还剩7页未读，
继续阅读
2023-2024学年湖北省武汉市青山区七年级（上）期末英语试卷
展开
这是一份2023-2024学年湖北省武汉市青山区七年级（上）期末英语试卷，共10页。试卷主要包含了听力测试部分，选择填空，完形填空，阅读理解，句型转换，词与短语填空，综合填空，书面表达等内容，欢迎下载使用。
青山区教育局教研室命制 2024年1月
本试卷满分为120分考试用时120分钟
第I卷 (选择题共80分)
第一部分 听力部分
一、听力测试部分 (共三小节，满分20分)
第一节 (共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分)
听下面5个问题。每个问题后有三个答语，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每个问题后，你都有5秒钟的时间来作答和阅读下一小题。每个问题仅读一遍。
1. A. My brther. B. Three. C. Under the bed.
2. A. It’s bring B. Play basketball. C. Gegraphy
3. A. Twenty yuan. B. Very nice. C. I like them.
4. A. At nine thirty. B. It’s hers. C. In the bkcase.
5. A. Great. B. At fur. C. With my friend.
第二节 (共7小题，每小题1分，满分7分)
听下面7段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
6. What des Alice think f vlleyball?
A. Difficult. B. Interesting. C. Easy.
7. Where are they?
A. In the classrm. B. In a clthes stre. C. In a fruit stre.
8. When is the schl trip?
A. In September. B. In Octber C. In Nvember.
9. What des the man like fr lunch?
A. B. C.
10. Whse sweater is green?
A. Amy’s. B. Lily’s. C. Jim’s.
11. Hw much are tw CDs?
A. Ten yuan B. Fifteen yuan. C. Twenty yuan
12. Why des Alan like math?
A. Because it is easy. B. Because it is interestingC. Because he likes the math teacher.
第三节 (共8小题，每小题1分，满分8分)
听下面3段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、 C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。听下面一段对话，回答13至14两个小题。
13. Wh is Bella?
A. Ella’s sister B. Ella’s aunt. C. Ella’s cusin.
14. When is Ella’s birthday?
A. On September 17th. B. On Nvember 11th C. On Nvember 15th.
听下面一段对话，回答15至17三个小题。
15. Hw ld is the wman’s daughter?
A. 10. B. 12 C. 13.
16. What sweater des the wman buy?
A. The white ne. B. The red ne. C. The yellw ne.
17. Hw much des the wman need t pay (支付)?
A. 102 yuan. B. 103 yuan. C. 104 yuan.
听下面一段独白，回答18至20三个小题。
18. Hw many lessns des the speaker have n Friday?
A. Three. B. Fur. C. Five.
19. What sprts des the speaker play tday?
A. Basketball. B. Sccer. C. Tennis.
20. What can we knw abut the speaker?
A. He thinks it’s a great dayB. His favrite subject is histry.
C. He desn’t have a healthy eating habit.
第二部分 笔试部分
二、选择填空 (共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分)
(I) 从A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出一个划线部分读音不同的选项。
21. A. secnd B. festival C. lessn D. eleven
22. A. salad B. same C. favrite D. sale
23. A. useful B. fun C. excuse D. music
24. A. breakfast B. please C. healthy D. head
25. A. birthday B. mnth C. clthes D. thing
(2) 从题中所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出一个最佳答案。
26. —I think Mr. Smith is a gd teacher.
— __________. All the students like him
A. That’s all right B. He’s OKC. That’s fr sure D. Thank yu
27. —I’m s srry I can’t help yu.
— __________.
A. Thank yu all the same B. Nt at allC. Have a gd day D. Yu’re welcme
28. — __________?
—It’s Mnday.
A. What’s the date tday B. Hw are yu tday
C. What day is it tday D. When is yur birthday
29. —Eric can’t find __________ pencil anywhere. I’ll let __________ use __________.
—Yu are s nice!
A. his; he; mine B. his; him; my C. him; him; mineD. his; him; mine
30. —D yu like sprts?
—Yes. I can play __________ tennis very well. I have __________ range tennis ball.
A. the; a B. /an C. the; an D. /; a
31. —I’m new here. I can’t find my friend’s hme.
—Dn’t wrry. Here is a __________ and it can help yu.
A. watch B. subject C. ntebk D. map
32. —Mm! I want t watch TV!
—But yur tys (玩具) are everywhere! Let’s __________ them up first, OK?
A. tidy B. sell C. help D. call
33. —The dictinaries in Mr. Cl’s stre are n sale. Let’s have a lk and buy ne.
—I have a dictinary and I dn’t __________ mre.
A. buy B. bring C. take D. need
34. —Dad, I want t buy a new mdel plane but I’m __________ nw.
—Yu can ask yur mum fr sme mney.
A. tall B. shrt C. ld D. busy
35. —My birthday is Saturday. Can yu cme t my party __________ tw?
—Sure. Thank yu!
A. n; in B. in; at C. n; at D. in; n
三、完形填空 (共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的四个选项 (A、B、C、D) 中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳答案。
A
Hell, everyne! I’m Ala. I cme frm America. Nw, I’m in Wuhan. I have 36 classes every day. Friday is my favrite day. O this day, I have tw Chinese classes,math class and ne art class in the mrning. After lunch, I have ne English class at 2: 00. And the last class 37 at 4: 00. Then I can play sprts 38 4: 00 t 5: 00. Our teacher says we have many activities this term. We have a sccer game in September. The Schl Day is n Octber 21st. And we have the art festival n Nvember 16th. In December, we have a big 39 t welcme the new year. What a 40 term!
36. A. fur B. five C. six D. seven
37. A. begins B. finishes C. plays D. has
38. A. fr B. at C. with D. frm
39. A. party B. game C. lessn D. sale
40. A. useful B. free C. busy D. bring
B
I’m Sally. I’m shpping at Huaxing Clthes Stre nw. This stre is great and always 41 many nice clthes. Tday the clthes here are at a big 42 . S I can buy sme fr my family at very gd 43 .
Here are sme scks. They are nly 8 fr three 44 . I can buy them fr my father. My mther’s favrite clr is 45 , s I can buy her a purple sweater. And I want t buy smething fr myself. What abut the blue shes ver there? N, they are in Size 36, but I wear shes in Size 37. They are t 46 fr me. Lk! The skirt 47 pink is beautiful. And it 48 nice n me. 49 is it? Oh! Only $ 18! I’ll 50 it.
41. A. buys B. sells C. makes D. gives
42. A. stre B. clr C. sale D. lk
43. A. sets B. numbers C. sizes D. prices
44. A. rms B. pairs C. bags D. sets
45. A. purple B. yellw C. blue D. pink
46. A. small B. big C. lng D. shrt
47. A. t B. n C. in D. at
48. A. sunds B. watches C. tries D. lks
49. A. Hw ld B. Hw much C. Hw many D. Hw lng
50. A. think B. let C. want D. take
四、阅读理解 (共15小题，每小题2分，满分30分)
阅读下面三篇材料，从每篇材料后各题所给的四个选项 (A、B、C、D) 中，选出最佳答案。
A
51. Where can yu read this passage?
A. In a ntice. B. In a letter. C. In an e-mail. D. In a reprt.
52. Jimmy can swim well and he can call __________ fr mre infrmatin.
A. Mr. Brwn B. Tmmy C. Tim D. Jack
53. Accrding t the passage, when can Linda learn playing ping-png?
A. On Sunday mrning. B. On Saturday mrning.
C. On Sunday afternn. D. On Friday afternn.
54. Where is the Energy Band?
A. In the schl’s P. E. Building. B. In the schl’s Swimming Pl.
C. In the schl’s Art Rm D. In the schl library.
55. What can yu d if yu lve music and can play the instruments?
A. G t Rm 405 in schl’s P. E. Building. B. Phne Tmmy at 0893-34986774.
C. Call Tim at 0853-89769943D. Send an e-mail t music@sina. cm.
B
Tday is Octber 12th. It’s Henry’s 13th birthday. After breakfast, sme f his friends cme t his hme. They give him sme nice gifts (礼物). Henry is very happy. Then they g ut t play basketball fr tw hurs. At nn they have lunch in a restaurant (餐馆). ★ . The fd is delicius and the prices are gd. In the afternn, they g t Green Park.
At abut 5: 30 p. m. Henry cmes back hme. Henry’s mther buys a big birthday cake fr him. Henry’s name and the wrds “Happy birthday” are n the cake. Henry gets sme nice gifts frm his family, t---a yellw T-shirt frm his mther, a pair f sprts shes frm. his father, a CD frm his sister, a basketball frm his grandfather and a bk frm his grandmther. Hw happy Henry is!
56. Henry is __________ years ld.
A. 5 B. 12 C. 13 D. 30
57. Which is the best sentence t be put in ★ ?
A. It’s next t Henry’s hme B. It’s a great restaurant
C. They dn’t like it D. They dn’t eat much
58. What d we knw abut Henry’s friends?
A. They have a gd time.
B. They play ftball fr tw hurs.
C. They dn’t like the fd in the restaurant.
D. They g t the Yellw Park in the afternn.
59. Henry’s grandmther gives him __________.
A. sprts shes B. a CD C. a basketball D. a bk
60. It’s clear that __________.
A. Henry has lunch with his family
B. the fd in the restaurant is dear
C. there are seven peple in Henry’s family
D. Henry’s mther buys him a birthday cake and a T-shirt
C
Sme bys and girls dn’t like math. They think it’s difficult. But in fact (事实上) it isn’t s difficult t learn math well. Here is what yu can d.
Listen carefully in class. The math teacher knws much. When yu listen carefully, yu can knw much, t. S be a careful student in class and listen well. And yu can ask yur math teacher fr help if yu dn’t knw in class.
Ask yur classmates fr help. Yur math teacher isn’t always with yu. When yu have a math prblem and yu can’t wrk it ut, please ask yur classmates after class. A gd classmate is a gd friend. He r she must be happy t help yu.
Practice it every day. D yu want t be gd at math? It takes time. Yu can’t learn it well in a day. S practice it every day and then yu’ll find it s easy. Math is a useful subject. Let’s d ur best t learn it well.
61. The passage is mainly fr __________.
A. teachers B. parentsC. friends D. students
62. The underlined wrd “Practice” means __________ in Chinese.
A. 玩要 B. 练习C. 阅读 D. 放松
63. What can NOT help us t learn math well?
A. Playing much with friends after class. B. Practicing math every day.
C. Asking ur classmates fr help. D. Being careful and listening carefully in class.
64. What des the writer think f math?
A. Difficult B. Interesting C. Useful D. Bring
65. The passage mainly wants t tell us __________.
A. math is a useful subjectB. hw we can learn math well
C. why sme students dn’t like mathD. why we need t learn math well
第Ⅱ卷 (非选择题共40分)
五、句型转换 (共5小题，每空1分，满分10分)
66. My sister likes English best. (变成同义句)
My sister’s __________ __________ is English
67. He ften des sprts n weekends. (变一般疑问句)
__________ he ften __________ sprts n weekends?
68. The dictinary is 15 dllars. (就划线部分提问)
__________ __________ is the dictinary?
69. That pht is very ld. (变为复数)
Thse __________ __________ very ld.
70. He likes histry because it is very interesting. (就划线部分提问)
__________ des he __________ histry?
六、词与短语填空 (共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分)
仔细阅读下面5个句子，然后用下面方框中所给的单词或短语填空，使每个句子在结构，句义和逻辑上正确。 (提示：方框中有两个单词或短语是多余的。)
questin / buy / bring / des / useful / cme / sell
71. One last __________---d yu eat ice-cream after dinner?
72. Cme and __________ yur clthes at ur great sale!
73. I dn’t have a sccer ball, but my brther Alan __________.
74. The teacher says it’s __________ but I think it’s difficult
75. Well, d yu want t __________ t my birthday party?
七、综合填空 (共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分)
阅读下面短文，根据上下文、所给首字母或者括号内单词等提示，在空白处填入适当的单词。每个空只能填一个单词。
It’s Sunday tday. Peter desn’t g t schl. Nw he is f____________ (76) at hme and he wants t play cmputer games, but his mther Mrs. Smith a____________ (77) him t d his Chinese hmewrk first. Then he can d the ____________ (78) (thing) he likes. Peter isn’t happy. He asks, “Mm, d yu lve me?”
Mrs. Smith says, “Yes, Id, my dear.”
“Then why dn’t yu l____________ (79) me play cmputer games? Why can’t I d what I want? I like cmputer games.” says Peter.
Mrs. Smith puts Peter’s clthes n the sfa and asks him, “Dear, d yu lve me?” Peter says, “S____________ (80).”
Then Mrs. Smith says, “Great! Dear, I dn’t want t d the washing ____________ (81) I dn’t like it. S I dn’t want t wash yur s____________ (82). Why d yu always ask me t wash them? And yu can play cmputer games after yu wash them.”
Peter has a gd lk at all the scks n the sfa. His face ____________ (83) (get) red and he says, “Mm, I am very srry. I shuld help ____________ (84) (yur) d sme husewrk at hme. Let’s d it tgether (一起) . Then I must f____________ (85) my hmewrk. I lve yu.”
What a nice Peter! What a clever mther!
八、书面表达 (共1大题，满分15分)
假如你是李明，你的英国笔友M转到了你们班。为了帮助他更好地融入你所在的班级，你打算向同学们介绍Mik, 让他们了解Mike的兴趣爱好、饮食习惯、最喜欢的学科等。请你根据以下内容提示完成短文。
内容提示：
1. What sprts des he like?
2. What des he like t eat fr three meals?
3. What’s his favrite subject? Why?
Smething mre abut Mike
注意：1. 文中不得透露个人姓名和学校名称：2. 词数：60-80 (开头已给出，不计入总词数) 3. 内容连贯，不要逐条翻译：
Hell, everyne! Let me tell yu smething abut my pen pal Mike. ________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
青山区2023-2024学年度第一学期期末质量检测
七年级 英语试卷 参考答案
一、听力部分 (每小题 1 分，共 20 分)
1-5 ACACB 6-10 ABCAC 11-15 BCCAB 16-20 ABBCA
二、选择填空 (每小题 1 分，共 15 分)
21-25 DABBC 26-30 CACDB 31-35 DADBC
三、完形填空 (每小题 1 分，共 15 分)
36-40 CBDAC 41-45 BCDBA 46-50 ACDBD
四、阅读理解 (每小题 2 分，共 30 分)
51-55 ABCCD 56-60 CBADD 61-65 DBACB
五、句型转换 (每空 1 分，共 10 分)
66. fav (u) rite; subject 67. Des; d 68. Hw; much 69. phts; are
70. Why; like
六、选词填空 (每小题 1 分，共 5 分)
71. questin 72. buy 73. des 74. useful 75. cme
七、阅读理解填词 (每小题 1 分，共 10 分)
76. free 77. asks 78. things 79. let 80. Sure
81. because /and 82. scks 83. gets 84. yu 85. finish
八、书面表达 (15 分)
Hell, everyne! Let me tell yu smething abut my pen pal Mike. He is twelve years ld. He cmes frm England. He likes sprts. He ften plays ping-png with his family. Mike has a gd eating habit. Fr breakfast, he ften has an egg, sme bread and milk. He likes meat and vegetables fr lunch. Fr dinner, he lves t eat vegetable salad and sme fruit. Mike likes Chinese best because he can speak Chinese well. He thinks Chinese stries are interesting. S he cmes t China t study. Wuld yu like t make friends with him?
书面表达评分标准
一、评分原则
评分时，先根据短文的内．容．语．言．和思．维．逻．辑．以及写．作．规．范．初步判定其所属 档次，然后根据该档次的具体要求来确定或调整档次，最后给分。这一原则也称 之为整体评分或印象评分。
评分时，应关注的短文内．容．为：内容要点表达的清楚程度、完整性及准确性。
评分时，应关注的短文语．言．和思．维．逻．辑．为：运用词汇和语法结构的准确性及 上下文语意的流畅性和完整性。
评分时， 应关注的短文写．作．规．范．为：词数不少于 60 词，拼写和标点符号符 合写作规范 (英、美拼写及词汇用法均视为符合要求) ，如书写较差，以致影响 交际，建议将分数降低一个档次。
二、档次的判定
英语书面表达题的评判一般把学生写作的短文分为五个档次。
第五档次： (13~15 分)
短文能呈现所有内容要点，写出的句子语意表达清楚、逻辑合理且基本无错 误。
第四档次： (10~12 分)
短文能呈现绝大部分内容要点，写出的句子语意表达清楚且无严重错误，逻辑比较合理，有少数单词拼写错误。
第三档次： (7~9 分)
短文能呈现大部分内容要点，写出的句子虽然有语法错误但能表达基本信息，逻辑基本合理，有较多的单词拼写错误。
第二档次： (4~6 分)
短文包含部分内容要点，写出的句子有较严重的语法错误，表达的意思也不清楚，有较多的单词拼写错误。
第一档次： (1~3 分)
短文包含少量内容要点，写出的句子有严重语法错误，基本不能表达语意，或只写出几个关键词。
注意： 如表达出现以下情况：未能传递任何信息；内容太少，无法评判；
所写内容均与题目要求内容无关或所写内容无法看清。建议判零分。
Ping-png Club
D yu like t play ping-png? Cme t ur club. Mr. Brwn can teach yu n Sunday afternn in Rm 405 in the schl’s P. E. Building.
Tel: 0853-89769943 WeChat: Ping-png
Swimmers Wanted
Can yu swim? D yu like kids? Can yu help them with swimming in the schl’s Swimming Pl n weekends?
Call Tmmy at 0893-34986774 fr mre infrmatin.
Musicians Wanted
Are yu music lvers? Can yu sing r dance? Can yu play the instruments (乐器)?
Welcme t ur Energy Band in the schl’s Art Rm n Friday afternn.
Please call Tim r Jack at 0556-67567843 r send an e-mail t music@sina. cm.
青山区教育局教研室命制 2024年1月
本试卷满分为120分考试用时120分钟
第I卷 (选择题共80分)
第一部分 听力部分
一、听力测试部分 (共三小节，满分20分)
第一节 (共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分)
听下面5个问题。每个问题后有三个答语，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每个问题后，你都有5秒钟的时间来作答和阅读下一小题。每个问题仅读一遍。
1. A. My brther. B. Three. C. Under the bed.
2. A. It’s bring B. Play basketball. C. Gegraphy
3. A. Twenty yuan. B. Very nice. C. I like them.
4. A. At nine thirty. B. It’s hers. C. In the bkcase.
5. A. Great. B. At fur. C. With my friend.
第二节 (共7小题，每小题1分，满分7分)
听下面7段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
6. What des Alice think f vlleyball?
A. Difficult. B. Interesting. C. Easy.
7. Where are they?
A. In the classrm. B. In a clthes stre. C. In a fruit stre.
8. When is the schl trip?
A. In September. B. In Octber C. In Nvember.
9. What des the man like fr lunch?
A. B. C.
10. Whse sweater is green?
A. Amy’s. B. Lily’s. C. Jim’s.
11. Hw much are tw CDs?
A. Ten yuan B. Fifteen yuan. C. Twenty yuan
12. Why des Alan like math?
A. Because it is easy. B. Because it is interestingC. Because he likes the math teacher.
第三节 (共8小题，每小题1分，满分8分)
听下面3段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、 C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。听下面一段对话，回答13至14两个小题。
13. Wh is Bella?
A. Ella’s sister B. Ella’s aunt. C. Ella’s cusin.
14. When is Ella’s birthday?
A. On September 17th. B. On Nvember 11th C. On Nvember 15th.
听下面一段对话，回答15至17三个小题。
15. Hw ld is the wman’s daughter?
A. 10. B. 12 C. 13.
16. What sweater des the wman buy?
A. The white ne. B. The red ne. C. The yellw ne.
17. Hw much des the wman need t pay (支付)?
A. 102 yuan. B. 103 yuan. C. 104 yuan.
听下面一段独白，回答18至20三个小题。
18. Hw many lessns des the speaker have n Friday?
A. Three. B. Fur. C. Five.
19. What sprts des the speaker play tday?
A. Basketball. B. Sccer. C. Tennis.
20. What can we knw abut the speaker?
A. He thinks it’s a great dayB. His favrite subject is histry.
C. He desn’t have a healthy eating habit.
第二部分 笔试部分
二、选择填空 (共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分)
(I) 从A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出一个划线部分读音不同的选项。
21. A. secnd B. festival C. lessn D. eleven
22. A. salad B. same C. favrite D. sale
23. A. useful B. fun C. excuse D. music
24. A. breakfast B. please C. healthy D. head
25. A. birthday B. mnth C. clthes D. thing
(2) 从题中所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出一个最佳答案。
26. —I think Mr. Smith is a gd teacher.
— __________. All the students like him
A. That’s all right B. He’s OKC. That’s fr sure D. Thank yu
27. —I’m s srry I can’t help yu.
— __________.
A. Thank yu all the same B. Nt at allC. Have a gd day D. Yu’re welcme
28. — __________?
—It’s Mnday.
A. What’s the date tday B. Hw are yu tday
C. What day is it tday D. When is yur birthday
29. —Eric can’t find __________ pencil anywhere. I’ll let __________ use __________.
—Yu are s nice!
A. his; he; mine B. his; him; my C. him; him; mineD. his; him; mine
30. —D yu like sprts?
—Yes. I can play __________ tennis very well. I have __________ range tennis ball.
A. the; a B. /an C. the; an D. /; a
31. —I’m new here. I can’t find my friend’s hme.
—Dn’t wrry. Here is a __________ and it can help yu.
A. watch B. subject C. ntebk D. map
32. —Mm! I want t watch TV!
—But yur tys (玩具) are everywhere! Let’s __________ them up first, OK?
A. tidy B. sell C. help D. call
33. —The dictinaries in Mr. Cl’s stre are n sale. Let’s have a lk and buy ne.
—I have a dictinary and I dn’t __________ mre.
A. buy B. bring C. take D. need
34. —Dad, I want t buy a new mdel plane but I’m __________ nw.
—Yu can ask yur mum fr sme mney.
A. tall B. shrt C. ld D. busy
35. —My birthday is Saturday. Can yu cme t my party __________ tw?
—Sure. Thank yu!
A. n; in B. in; at C. n; at D. in; n
三、完形填空 (共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的四个选项 (A、B、C、D) 中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳答案。
A
Hell, everyne! I’m Ala. I cme frm America. Nw, I’m in Wuhan. I have 36 classes every day. Friday is my favrite day. O this day, I have tw Chinese classes,math class and ne art class in the mrning. After lunch, I have ne English class at 2: 00. And the last class 37 at 4: 00. Then I can play sprts 38 4: 00 t 5: 00. Our teacher says we have many activities this term. We have a sccer game in September. The Schl Day is n Octber 21st. And we have the art festival n Nvember 16th. In December, we have a big 39 t welcme the new year. What a 40 term!
36. A. fur B. five C. six D. seven
37. A. begins B. finishes C. plays D. has
38. A. fr B. at C. with D. frm
39. A. party B. game C. lessn D. sale
40. A. useful B. free C. busy D. bring
B
I’m Sally. I’m shpping at Huaxing Clthes Stre nw. This stre is great and always 41 many nice clthes. Tday the clthes here are at a big 42 . S I can buy sme fr my family at very gd 43 .
Here are sme scks. They are nly 8 fr three 44 . I can buy them fr my father. My mther’s favrite clr is 45 , s I can buy her a purple sweater. And I want t buy smething fr myself. What abut the blue shes ver there? N, they are in Size 36, but I wear shes in Size 37. They are t 46 fr me. Lk! The skirt 47 pink is beautiful. And it 48 nice n me. 49 is it? Oh! Only $ 18! I’ll 50 it.
41. A. buys B. sells C. makes D. gives
42. A. stre B. clr C. sale D. lk
43. A. sets B. numbers C. sizes D. prices
44. A. rms B. pairs C. bags D. sets
45. A. purple B. yellw C. blue D. pink
46. A. small B. big C. lng D. shrt
47. A. t B. n C. in D. at
48. A. sunds B. watches C. tries D. lks
49. A. Hw ld B. Hw much C. Hw many D. Hw lng
50. A. think B. let C. want D. take
四、阅读理解 (共15小题，每小题2分，满分30分)
阅读下面三篇材料，从每篇材料后各题所给的四个选项 (A、B、C、D) 中，选出最佳答案。
A
51. Where can yu read this passage?
A. In a ntice. B. In a letter. C. In an e-mail. D. In a reprt.
52. Jimmy can swim well and he can call __________ fr mre infrmatin.
A. Mr. Brwn B. Tmmy C. Tim D. Jack
53. Accrding t the passage, when can Linda learn playing ping-png?
A. On Sunday mrning. B. On Saturday mrning.
C. On Sunday afternn. D. On Friday afternn.
54. Where is the Energy Band?
A. In the schl’s P. E. Building. B. In the schl’s Swimming Pl.
C. In the schl’s Art Rm D. In the schl library.
55. What can yu d if yu lve music and can play the instruments?
A. G t Rm 405 in schl’s P. E. Building. B. Phne Tmmy at 0893-34986774.
C. Call Tim at 0853-89769943D. Send an e-mail t music@sina. cm.
B
Tday is Octber 12th. It’s Henry’s 13th birthday. After breakfast, sme f his friends cme t his hme. They give him sme nice gifts (礼物). Henry is very happy. Then they g ut t play basketball fr tw hurs. At nn they have lunch in a restaurant (餐馆). ★ . The fd is delicius and the prices are gd. In the afternn, they g t Green Park.
At abut 5: 30 p. m. Henry cmes back hme. Henry’s mther buys a big birthday cake fr him. Henry’s name and the wrds “Happy birthday” are n the cake. Henry gets sme nice gifts frm his family, t---a yellw T-shirt frm his mther, a pair f sprts shes frm. his father, a CD frm his sister, a basketball frm his grandfather and a bk frm his grandmther. Hw happy Henry is!
56. Henry is __________ years ld.
A. 5 B. 12 C. 13 D. 30
57. Which is the best sentence t be put in ★ ?
A. It’s next t Henry’s hme B. It’s a great restaurant
C. They dn’t like it D. They dn’t eat much
58. What d we knw abut Henry’s friends?
A. They have a gd time.
B. They play ftball fr tw hurs.
C. They dn’t like the fd in the restaurant.
D. They g t the Yellw Park in the afternn.
59. Henry’s grandmther gives him __________.
A. sprts shes B. a CD C. a basketball D. a bk
60. It’s clear that __________.
A. Henry has lunch with his family
B. the fd in the restaurant is dear
C. there are seven peple in Henry’s family
D. Henry’s mther buys him a birthday cake and a T-shirt
C
Sme bys and girls dn’t like math. They think it’s difficult. But in fact (事实上) it isn’t s difficult t learn math well. Here is what yu can d.
Listen carefully in class. The math teacher knws much. When yu listen carefully, yu can knw much, t. S be a careful student in class and listen well. And yu can ask yur math teacher fr help if yu dn’t knw in class.
Ask yur classmates fr help. Yur math teacher isn’t always with yu. When yu have a math prblem and yu can’t wrk it ut, please ask yur classmates after class. A gd classmate is a gd friend. He r she must be happy t help yu.
Practice it every day. D yu want t be gd at math? It takes time. Yu can’t learn it well in a day. S practice it every day and then yu’ll find it s easy. Math is a useful subject. Let’s d ur best t learn it well.
61. The passage is mainly fr __________.
A. teachers B. parentsC. friends D. students
62. The underlined wrd “Practice” means __________ in Chinese.
A. 玩要 B. 练习C. 阅读 D. 放松
63. What can NOT help us t learn math well?
A. Playing much with friends after class. B. Practicing math every day.
C. Asking ur classmates fr help. D. Being careful and listening carefully in class.
64. What des the writer think f math?
A. Difficult B. Interesting C. Useful D. Bring
65. The passage mainly wants t tell us __________.
A. math is a useful subjectB. hw we can learn math well
C. why sme students dn’t like mathD. why we need t learn math well
第Ⅱ卷 (非选择题共40分)
五、句型转换 (共5小题，每空1分，满分10分)
66. My sister likes English best. (变成同义句)
My sister’s __________ __________ is English
67. He ften des sprts n weekends. (变一般疑问句)
__________ he ften __________ sprts n weekends?
68. The dictinary is 15 dllars. (就划线部分提问)
__________ __________ is the dictinary?
69. That pht is very ld. (变为复数)
Thse __________ __________ very ld.
70. He likes histry because it is very interesting. (就划线部分提问)
__________ des he __________ histry?
六、词与短语填空 (共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分)
仔细阅读下面5个句子，然后用下面方框中所给的单词或短语填空，使每个句子在结构，句义和逻辑上正确。 (提示：方框中有两个单词或短语是多余的。)
questin / buy / bring / des / useful / cme / sell
71. One last __________---d yu eat ice-cream after dinner?
72. Cme and __________ yur clthes at ur great sale!
73. I dn’t have a sccer ball, but my brther Alan __________.
74. The teacher says it’s __________ but I think it’s difficult
75. Well, d yu want t __________ t my birthday party?
七、综合填空 (共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分)
阅读下面短文，根据上下文、所给首字母或者括号内单词等提示，在空白处填入适当的单词。每个空只能填一个单词。
It’s Sunday tday. Peter desn’t g t schl. Nw he is f____________ (76) at hme and he wants t play cmputer games, but his mther Mrs. Smith a____________ (77) him t d his Chinese hmewrk first. Then he can d the ____________ (78) (thing) he likes. Peter isn’t happy. He asks, “Mm, d yu lve me?”
Mrs. Smith says, “Yes, Id, my dear.”
“Then why dn’t yu l____________ (79) me play cmputer games? Why can’t I d what I want? I like cmputer games.” says Peter.
Mrs. Smith puts Peter’s clthes n the sfa and asks him, “Dear, d yu lve me?” Peter says, “S____________ (80).”
Then Mrs. Smith says, “Great! Dear, I dn’t want t d the washing ____________ (81) I dn’t like it. S I dn’t want t wash yur s____________ (82). Why d yu always ask me t wash them? And yu can play cmputer games after yu wash them.”
Peter has a gd lk at all the scks n the sfa. His face ____________ (83) (get) red and he says, “Mm, I am very srry. I shuld help ____________ (84) (yur) d sme husewrk at hme. Let’s d it tgether (一起) . Then I must f____________ (85) my hmewrk. I lve yu.”
What a nice Peter! What a clever mther!
八、书面表达 (共1大题，满分15分)
假如你是李明，你的英国笔友M转到了你们班。为了帮助他更好地融入你所在的班级，你打算向同学们介绍Mik, 让他们了解Mike的兴趣爱好、饮食习惯、最喜欢的学科等。请你根据以下内容提示完成短文。
内容提示：
1. What sprts des he like?
2. What des he like t eat fr three meals?
3. What’s his favrite subject? Why?
Smething mre abut Mike
注意：1. 文中不得透露个人姓名和学校名称：2. 词数：60-80 (开头已给出，不计入总词数) 3. 内容连贯，不要逐条翻译：
Hell, everyne! Let me tell yu smething abut my pen pal Mike. ________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
青山区2023-2024学年度第一学期期末质量检测
七年级 英语试卷 参考答案
一、听力部分 (每小题 1 分，共 20 分)
1-5 ACACB 6-10 ABCAC 11-15 BCCAB 16-20 ABBCA
二、选择填空 (每小题 1 分，共 15 分)
21-25 DABBC 26-30 CACDB 31-35 DADBC
三、完形填空 (每小题 1 分，共 15 分)
36-40 CBDAC 41-45 BCDBA 46-50 ACDBD
四、阅读理解 (每小题 2 分，共 30 分)
51-55 ABCCD 56-60 CBADD 61-65 DBACB
五、句型转换 (每空 1 分，共 10 分)
66. fav (u) rite; subject 67. Des; d 68. Hw; much 69. phts; are
70. Why; like
六、选词填空 (每小题 1 分，共 5 分)
71. questin 72. buy 73. des 74. useful 75. cme
七、阅读理解填词 (每小题 1 分，共 10 分)
76. free 77. asks 78. things 79. let 80. Sure
81. because /and 82. scks 83. gets 84. yu 85. finish
八、书面表达 (15 分)
Hell, everyne! Let me tell yu smething abut my pen pal Mike. He is twelve years ld. He cmes frm England. He likes sprts. He ften plays ping-png with his family. Mike has a gd eating habit. Fr breakfast, he ften has an egg, sme bread and milk. He likes meat and vegetables fr lunch. Fr dinner, he lves t eat vegetable salad and sme fruit. Mike likes Chinese best because he can speak Chinese well. He thinks Chinese stries are interesting. S he cmes t China t study. Wuld yu like t make friends with him?
书面表达评分标准
一、评分原则
评分时，先根据短文的内．容．语．言．和思．维．逻．辑．以及写．作．规．范．初步判定其所属 档次，然后根据该档次的具体要求来确定或调整档次，最后给分。这一原则也称 之为整体评分或印象评分。
评分时，应关注的短文内．容．为：内容要点表达的清楚程度、完整性及准确性。
评分时，应关注的短文语．言．和思．维．逻．辑．为：运用词汇和语法结构的准确性及 上下文语意的流畅性和完整性。
评分时， 应关注的短文写．作．规．范．为：词数不少于 60 词，拼写和标点符号符 合写作规范 (英、美拼写及词汇用法均视为符合要求) ，如书写较差，以致影响 交际，建议将分数降低一个档次。
二、档次的判定
英语书面表达题的评判一般把学生写作的短文分为五个档次。
第五档次： (13~15 分)
短文能呈现所有内容要点，写出的句子语意表达清楚、逻辑合理且基本无错 误。
第四档次： (10~12 分)
短文能呈现绝大部分内容要点，写出的句子语意表达清楚且无严重错误，逻辑比较合理，有少数单词拼写错误。
第三档次： (7~9 分)
短文能呈现大部分内容要点，写出的句子虽然有语法错误但能表达基本信息，逻辑基本合理，有较多的单词拼写错误。
第二档次： (4~6 分)
短文包含部分内容要点，写出的句子有较严重的语法错误，表达的意思也不清楚，有较多的单词拼写错误。
第一档次： (1~3 分)
短文包含少量内容要点，写出的句子有严重语法错误，基本不能表达语意，或只写出几个关键词。
注意： 如表达出现以下情况：未能传递任何信息；内容太少，无法评判；
所写内容均与题目要求内容无关或所写内容无法看清。建议判零分。
Ping-png Club
D yu like t play ping-png? Cme t ur club. Mr. Brwn can teach yu n Sunday afternn in Rm 405 in the schl’s P. E. Building.
Tel: 0853-89769943 WeChat: Ping-png
Swimmers Wanted
Can yu swim? D yu like kids? Can yu help them with swimming in the schl’s Swimming Pl n weekends?
Call Tmmy at 0893-34986774 fr mre infrmatin.
Musicians Wanted
Are yu music lvers? Can yu sing r dance? Can yu play the instruments (乐器)?
Welcme t ur Energy Band in the schl’s Art Rm n Friday afternn.
Please call Tim r Jack at 0556-67567843 r send an e-mail t music@sina. cm.
相关试卷
2023-2024学年湖北省武汉市青山区八年级（上）期末英语试卷： 这是一份2023-2024学年湖北省武汉市青山区八年级（上）期末英语试卷，共11页。试卷主要包含了听力测试部分，选择填空，完形填空，阅读理解，词与短语填空，综合填空，书面表达等内容，欢迎下载使用。
[英语][期末]湖北省武汉市青山区2023-2024学年七年级下学期期末英语试卷： 这是一份[英语][期末]湖北省武汉市青山区2023-2024学年七年级下学期期末英语试卷，共7页。试卷主要包含了填写答题卡的内容用2B铅笔填写，提前 xx 分钟收取答题卡等内容，欢迎下载使用。
湖北省武汉市青山区2023~2024学年七年级下学期期末英语试卷： 这是一份湖北省武汉市青山区2023~2024学年七年级下学期期末英语试卷，共10页。试卷主要包含了 A等内容，欢迎下载使用。
