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    2023-2024学年湖北省襄阳市枣阳市七年级(上)期末英语试卷

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    这是一份2023-2024学年湖北省襄阳市枣阳市七年级(上)期末英语试卷,共11页。试卷主要包含了单词辨音 ,选择填空,完形填空,阅读理解,按要求完成下列各小题,语法填空,完成句子,书面表达等内容,欢迎下载使用。

    (本试题卷共8页,满分90分,考试时间100分钟)

    客观题(选择题) (共50分)
    一、单词辨音 (本大题满分 5 分,每小题 1 分)。
    从每小题 A 、B 、C 、D 所给的四个单词中,选出一个其划线部分读音不同于其它三个读音的那个词,并将所选答案的序号填入题前括号内。
    ( )1. A. whyB. whiteC. whD. where
    ( )2. A. heB. redC. penD. desk
    ( )3. A. thisB. thseC. theirD. thanks
    ( )4. A. nameB. blackC. sameD. table
    ( )5. A. fdB. gdC. lkD. bk
    二、选择填空(本大题共10小题,每小题1分,满分10分)
    从每小题A、B、C、D四个选项中,选出一个可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
    ( )6. —What’s yur sister’s favrite ________?
    —She is always in red. Dn’t yu knw?
    A. sngB. clrC. mvie D. subject
    ( )7. —Is that yur ID card, Mike?
    —N, ________. It’s Mary’s.
    A. this is B. it’sC. this isn’t D. it isn’t
    ( )8. ________ cmes befre Octber and it’s the ________ mnth f the year.
    A. September, nineB. September, ninth
    C. Nvember, eleventhD. Nvember, eleven
    ( )9. —When des yur English lessn ________ n Tuesday?
    —At ten, then we have a music lessn.
    A. finishB. helpC. spellD. have
    ( )10. —________ yur sister have a vlleyball?
    —N. She has a baseball.
    A. IsB. DC. AreD. Des
    ( )11. —Hey, Helen’s birthday is this Saturday. Let’s _______ the fd.
    —Sure. Hw abut sme fruit and bread?
    A. ask frB. lk fr C. think abutD. cme n
    ( )12. —Is that blue jacket Tm’s?
    —N, it isn’t. ________ is purple.
    A. MineB. YursC. HersD. His
    ( )13. —Excuse me. I want t buy a T-shirt fr my daughter.
    —We have T-shirts ________ white and blue ________ nly $10.
    A. at; inB. in; frC. fr; inD. in; at
    ( )14. Alice desn’t like gegraphy because she thinks it is _______.
    A. difficultB. usefulC. interestingD. fun
    ( )15. —Frank, let’s play sccer tgether, OK?
    —________ Let’s g.
    A. Here yu are.B. That sunds gd.
    C. Have fun.D. Yu’re welcme.
    三、完形填空(本大题共10小题,每小题1分,满分10分)
    阅读下面短文,根据短文内容从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中,选出一个可以填入空白处的最佳选项,使短文意思完整、句子通顺。
    Dear Jenny,
    Yu ask me abut my favrite festival. It is Spring Festival. It is 16 January r February. Fr the festival, we d many things and buy many things, 17 we are always busy. The clr f Spring Festival is 18 . We wear new red 19 and put up (张贴) red paper-cuts (窗花). And we put lucky mney in red packets (红包). 20 are always happy thse days because they can get lucky mney frm 21 parents, grandparents, uncles and aunts. What d we usually
    22 n Spring Festival? Jiazi. In the 23 , the family will watch TV tgether but children dn’t like watching TV fr 4 hurs. It’s really 24 fr them. They always play firewrks 25 their friends.
    What abut yu? What festival d yu like best?
    Yur friend,
    Li Ming
    ( )16. A. nB. inC. atD. fr
    ( )17. A. becauseB. butC. sD. and
    ( )18. A. yellwB. blueC. rangeD. red
    ( )19. A. jacketB. sheC. clthesD. skirt
    ( )20. A. ChildrenB. ParentsC. TeachersD. Peple
    ( )21. A. theirB. theyC. themD. ur
    ( )22. A. seeB. eatC. playD. d
    ( )23. A. mrningB. afternnC. eveningD. night
    ( )24. A. relaxingB. bringC. interestingD. difficult
    ( )25. A. tB. at C. abut D. with
    四、阅读理解(本大题共两节,满分25分)
    第一节 阅读下面三篇材料,根据材料内容从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中,选出一个最佳选项。(每小题2分,共20分)
    A
    Lk! This is ur classrm. It is very big. It has big windws. We’re having an English class. There are 22 girls and 28 bys in ur class. Everyne has a desk and a chair. They are all new. We lk after them very well. In ur classrm there are tw blackbards. One is fr the teachers and the ther is fr students. The walls lk very white. On them we can see sme nice pictures and tw maps, the map f China and the map f the wrld(世界).
    In the mrning, the students cme t schl very early, and the teachers cme t schl early, t. We have fur lessns in the mrning and tw in the afternn. We like ur lessns very much. We like ur class and ur classrm. We als lve ur teachers.
    ( )26. There are students in the class accrding t the passage.
    22B. 28C. 45D. 50
    ( )27. The underlined wrd them in paragraph 1 refers t .
    A. the teachersB. the girlsC. the bysD. the desks and chairs
    ( )28. The students have lessns every day.
    6B. 5C. 4D. 2
    ( )29. Where can we see nice pictures?
    A. On the blackbards.B. On the walls.
    C. On the chairs.D. On the windws.
    ( )30. Which f the fllwing is TRUE accrding t the passage?
    A. Our classrm is very small.
    B. We have tw blackbards fr teachers.
    C. The desks and chairs in the classrm are ld.
    D. We like ur class and ur teachers very much.
    B
    Hw d yu feel when there is a test tmrrw? What d yu usually d befre a test?
    There are fur students, they plays all day even thugh(尽管) they knw they will have a test the next day. The next mrning, they cme up with an idea.
    Each student puts sme dirt(土) n their faces and hands, and then they g t the teacher’s ffice. “Dear sir, we have a flat tire(轮胎) n the way t schl, we push the car back t schl all the mrning, s we miss the test.” They says.
    The teacher lks at them fr sme secnds and says that they can take the test after three days.
    On the day f the test, the teacher puts them in fur rms. They are s happy because they have three days t study fr the test. Hwever, as they get the paper, they find there are nly tw questins:
    1) What’s yur name? (1 Pint)
    2) Which tire is flat? (99 Pints)
    Their faces get red because f their lies(谎言). Nw it’s nt hard t see hw shameful they all feel.
    ( )31. What really happens(发生) t the students accrding t the passage?
    A. They plays all day befre the test.B. They run t take the test n time.
    C. They fall ver n their way t schl.D. They push their car t schl.
    ( )32. What des the teacher think f the students’ stry?
    A. He is happy t hear it.B. He is wrried abut them.
    C. He desn’t mind it.D. He desn’t believe(相信) them.
    ( )33. When will the students take the test?
    A. Tw days later.B. Three days later.
    C. Tw weeks later.D. A week later.
    ( )34. Hw d the students feel after reading the questins?
    A. Happy.B. Angry.C. Srry.D. Thankful.
    ( )35. What may the students learn frm the test?
    A. The test is nt easy. B. Telling lies isn’t gd.
    C. It’s nt gd t play. D. Teachers always knw everything.
    第二节:阅读还原。(每小题 1分,共5分)
    请阅读下面的短文,并根据短文内容,从方框中的选项中选出能填入文中空白处的最佳选项。有一项为多余选项。
    Hell! My name is Susan. I am a middle schl student. 36 . Fr breakfast, I have bread, eggs and milk. 37 . Fr dinner, I have vegetables, sandwiches and fruit.
    38 . He likes chicken very much, but he desn’t like vegetables. 39 . S ur teacher Mr. Green always tells him, “Yu shuld eat well, Tny. 40 .”
    36. __________ 37. __________ 38. __________ 39. __________ 40. __________
    主观题(非选择题)(共40分)
    五、按要求完成下列各小题(本大题共10分)
    A)根据首字母提示补全单词,或用所给词的适当形式填空。(每空1分,共5分)
    41. I find a set f keys. Are these ______________ (yu)?
    42. Jenny is my dad’s sister. She is my a______________.
    43. I can see three______________ (watch) n the desk.
    44. Tday is s sunny, what a______________ ging fishing with me?
    45. David asks the vlleyball star, Cindy Smith, abut her ______________ (eat) habits.
    B)句型转换,按要求完成下列各小题。(每空0.5分,共5分)
    46. These scks are twenty dllars. (对划线部分提问)
    ________ ________ are these scks?
    47. Jenny ften des her hmewrk after dinner. (改为否定句)
    Jenny ________ ften ________ her hmewrk after dinner.
    48. What subject d yu like best? (改为同义句)
    What’s ________ ________ subject?
    49. D they have sccer balls? (改为单数句)
    ________ he ________ a sccer ball?
    50. I like t play vlleyball after schl. (对划线部分提问)
    ________ d yu like t ________ after schl?
    六、语法填空。(本大题共10个空,每空1分,满分10分)
    阅读下面的短文,在短文空白处填入一个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。将所填答案填写在相应题号的横线上。
    D yu knw that yu can eat a rainbw? Yu can’t eat a rainbw in the sky, f curse. Yu can 51 (make) a healthy rainbw ut f all the different clrs f fruits and vegetables.
    A red apple can help 52 (yur) keep yur heart (心脏) strng. Eat an apple fr a
    53 (health) snack.
    An range carrt can help keep yur 54 (eye) clear. This vegetable is just fun t eat between yur teeth. Eat an range carrt 55 breakfast in the mrning.
    A yellw banana can give yu lts f energy (能量). Eat this fruit 56 yu play.
    Green beans are rich in vitamin B grup, vitamin C and vitamin K. 57 (It) are very gd vegetables. They make yu strng.
    Blue berries can help yu remember things. Eat this fruit every day t help yu d 58 (gd) at schl.
    Eat 59 rainbw every day. It is a gd way 60 (be) healthy. S hw many clrs will yu eat tday?
    51. ____________ 52._____________ 53._____________ 54.___________ 55.___________
    56. ____________ 57._____________ 58._____________ 59.___________ 60.___________
    七、完成句子(本大题共5小题,每小题2分,满分10分)
    根据汉语提示完成句子,一空限填一词,并将答案填写在相应的横线上。
    61. 我有一条小狗,她的名字叫Lucky。
    I have a little dg. _________ _________ is Lucky.
    62. Lucky的生日在十月二日,她是一条非常可爱的狗。
    Lucky’s birthday _________ _________ _________ 2nd. She is a very lvely dg.
    63. 从周一到周五,我带Lucky去我家附近的公园玩。
    I _________ Lucky _________ the park near my hme _________ Mnday _________ Friday.
    64. Lucky每次在公园里玩球玩得很开心。
    Lucky __________ _________ _________ ___________ _________ with a ball at the park every time.
    65. Lucky是我的好朋友,你想来我家看看她吗?
    Lucky is my gd friend. D yu __________ __________ __________ ___________ _________ _________ t see her?
    八、书面表达(本大题满分 10 分)
    时间匆匆,一个崭新而忙碌的学期又将过去。假设你是Tm,你的美国网友Peter想了解你的学校生活,请根据下列提示给他写封e-mail,介绍一下你的学校生活(schl life)。
    写作提示:1.介绍学校的1个常规活动和时间;
    2.最喜爱的学科,老师及原因;
    3.最爱的运动。
    写作要求:
    1.适当增加细节,以使行文连贯;
    2.文中不得出现真实姓名及学校名称;
    3.70词左右(开头已给出,不计入总词数)。
    Dear Peter,
    Hw are yu? I’m writing t tell yu smething abut my schl life.
    __________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
    Yurs,
    Tm题号








    总分
    得分
    得分
    评卷人
    得分
    评卷人
    得分
    评卷人
    得分
    评卷人
    A. His eating habit is nt gd.
    B. Tny is my classmate.
    C. I have three meals at schl.
    D. It is gd fr yu.
    E. We need t eat sme meat every day.
    F. I have vegetable salad, hamburgers and chicken fr lunch.
    得分
    评卷人
    得分
    评卷人
    得分
    评卷人
    得分
    评卷人
    2023——2024学年度上学期期末学业水平测试
    七年级英语试题参考答案
    参考答案
    1-5. CADBA 6-10. BDBAD 11-15. CDBAB
    16-20. BCDCA 21-25. ABCBD 26-30. DDABD
    31-35. ADBCB 36-40. CFBAD
    41. yurs 42. aunt 43. watches
    44. abut 45. eating
    46. Hw much 47. desn’t, d 48. yur favurite/favrite 49. Des, have
    50. What, d
    51. make 52. yu 53. healthy 54. eyes 55. fr
    56. befre 57. They 58. well 59. a 60. t be
    61. Her name 62. is n Octber 63. take, t, frm, t
    64. has a gd/great time playing
    65. want t cme t my hme/huse
    写作:略
    书面表达题评分标准
    评分说明:本大题七年级满分10分(每2分划一档)。
    评分标准:
    一类(10-9分):很好地完成了规定的写作任务。包含所有内容要点,结构完整,语句流畅,意思清楚、连贯。使用较为丰富的语法结构和词汇,语法和词汇错误极少,格式正确,书写规范。
    二类(8-7分):较好地完成了规定的写作任务。基本上包含所有内容要点,结构较为完整,语句完整,意思清楚。语法结构和词汇错误较少,格式基本正确,书写较为规范。
    三类(6-5分):基本上完成了规定的写作任务。包含主要内容要点,结构欠完整,少数语句不通顺,意思基本清楚。语法结构和词汇错误较多,格式基本正确,书写基本规范。
    四类(4-3分):未能按要求完成规定的写作任务。只包含少数内容要点,结构不完整,多数语句欠完整,意思不够清楚。语法结构和词汇错误较多,影响理解,格式不够正确,书写欠规范。
    五类(2-0分):未能按要求完成规定的写作任务。只写出个别要点,结构不完整,多数语句不完整或意思不明,语法和词汇错误很多,书写不规范。
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