2023-2024学年广西梧州市岑溪市糯垌中学七年级（上）月考英语试卷（12月份）

这是一份2023-2024学年广西梧州市岑溪市糯垌中学七年级（上）月考英语试卷（12月份），共5页。

说明：1．本试卷共6页（试题卷4页，答题卡2页），满分120分，考试时间120分钟。
2．答题前，请将学校、班级、姓名、试场号、座位号写在答题卡指定位置，答案涂、写在答题卡相应的区域内，在试题卷上答题无效。
一、听力测试（共30分）
（一）听句子，选图画（每小题1分，共5分）
你将听到五个句子，请选出与所听句子内容相符的图片，有一幅图是多余的。每个句子读两遍。


1. _______ 2. _______ 3. _______ 4. _______ 5. _______
（二）听短对话，选择最佳答案（每小题1分，共5分）
你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，请根据对话内容，选出最佳答案。每段对话读两遍。
What des the by want t eat?
A.Pears. B. Apples.C. Chclates.
7. Wh cks breakfast fr Jane?
A. Her father.B. Her mther.C. Her grandma.
8.Which is Tm’s favurite drink?
A. Apple juice. B. Orange juice. C. Green tea.
9.What des the girl want t have fr lunch?
A. Bread and milk. B. Ndles and juice. C. Hamburgers and cla.
10. Hw much juice is there in the fridge?
A. One bttle.B. Three bttles.C. Five bttles.
（三）听长对话，选择最佳答案。（每小题2分，共10分）
你将听到两段对话，请根据对话内容，选出每个问题的最佳答案。每段对话读两遍。
请听第一段对话，回答第11~12小题。
11. Which meal are they talking abut ?
A. Breakfast.B. Lunch.C. Dinner.
12. Wh wuld like t rder chicken?
A. Simn. B. Linda. C. N ne.
请听第二段对话，回答第13~15小题。
13. What’s nt gd fr teeth?
A. Candies.B. Sweet ptates.C. Tmates.
14. What are sweet ptates gd fr?
A. Ears.B. Teeth.C. Eyes.
15. What will Jhn d this afternn?
A. G shpping.B. G t the library. C. G bating.
（四）听短文，填信息。（每小题2分，共10分）
你将听到一篇短文，请根据短文内容，将所缺信息填入相应的横线上，每空一词。短文读三遍。
二、单项选择（每小题1分，共10分）
从每小题所给的选项中, 选出最佳选项。
（ ）21. —Have a gd day!
—________.
Gd B.OK C. Thanks! Yu, t
（ ）22.---Jack, dn’t always ________ that ld jacket.
---But I think it’s cl, Mm.
wear B. dress C. put n
（ ）23.The Wedding f Prince William was held in Westminster Abbey ___ April ,2011.
at B.in C. n
（ ）24.---What wrng with him？
---He seemed ________ angry.
t is B.t be C.is t
（ ）25.Tm is fat. The dctr asked him t ________ and ________.
A. eat mre, exercise mre B. eat less, exercise less
C. eat less, exercise mre
（ ）26.There _______ a kil f apples in the bag.
are B. has C.is
（ ）27.There are a lt f _______ n the grassland. _______ sheepdg(牧羊犬）
is sitting next t them.
sheep ,The B. sheep, A C. sheeps, the
（ ）28.---I feel a bit hungry.
---Why dn’t yu have _______ bread?
any B. sme C. many
（ ）29 .— What abut ______ an interesting bk fr the girl?
—That sunds gd.
A. buysB. t buy C. buying
（ ）30.She is a little tired , s she needs _______ mre time t relax.
have B. has C. t have
补全对话（本大题共5小题，每小题1分，共5分。）
根据对话内容，从下面方框中选出恰当的句子补全对话，有一个选项是多余的。
Are they yur favrite subjects?
But why d yu like English?
Why d yu like Wednesday?
What’s yur favrite day?
That’s fr sure.
When d yu have it?
Dale: Hi,Bill. 31.______
Bill: Because I have P.E. and English n Wednesday.
Dale: 32.______
Bill: Yes, they are.
Dale: Wh’s yur P.E. teacher?
Bill: Mr. Li. He teaches very well.
Dale: That’s great! 33.______
Bill: Because I think English is interesting. 34._____
Dale: Saturday.
Bill: Why?
Dale: Because I dn’t g t schl n Saturday.
Bill: 35._____ I like Saturday, t.
四、完形填空(共10小题，每小题1分，共10分)
阅读下面短文，从文后各题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳答案。
Jhn likes chclate very much, but his mther 36 gives him any, because she thinks it is bad fr his teeth. But Jhn has a very nice 37 ．The ld man lves his grandsn very much, and smetimes he brings Jhn chclate when he cmes. Then Jhn’s mther lets him eat it because she wants t make the ld man 38 ．
One evening, a few days befre Jhn’s seventh birthday, he shuts in 39 bedrm befre he ges t bed．“Please, Gd(上帝)! Give me a big bx f chclate fr my birthday
40 Saturday．”His mther is in the kitchen, but she 41 the small by shuting and ges int his rm quickly．“ 42 are yu shuting, Jhn?”She asks her sn.
“I want chclate. I think Gd can hear me and help 43 get it.” answers Jhn.
She says,“That sunds great, 44 Gd can't hear yu."
“I knw,” answers the little by with a smile (微笑), “but grandfather 45 in the next rm, and he can hear．”
A. always B. never C. ften
A. father B. brther C. grandfather
A. happy B. sad C. angry
A. her B. my C. his
A. in B. n C. at
A. hears B. sees C. smells
A. Hw B. When C. What
A. I B. me C. my
A. but B. and C. s
A. am B. is C. are
五、阅读理解（46_50每小题1分，51_65每小题2分，共35分）
第一节：阅读短文，根据短文内容判断下列句子的正(T)误(F)。(每小题1分，共5分)
A
There are sme utdr activities in ur life.
Running
Running is gd fr peple with t much fat. It can help us becme slim (苗条). It als makes us strng. But it may be bad fr ur jints (关节). If we dn’t feel cmfrtable in ur jints, we need t stp running.
Walking
Walking makes us feel relaxed (放松的). It can als help us t be slim.
Swimming
Swimming is a great way t make different parts f the bdy strng. But sme dctrs dn’t think it is a gd way t keep slim. The water in a swimming pl is usually cler than the bdy. The bdy prtects itself frm the cl water by keeping fat.
Cycling
Riding a bike can als help us be slim and make ur legs strng. Remember t be careful and keep safe. If yu live in the city, yu shuld keep yur bike away frm the heavy traffic.
46. If yu dn’t feel well in jints when running, yu shuld run faster.
47. Yu can be slim if yu usually swim.
48. Cycling can help peple make legs strng.
49. When cycling in a city, yu shuld be away frm the heavy traffic.
50. The passage tells us abut fur utdr activities.
第二节：阅读短文，从各题所给的选项中，选择最佳选项。（每小题2分，共30分）
B
My name is Jacksn. I like riding bikes very much. I think it’s very interesting t ride a bike. It brings me a lt f fun.
Last summer, my father and mther bught it fr me n my birthday. I ride it t schl every day. On weekends, I ride it t visit friends and g t parks r cinemas.
Bike riding is very gd exercise. It is ppular amng peple fr all ages. It is very gd fr ur health. It can make us strng and happy. And it makes less nise. It is very imprtant in peple’s life.
Cme n! Take yur bike ut and let’s ride bikes tgether.
51. Jacksn thinks bike riding is _________.
A. easyB. hardC. difficult D. interesting
52. _________ bught a bike fr Jacksn last summer.
A. Jacksn’s parentsB. Jacksn’s auntsC. Jacksn’s brtherD. Jacksn’s sister
53. Jacksn ges t schl _________ every day.
A. n ftB. by bikeC. by carD. by bus
54. Bike riding is ppular amng _________.
A. childrenB. yung peple
C. ld pepleD. peple fr all ages
55. Frm the passage (文章), we knw that bike riding can make _________.
A. strng niseB. bad niseC. less niseD. mre nise
C
Tm is my gd friend. We are in the same high schl. He usually gets up at ten t seven. After breakfast, he ges t schl at 7:00. He likes English a lt. He reads English frm 7:30 t 8:00 every day. Sme students g hme fr lunch, but he has lunch at schl. He likes meat very much. He desn’t like vegetables at all. He ges hme at 5:30 in the afternn. His mther ften cks dinner at hme. She can ck well .Tm des his hmewrk frm 7:00 t 9:00 in the evening.
56. What des Tm d?
A. A teacher.B. A student.C. A ck.D. A dctr.
57. What time des Tm get up?
A.6:50.B.7:00.C.7:10.D.7:30.
58. Where des Tm have lunch?
A. At hme.B. In a shp.C. In a restaurant. D. At schl.
59.Wh usually cks at Tm’s hme?
A. Tm.B. Tm’s mther.C. Tm’s grandmther.D. Tm’s father.
60. What des Tm d at 7:20 in the evening?
A. Reads English.B. Cks dinner.C. Des his hmewrk.D. Has dinner.
D
Many peple like dgs. They keep ne r mre f dgs as pets. If yu keep a dg as a pet, yu must knw hw t lk after it.
A dg usually needs tw meals a day. It can eat meat, fish, rice and sme ther things. Dgs like large bnes, but yu can’t give them chicken bnes. Remember t give them much clean water.
A dg shuld have a clean, dry bx fr sleeping. Washing it nce a week. It is gd fr its health. If it is ill, take it t see a dctr. A healthy dg will bring yu mre happy things.
Take gd care f yur dgs. They will be yur gd friends. Maybe they can give yu sme help when yu are in need.
61. Accrding t the passage, many peple keep _________ as pets.
A. pigsB. gldfish C. rabbitsD. dgs
62. Hw many meals des a dg usually have every day?
A. One.B. Tw.C. Three.D. Fur.
63. The writer thinks dgs like eating _________.
A. lng bnesB. shrt bnesC. large bnesD. small bnes
64. A dg shuld have _________ fr sleeping.
A. a clean, wet bxB. a clean, dry bxC. a new, wet bxD. an ld, dry bx
65. The passage tells us abut _________.
A. hw t take gd care f dgsB. hw t feed dgs
C. hw t chse dgsD. hw t clean dgs
六、选词填空（每小题1.5分，共15分）
阅读短文，从方框中选择单词，并用其适当形式填空，使短文意思完整、通顺。将单词填写在答题卡对应的横线上。每词限用一次。
D yu knw Frank? He is my uncle's 66. . He is my cusin. And he is my classmate, 67. . We are in same class.
Frank has sme gd eating 68. . He eats fruit and vegetable every day. He likes 69. , but he desn't ften eat them. He says they're nt 70. .
Frank 71. sprts very much. And he plays basketball very 72. . Every afternn, he ften plays basketball 73. his friends. He says he wants t 74. a basketball star like Ya Ming.
Frank 75. well and plays sprts every day, s he is very healthy.
书面表达（15分）
请根据以下提示写一篇以“My favurite festival” 为题的英语短文。
提示:1.中秋节是中国最重要的节日之一(ne f the mst imprtant festivals);
2.中秋节在每年的9月或10月;
3.家庭成员回家团聚,吃团圆饭;
4.晚上赏月,听嫦娥的故事;
5.吃月饼，如今月饼的种类越来越多。
要求: 1.短文须包含提示中的所有要点,可适当拓展。
2.条理清楚，书写规范，语句通顺；
3.词数60词左右。
参考词汇：
Mid-Autumn Festival（中秋节） mn cake（月饼） enjy（欣赏）
full mn（满月） get tgether(聚会) have dinner(吃饭)
My favrite festival






t be eat healthy gd habit with hamburger sn lve
2023年12月七年级英语月考参考答案
一、听力部分（每题1分，共20分）
1—5 AEBCF 6—10 CBACB 11—15 BAACA
16.has 17.eggs 18.schl 19.big 20. candy
二、单项选择（每小题1分，共10分）
21—25 CABBC 26—30 CBBCC
三、补全对话 31—35 CABDE
四、完形填空 (每小题1分，共10分)
36—40 BCACB 41—45 ACBAB
五、阅读理解（共30分）（每小题2分）
46—50 FFTTT51—55 DABDC56—60 BADBC 61—65DBCBA
六、词汇运用（每小题1分，共15分）
66. sn67.t68. habits69.hamburgers70.healthy
71.lves 72.well73.with74.be75.eats
七、书面表达（15分）
参考范文 My favurite festival
The Mid - Autumn Festival is ne f the mst imprtant festivals in China . It usually cmes in September r Octber . At the Mid - Autumn Festival , family members cme back hme and have dinner tgether . Peple enjy the full mn , listen t the stry f Chang ' e and have the delicius mn cakes in the pen air . There are mre and mre different kinds f mn cakes tday . Peple ften have a gd time at the Mid - Autumn Festival .

评分意见：
书面表达赋分时应先定档后给分，定档给分取决于完成写作任务的程度。切忌以书写字体漂亮与否来主观打高或打低分数，而应强调字体可辨性，一般情况卷面扣分不超过2分。评卷时还应考虑标点符号的正确运用和文章的语言得体性。
档次
评分细则
第四
（12～15分）
切题，覆盖所有内容要点，并合理展开 , 行文连贯, 表达清楚，具备较强的语言运用能力，完全达到预期的写作目的；有些许的语言错误，但不影响理解。
第三档
（8～11分）
切题，写出大部分内容要点，语言较连贯，结构紧凑，词汇结构运用基本正确，有些许的语言错误，但不影响理解。
第二档
（4～7分）
基本切题，能写出大部分内容要点，行文不够连贯，词汇运用较贫乏，语法结构单一，有较多的语言错误，影响对写作内容 的理解。
第一档
（1～3分）
只写出部分内容要点或与内容有关的一些单词，语言错误较多，影响意思的表达，信息未能清楚地传达给作者。
（0分）
内容太少，所写的内容均与所要求内容无关或所写内容无法看清，无法评判。