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广西贺州市昭平县2022-2023学年七年级下学期期中自主检测英语试卷
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这是一份广西贺州市昭平县2022-2023学年七年级下学期期中自主检测英语试卷,共9页。试卷主要包含了听力测试,单项选择,情景交际,完形填空,阅读理解,按要求改写句子,每空一词,综合填空,书面表达等内容,欢迎下载使用。
(考试时间: 120分钟 满分120分)
第Ⅰ卷 (共 75 分)
一、听力测试(请将正确的答案代号字母填入下表相应序号内,共30小题,每小题1分,共30分)
Ⅰ. 听句子,选择与句子内容相符的图片。句子读两遍。 (每小题1分,共5分)
Ⅱ. 听句子,选择该句的最佳答语。句子读两遍。 (每小题1分,共5分)
6. A. Yes,I can. B. Yes,I d. C. Yes, I am.
7. A. I like it. B. I'm hungry. C. Srry, Ms. Ga.
8. A. It's easy. B. That's OK. C. Thanks! Yu t!
9. A. I'm fine. B. Thirteen. C. Hw d yu d?
10. A. By bike. B. Tw kilmeters. C.20 minutes.
Ⅲ. 听对话,选择正确答案。对话读两遍。 (每小题1分,共10分)
11. What's Bb's favrite subject?
A. Science. B. Chinese. C. English.
12. When is the music class?
A. On Wednesday. B. On Thursday. C. On Tuesday and Friday.
13. What club des Mike want t jin?
A. The English club. B. The ftball club. C. The swimming club.
14. What des the man need?
A. A pair f scks. B. A pair f shes. C. A pair f shrts.
15. Hw much is the bag?
A. It's 28 dllars. B. It's 38 dllars. C. It's 48 dllars.
16. Wh des Cindy teach t dance this weekend?
A. Her students. B. Her friends. C. Her cusins.
17. What's Kate ding?
A. She's dancing. B. She's listening t music. C. She's ding her hmewrk.
18. Why des Alice like pandas?
A. Because they are friendly. B. Because they are cute. C. Because they are interesting.
19. Hw des Susan get t schl?
A. By bus. B. By subway. C. By bike.
20. What time des the train leave?
A. At 3:15. B. At 3:20. C. At 3:30.
Ⅳ. 听短文,根据短文内容选择正确答案。短文读三遍。 (每小题1分,共5分)
21. Wh is Mr. Brwn?
A. He's a teacher. B. He's Jenny's uncle. C. He's a driver.
22. What can Mr. Brwn d?
A. He can play basketball. B. He can play the vilin. C. He can play the guitar.
23. What des Jenny lve?
A. Dancing. B. Singing. C. Drawing.
24. Where d Mr. Brwn's parents live?
A. In a schl. B. In a village. C. We dn't knw.
25. Hw d Jenny and Dave get t their grandparents' hme?
A. By car. B. By bus. C. By bike.
V. 听短文,填写信息。短文读三遍。 (每小题1分,共5分)
Julie lives in the USA with her parents and her 26 sisters. She desn't g t schl this27 . She has lessns at 28 with her sisters. Her mm teaches them. Her favrite subject is science. She desn't like histry r gegraphy very much. In her 29 time, she likes listening t music. She has lts f music CDs. She likes t 30 her friends n weekends. She desn't watch sprts n TV. She thinks it's bring. But she likes playing basketball.
26. 27. 28. 29. 30.
二、单项选择(共10小题,每小题1分,共10分)
从下列每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中,选出最佳选项。
31.— Can yu play the guitar?
A. Yes,I d. B. N,I'm nt. C. Yes, I can.
32. My father the mrning news n TV every day.
A. watches B. reads C. lks
33. — Hw far is it frm yur hme t schl?
—— It's abut fifteen walk.
A. minute B. minute's C. minutes'
34.— Mm, can I g swimming nw?
— N, yu have dinner first.
A. must B. can C. may
35. There is a river between his schl and hme, s he takes a t schl every day.
A. subway B. bus C. bat
36. Miss Zhang likes making friends with children, S she can be gd children in the sprts club.
A. at B. with C. fr
37. I can't play the pian. I think it's .
A. interesting B. difficult C. relaxing
38. Junk fd(垃圾食品) always gd, but it is nt healthy fr us at all.
A. tastes B. sunds C. feels
39. Please be quiet. My grandmther .
A. sleep B. sleeps C. is sleeping
40.— ?
—— It's three ' clck in the afternn nw.
A. What are yu ding B. What time is it C. Where is it
三、情景交际(共5小题,每小题1分,共5分)
根据对话内容,从下面方框中选出5个恰当的句子补全对话,其中有一项是多余的。
A: Can I help yu?
B: Yes, please. I want t jin a club.
A: 41 A. What's yur name?
B:I'm nt sure. But I can tell stries well.
A: 42 We want gd strytellers. B. What sprt can yu play?
B: Sunds gd. I'm glad I can shw the stries in it. C. What club d yu want t jin?
A: 43 D. It's OK with me n Sunday.
B: Tny Green. E. S yu can jin ur stry telling club.
A: Well, the last questin—— 44
B: I have vilin classes n Saturday. 45 F. When d yu have time, Saturday r Sunday?
A: OK. Welcme t ur club.
四、完形填空(共10小题,每小题1分,共10分)
阅读以下语篇,掌握其大意,然后从各题所给的A、B、C三个选项中,选出最佳选项。
Tday is Saturday and 8- year- ld Mna is at the city 46 with her mm. Mna lks at her favrite animal, the giraffe, and says,“ Lk, Mm! Hw cute she is!”
“ Yeah! I like her, t. She's s 47 ,” says Mm.
“ Mm, can I feed (喂) my apple t 48 ?” asks Mna. She takes ut an apple frm her bag. But Mm 49 her and says,“ Dear, I knw the giraffe is yur favrite animal, 50 yu can't feed her.”
Mna desn't knw 51 . She says,“ Mm, the apple is my favrite fruit and I want my favrite animal t 52 it. Is there anything wrng(错误的)?”
“ Dear, it's nt 53 t feed ur fd t the animal,” Mm says.“ She might(可能) be in 54 .”
“ Oh,I am srry,” Mna says.
“ Well, lk there! Let's 55 sme fd frm the zkeepers(饲养员) and feed her. It's gd fr her.”
“OK,” Mna says happily.
46. A. z B. library C. hall
47. A. tall B. nisy C. easy
B. him C. her
49. A. jins B. stps C. finds
50. A. and B. but C. because
51. A. when B. where C. why
52. A. eat B. keep C. fllw
53. A. tidy B. gd C. imprtant
54. A. time B. dream C. danger
55. A. buy B. eat C. save
五、阅读理解。 (共12小题, 56-59每小题1分, 60-67每小题2分,共20分)
A
Amy lives far frm her ffice. Five days a week, she gets up at abut 5:30 in the mrning. After a quick breakfast, she walks t Finsbury Park Statin. Frm there she ges t King's Crss Statin in Lndn by train. Then she ges t Hltn in a bus. After that she takes a taxi t her ffice. She gets there at abut 8:00. It usually takes abut tw hurs frm her hme t her ffice.
根据语篇内容,判断下列句子正(T)误(F)
56. King's Crss Statin is a train statin.
57. Amy has breakfast at abut 5:30 in the mrning.
58. Amy ges t Hltn frm Lndn n ft.
59. It takes Amy abut 120 minutes t get t her ffice frm hme.
B
I'm Je. I'm fat. My dctr says I must lse weight (减肥). I tell my father I want t d sme sprts. He says I can g t the sprts center. I take his advice. I g there the next day.
A wman there meets me. She asks me sme questins first and then she says I can g swimming. S I learn hw t swim. But I always feel afraid when I swim. I ask the wman,“ Can I d ther sprts?” She says,“ Yes. Yu can run and dance.” Running is easy fr me t d and I like dancing, t. S I take them.
Frm Mnday t Friday, I g t the sprts center and exercise a lt. On Saturday mrning, I play basketball with my friends. On Sunday afternn, I ride my bike. After abut six mnths, I lse 10 kg. I'm healthy and I lve ding sprts!
60. Je desn't swim because .
A. he feels afraid in the water
B. he thinks swimming is difficult
C. t many peple swim there
61. What des the underlined (划线的) wrd“ advice” mean(意思是……) in Chinese?
A. 建议 B.警告 C. 解释
62. What des Je d n Saturday mrning?
63. Which f the fllwing is TRUE accrding t the passage(根据文章)?
A. The dctr teaches Je hw t swim.
B. The wman asks Je t eat mre vegetables.
C. Je exercises a lt in a week.
C
As we all knw there are different kinds f clubs in the US middle schls. Such as the music club, the sprts club, the chess club and the swimming club. But d yu knw the hmewrk club? It is a ppular club in many US middle schls. Mre and mre students spend (度过) their afternns in the hmewrk club. The US middle schl students need a quiet place t study. But games, cmputers and TVs are all arund them at hme. S the hmewrk club is just fr them t d their hmewrk. The club is quiet and its als gd fr students t read their favrite bks. Sme teachers are there, t. They can answer students’ questins and help with their hmewrk.
After the students finish their hmewrk, they can g hme. Then they can play games r watch TV happily.
64. Hw many kinds f clubs are mentined(提及) in the passage?
A. Fur B. Five C. Six
65. When can the students in the US middle schls g t the hmewrk club?
A. In the mrning B. In the afternn C. At night
66. What can the students d in the hmewrk club?
A. D their hmewrk. B. Learn t swim. C. Play the guitar.
67. What is the best title fr the passage?
A. Students and Hmewrk
B. Clubs in the US middle schls
C. The Hmewrk Club
第 11 卷 (共45分)
六、按要求改写句子,每空一词。 (共5小题,每小题2分,共10分)
68.— Can yu play chess?(作否定回答)
— N, .
69. Lucy makes dinner every day. (改为一般疑问句)
Lucy dinner every day?
70. I always walk t schl.(改为同义句)
I always get t schl
71. The lins are frm Suth Africa.(对划线部分提问)
the lins frm?
72. yu/ g/ wrk/ t / d/ when/ usually(?)(连词成句)
七、综合填空(共20小题,每小题1分,共20分)
(一)根据句意及中文提示或首字母填写单词,每空一词。(共10小题,每小题1分,共10分)
73. Mrs. Green is frty. But she lks (年轻的).
74. Bys can't (保留) their hair lng at the schl.
75. I get up late, s I have t eat breakfast (快速地).
76. D yu have a healthy (生活)?
77. The (村民) are happy t have a subway statin.
78. Peter can draw well. He wants t jin the a club.
79. Remember t w yur scks after shwer.
80. The elephants are f , s they are ur friends.
81. It's 10 p. m., Tina is still r an interesting bk.
82. I usually walk t schl, but s I g t schl by bus.
(二)选词填空(共10小题,每小题1分,共10分)
根据语篇内容,从方框中选择恰当的单词,并用其正确形式填空。每个单词只能用一次,每空一词。
best early either and have he quarter run tth walk
David is a ftball player(运动员). He lves 83 jb very much.
He always gets up at six, brushes his 84 and gets dressed. Befre breakfast, he ges t the park 85 des sme exercise. He usually 86 fr half an hur every day. When the weather(天气) is nt gd, he just takes a 87 in the park. At 8 ’ clck, David ges hme and 88 breakfast. At 9:30, David ges t the stadium(体育场) and plays ftball with ther players. He thinks it's the 89 time f the day. He usually has a match (比赛) in the afternn. The match starts at tw ’ clck and finishes at a 90 t five. In the evening, he 91 watches TV r play cmputer games. He is very tired(累的) after a day's wrk, s he ges t bed very 92 , at half past eight.
83. 86. 85. 87. 84. 88. 89. 90. 91. 92.
八、书面表达。 (15分)
没有规矩,不成方圆,每家都有自家的家规。请根据所给内容提示,介绍你的家规并谈谈你对家规的看法。
内容提示:1.早上自己收拾床铺;
2.上学期间按时回家,放学后先写作业才能打球;
3.晚饭后要洗碗;
4………
5.你对家规的看法。
参考词汇: make rules t …/ be gd fllw the rules/ be strIct with...
写作要求:1.短文必须包括所有内容提示、语句通顺、语法正确,可适当发挥;
2.文中不得出现考生真实的姓名、地点和所在的学校名称;
3.词数:70词左右,开头已给出,不计入总词数。
I have many rules at hme.
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2023 年春季学期期中教学质量检测
七年级英语参考答案及听力录音原文
听力部分
1~5 CDAEB 6~10ACCBB 11~15ACBAC 16~20ABCCB 21~25 ACABA
26~30 tw/2 year hme free see
笔试部分
31~35 CACAC 36~40 BBACB
41~45 CEAFD 46~50 AACBB 51~55 CABCA
56~59 TFFT 60~63 AABC 64~67 BBAC
68. I can't 69. Des make 70. n ft 71. Where are
72. When d yu usually g t wrk?
73. yung 74. keep 75. quickly 76. life 77. villagers
78. art 79. wash 80. friendly 81. reading 82. smetimes
83. his 84. teeth 85. and 86. runs 87. walk
88. has 89. best 90. quarter 91. either 92. early
书面表达:
I have many rules at hme. My parents make rules t help me. The rules are gd fr me. In the mrning,I must make my bed. During the schl days,I must g hme n time. I can't play basketball after schl because I must d my hmewrk first. I can't watch TV r play cmputer games n schl nights. After dinner,I can't relax, either. I must wash the dishes. I have t g t bed befre 10 ’ clck.
My parents are strict with me, but the rules help me have gd habits.
听力原文
1. My favrite animal is a dg.
2. Yu can't eat in the classrm.
3. They ften play basketball after schl.
4. Mary is playing the pian in her rm.
5. D yu ften take the bus t schl?
6. Can yu play the drums?
7. Dn't run in the classrm, Tm.
8. Jim, have a gd day at schl!
9. Hw ld are yu?
10. Hw far is it frm yur hme t schl?
11. W: What's yur favrite subject, Bb?
M: I like science. It's fun.
12. W: Frank, when is yur music class?
M: It's n Tuesday and Friday.
13. W: What can yu d, Mike?
M:I can play ftball. And I want t jin the ftball club.
14. W: Can I help yu?
M: Yes, please. I need a pair f scks.
15. W: Yur new bag is beautiful. Hw much is it?
M: It's frty- eight dllars.
16. M: Are yu free this weekend, Cindy?
W: N,I'm nt. I need t teach students t dance.
17. M: Kate, are yu ding yur hmewrk?
W: N. I am listening t a CD.
18. M: Alice, d yu like pandas?
W: Yes, they are very interesting.
19. M: Susan, d yu walk t schl?
W: N, I ride my bike t schl.
20. M: It's 3:15. I think Tm is n the train nw.
W: I'm sure he is . The train leaves at 3:20.
21~25:
Mr. Brwn is an art teacher. He can play the guitar and sing . He lves playing tennis. He always plays tennis in his free time. His daughter Jenny lves dancing. She is in the schl's dancing club. His sn Dave takes sccer lessns after schl. On weekends, Mr. Brwn usually drives his car with Jenny and Dave t the village. His parents live there. They like the trip very much.
26~30:
Julie lives in the USA with her parents and her tw sisters. She desn't g t schl this year. She has lessns at hme with her sisters. Her mm teaches them. Her favrite subject is science. She desn't like histry r gegraphy very much. In her free time, she likes listening t music. She has lts f music CDs. She likes t see her friends n weekends. She desn't watch sprts n TV. She thinks it's bring. But she likes playing basketball.
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