s a great thing fr ur family. Yu are a gd friend f my family, s my parents and I hpe yu can cme.
The party will start at half past six in the evening. There is ging t be a small cncert. A band (乐队) will perfrm sme ppular and classical (古典的) sngs at first. Then tw 11-year-ld bys will give us a talent shw. They will shw a special kind f dance. At arund eight ’clck, we are starting ur dinner. We can talk and laugh during the dinner. And then we will take sme phts tgether. Every friend can get a red hat befre leaving.
I knw yu’re always busy these days, but I hpe yu can make it.
Yurs,
Dave
( ) 39. Dave is having a birthday party fr his ________.
A. daughterB. snC. mther
( ) 40. Wh is perfrming sngs at first?
A. A band.B. A by.C. A waiter.
( ) 41. The dinner is starting at arund ________.
A. 6: 30 a.m.B. 8: 00 p.m.C. 8: 30 p.m
( ) 42. They will take phts ________.
A. after dinner B. befre the cncert C. befre dinner
( ) 43. The underlined phrase “make it” means ________.
A. keep healthyB. get there n timeC. feel better
（C）
请阅读下面短文,根据短文内容，从方框内所给的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，使短文意思通顺。选项中有一项为多余项。
Rbts seem new t sme peple, but they have a lng histry. 44 Frm then n, all kinds f different rbts came t peple lives. 45 The rbts in these mvies are faster, smarter and strnger than peple.
46 Rbts are ften used t d dangerus and bring jbs in factries. In peple’s hmes, rbts can help clean the windws and the flr. They can take meals frm the kitchen t the sick peple’s rms in hspitals. 47 Sme peple can’t mve, s many f them use a rbt t help them get better. Finally , they culd walk arund like a nrmal man.
Peple will imprve rbts with the develpment(发展) f science in the future. 48 S that they can help us in a lt f different ways.
48.
(D)
请阅读下面短文,根据语篇内容，在方框内的缩写文章中，填入与短文意思最符合的单词。每空一词。
Three years ag, my father and I had a serius disagreement (分歧).We hardly saw r spke t each ther unless we had t meet at Christmas r ther family dinners, much less spke t each ther.
S last Tuesday, when I gt hme, I planned t tell my father I lved him. It’s strange (奇怪的), but just making that decisin seemed t make me happy.
I was s excited that I culdn’t sleep during the night. The next mrning I went t wrk early. At 9:00 in the mrning,I called my Dad t ask if I culd cme ver after wrk. I gt a big surprise that he agreed.
At 5:30 in the afternn I was at my parents’ huse kncking the dr(敲门), expecting that Dad wuld pen the dr. Luckily, Dad did answer the dr.
I walked in and said quickly, “Dad, I just cme ver t tell yu that I lve yu s much.”Believe it r nt! After I said these wrds, a smile appeared n his face and he hugged (拥抱) me , “I LOVE YOU t, my dear sn.”He said happily.
49. 50. 51. 52. 53.
(E)
请阅读下面文本，根据语篇内容，回答问题。
Peple usually feel tired after a day’s wrk, watching sitcms is a gd way fr them t relax. Maybe yu didn’t knw the wrd “sitcm” befre, but yu might understand what kind f mvies are sitcms when yu watch sme f them.
Sitcms ften happen in the same place, such as a living rm r an ffice. The stries are ften abut the small prblems in everyday life, Every character has a special persnality（个性）. Peple lve sitcms because the characters can make them laugh ut lud when they talk t each ther. The characters can keep their sense f humr（幽默感）, even when they’re having a bad day. They tell us that even when bad things happen, we shuld laugh them ff.
54. What is the first sitcm in China?
_______________________________________________________________
55. Hw ld will Friends be in 2024?
______________________________________________________________
56. Translate the underlined sentence int Chinese.
_______________________________________________________________
57. Where d sitcms usually happen?
_______________________________________________________________
58. What can the characters d when they’re having a bad day?
_______________________________________________________________
59. What d yu think f sitcms? Why?
__________________________________________________
八、词语运用（这一部分共两篇短文，A篇有五个小题，每小题2分，B篇有十个小题，每小题1分，共20分）
A.请阅读下面短文，根据语篇内容，在空白处填入恰当的单词，使短文通顺、连贯，每空一词。
Different peple have different hbbies. Sme peple like drawing pictures. Sme peple like taking phts.Hwever, I lve playing 60 . My parents used t (曾经)be basketball players. They are gd 61 playing basketball. They ften teach me t play basketball. With their help, I am very interested in basketball. I 62 tall and strng like them. I jined the schl basketball team last year. I play basketball with my teammates three times a week,n Mnday,Thursday 63 Saturday. I’m ging t be a basketball player when I grw 64 .In my free time, I’m ging t practice basketball really hard.
60. 61. 62. 63. 64.
B.请根据语篇内容，用方框中所给词的正确形式填空，使短文通顺、连贯。方框中有两个词为多余项。
Sme students are talking abut their vacatins last mnth. Everyne had a great time. What did they d? Let’s have a lk.
Wang Cheng went t Guizhu with his family. They saw Huang gu shu Waterfall. It 65 wnderful. And they tk quite a few 66 . They had a gd time there. And they wanted t g there next time.
Ben didn’t d 67 special. Mst f the time he just stayed at hme t read and relax. He enjyed reading bks 68 at hme. He culd 69 abut many things alne.
As fr Alice’s vacatin, because it was ht,she 70 t g t Sanya with her sister and they did smething fun there. It was her 71 time t g there, s everything was really interesting. She bught sme gifts fr 72 parents and herself. Her parents liked the gifts very much.
Tim went t his 73 farm in the cuntryside with his family. The air was 74 than the cities. They fed sme hens and after dinner they walked arund the farm. It was enjyable, and he didn’t feel bad althugh there were n cmputer games.
65. 66. 67. 68. 69.
70. 71. 72. 73. 74.
九、书面表达（共15分）
假如你是李华，之前因妈妈不同意你长时间玩电子游戏而很生气，但和你的朋友交谈后你豁然开朗。请你根据以下要点及要求给你的妈妈写微信倾诉一下你的心声。
要点：1.长时间玩电子游戏是错的，妈妈是对的。
2.玩游戏对眼睛不好，也不利于学习。
3.向妈妈说对不起，应该与妈妈好好交谈。
4.以后不玩游戏，努力学习去的好成绩，帮父母做家务，吃健康的食物。
要求：1.必须包括以上要点，可适当发挥。
2.不少于70词，开头结尾已给出，不计入总词数。
Dear,mm.________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
八年级英语参考答案
听力部分(共20分)
一、情景反应（每小题1分，共5分）1-5 BACAB
二、对话理解（每小题1分，共5分）6-10 BCBAA
三、语篇理解（每小题1分，共5分）11--15 BBCAC
四、听力填空（每小题1分，共5分）16.traditinal 17.salt 18.ninety/90 19.mix 20.again
笔试部分(共100分)
五、补全对话（每小题1分，共5分) 21-25 BDACE
六、完形填空（每小题1分，共8分）26--33 CBAABBCA
七、阅读理解(每小题2分，共52分)
(A)34-38CBCAB
(B)39-43CABAB
(C)44--48CABFE
(D)49. serius 50. hardly 51. planned 52. surprise 53. appeared
(E)54.Lve My Family.
55. It will be 30 years ld. / 30 (years ld).
56.它是美国最受欢迎的情景喜剧之一。
57. In the same place, such as a living rm r an ffice.
58. They can keep their sense f humr.
59. I think they are interesting. Because they can make me laugh.（开放性题目，答案合理即可）
词语运用
A.（每小题2分，共10分）60.basketball 61.at 62.am 63.and 64.up
B.（每小题1分，共10分）65.was 66.phts 67. anything 68.quietly 69.think 70.decided 71.first 72. her 73.uncle’s 74. fresher
九、书面表达（共15分）
评分参考：
本题总分为15分，按五个档次给分。评分时先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量、确定或调整本档次，最后给分。
评分时，应注意的重要内容为：
1. 内容要求、所应用词汇和语法结构的数量和准确性、上下文的连贯性及语言的得体性；
2. 单词拼写累计四处扣1分，语法错误累计两处扣1分；
3. 词数不符合要求，从总分中酌情减去1~2分；
各档次的给分范围和要求:
13~15分：能按要求适当发挥，内容丰富。应用了较丰富的语言结构和词汇，用词准确、句子通顺、行文连贯、表达清楚，没有或有个别语言错误，具备较强的语言应用能力。
10~12分：有一定的发挥，但内容欠丰富。应用的语言结构和词汇能满足任务要求，句子较通顺，表达较清楚，有少量语言错误。
7~9分：内容不够丰富。语言表达简单，行文不够连贯，句子不够通顺，有部分语言错误。
4~6分：所写内容过少。语言不规范，句子不条理，行文不连贯，语言错误较多。
0~3分：所写内容与要求无关，内容杂乱，不知所云。语言很不通顺，用词很不准确，错误过多，几乎难以读懂。
听力材料
一、情景反应（每小题1分，共5分）
本题共5个小题，每小题你将听到一组对话。请你从每小题所给的A、B、C三幅图片中，选出与你所听到的信息相关联的一项.每组对话读两遍。 ( M=Man W=Wman )
(读速要求:每组对话之间停顿00′02″)
1. M:What are yu ging t d next year？
W:Well,I’m ging t take pian lessns.I really lve music.
2. M: Mary. I think I will be late fr wrk.
W: Dn't wrry. If yu take a taxi, yu'll get there n time.
3. M:Did yu eat any special fd in Yun nan?
W:Yes,I ate Yun nan rice ndles.
4.M:May,let’s g t the cncert n the weekend.
W:I’m srry.I have t study fr a math test.
5. M:Anna, what des yur brther want t be when he grws up?
W: He wants t be a ping-png player.
二、对话理解
本题共5个小题，每小题你将听到一组对话和一个问题。请你从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出一个最佳选项。每组对话读两遍。( M=Man W=Wman )
(读速要求:每组对话之间停顿00′03″)
6.M: Hi, Claire. Did yu g anywhere interesting n yur vacatin?
W: Yes,I went t Sanya.It was my first time there.
Q:Where did Claire g n vacatin?
7. M:What des yur brther d?
W:He is a ck.In fact, his dream jb is t be an artist.
Q: What des the girl's brther want t be?
8.M: Jenny,can yu play tennis with me n Saturday mrning?
W: Srry, I can’t.I have t g t the dctr.
Q: What will Jenny d n Saturday mrning ?
9.M: Mum,are yu ging t make milk shake this afternn?
W:Oh,n Mike.I’m ging t make ppcrn.
Q: What will Mike’s mum make this afternn?
M: Is yur mther as ld as yur father,Tina?
W:N,my father is 43,and my mther is ne year yunger than my father.
Q:Hw ld is Tina’s mther?
三、语篇理解
本题你将听到一篇短文。请你根据短文内容和所提出的5个问题，从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出一个最佳选项。短文读两遍。(读速要求:第一遍读完后停顿00′05″,再读第二遍)
Thanksgiving Day was near. T celebrate the festival, the first grade teacher, Miss Smith asked her class t draw a picture t shw their thanks. Mst f the class might draw a big turkey because it is a symbl f the festival.
Hwever, Mike made a special picture. He was a different by frm thers. In his picture, he drew a big hand.
His classmates guessed whse hand it culd be. Sme children said it was the hand f a farmer because farmers raised turkeys. Others said a pliceman's hand, because the plice helped peple. Then the teacher asked, "Mike, whse hand is it?"He said, "It's yurs, Miss Smith."
Mike's wrds let the teacher think f the happy time they spent tgether. Fr many times she said, "Take my hand, Mike,we'll g ut fr a walk. "Or, "Let me shw yu hw t hld yur pencil."
四、听力填空
本题你将听到一篇短文。请你根据所听内容，完成下面表格，并将获取的信息填到相应的位置上，每空一词。短文读两遍。(读速要求:第一遍读完后停顿00′10″,再读第二遍)
If yu travel arund England,yu will find ptates almst everywhere. Jacket Ptat is a kind f traditinal fd in England. It has a histry f ver 200 years. Making ptates isn't difficult, but here are the tips that make the mst differences.Tday I'd like t teach yu hw t make Jacket Ptat. First,clean the ptat and cut it int half. Brush il and salt n it. Next,put it in a ht ven and ck it fr ninety minutes. If the ptat is big, ck it fr lnger time. When the ptat is sft, take it ut and mix it with sme cheese, butter and nins. Then put it in the ht ven again and ck it fr fifteen minutes. It's time t enjy it. Yu can eat it with a cup f cld juice.题号
听力部分
笔试部分
总分
一
二
三
四
五
六
七
八
九
得分
Hw t make Jacket Ptat
*It’s a kind f 16 fd in England.
*It has a histry f ver 200 years.
* Clean the ptat and cut it int half and rush il and 17 n it.
*Put it in a ht ven and ck it fr 18 minutes.
* When the ptat is sft, take it ut and 19 it with sme cheese, butter and nins.
*Put it in the ht ven 20 and ck it fr fifteen minutes.
Dream Car Art Cmpetitin
D yu have a creative idea what the car f the future might lk like? Cme t jin the 2024 Dream Car Art Cmpetitin. All yu need is sme paper and drawing materials(材料), such as clr pencils and paints.
Children f the fllwing ages can take part in the cmpetitin:
Grup 1: Under 8 years ld Grup 2: 8-11 years ld Grup 3: 12-15 years ld
Yu shuld draw yur dream car n a piece f paper n larger than A3 size. Yu shuld als describe hw the car wrks and what makes it special. Then, send yur picture t dreamcarcntest@qq.cm. The clsing date(截止日期) is May10, 2024.
The result will cme ut in a mnth. There will be three winners in each grup. They each can get an iPad . The tp three winners will als take a trip t Japan in 2024.
We hpe the activity lets the children nt nly have fun, but als get t knw hw imprtant their dreams are.
January 5, 2024
A.Yu may see rbts in sme mvies.
B.In real life, yu can see rbts everywhere.
C.The first rbt was made 2, 000 years ag.
D.Peple never knw what will happen in the future.
E.Scientists are wrking hard t make rbts like humans mre.
F.They will nt lse way because they can remember maps easily.
Three years ag, my father and I had a 49 disagreement. Because f that, we 50 saw r spke t each ther. Last Tuesday, I gt hme and 51 t tell my father my true feelings. I called him the next mrning and asked if I culd cme ver after schl. T my 52 , he agreed. In the afternn, I came t the dr f my parents’ huse and expected that Dad wuld answer the dr. Luckily, it was Dad. I walked in and said “I lve yu s much.” A smile 53 n his face ,he hugged me and als said happily, “I lve yu t, my dear sn.”
The US
Friends
Hw I Met Yur Mther
Gd Luck Charli
The Big Bang Thery
China
Lve My Family
Hme with Kids
Lve Apartment （公寓）
My wn Swrdsman
The first sitcm in China is Lve My Family. It began t be created in Nvember 5th, 1992 and came ut in 1994. It tld many funny stries abut a six-persn family and their friends r neighbrs in Beijing. It was directed（导演）by Ying Da, s he is called “the father f the sitcm” in China.
In 2019, the American sitcm Friends turned 25 years ld. It is ne f the mst ppular sitcms in America. The sitcm tells the stries f six yung friends living in New Yrk City. The shw is mainly abut the ups and dwns they face in their life.
quiet she be smething think ne
uncle pht he fresh decide catch
相关试卷
山西省吕梁市2023-2024学年下学期期末质量监测八年级英语试卷： 这是一份山西省吕梁市2023-2024学年下学期期末质量监测八年级英语试卷，共8页。
2023-2024学年山西省吕梁市交口县九年级（上）期末英语试卷（PDF版含答案含听力原文）.pdf2023-2024学年山西省吕梁市交口县九年级（上）： 这是一份2023-2024学年山西省吕梁市交口县九年级（上）期末英语试卷（PDF版含答案含听力原文）.pdf2023-2024学年山西省吕梁市交口县九年级（上），共6页。
2023-2024学年山西省吕梁市交口县七年级（上）期末英语试卷（PDF版含答案含听力原文）.pdf2023-2024学年山西省吕梁市交口县七年级（上）： 这是一份2023-2024学年山西省吕梁市交口县七年级（上）期末英语试卷（PDF版含答案含听力原文）.pdf2023-2024学年山西省吕梁市交口县七年级（上），共6页。
