湖北省安陆市2023-2024学年七年级下学期期中质量调研英语试卷

这是一份湖北省安陆市2023-2024学年七年级下学期期中质量调研英语试卷，共10页。试卷主要包含了你将听到五个句子，你将听到五段对话，请听下面5段对话，听力填空，选择填空，完形填空，阅读理解，完成句子等内容，欢迎下载使用。
听力理解(25分)
一、你将听到五个句子。请选出与所听句子内容相符的图片。每个句子读两遍。(共5分)
1. 3. 4. 5. 3.
二、你将听到五段对话。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳答语。每段对话读两遍。(共5分)
6. What des the by want t eat?
A. Rice. B. Bread. C. A hamburger.
7. When des the animal shw begin?
A. At 8:45. B. At 9:15. C. At 9:30.
8. What des the by d every mrning?
A. Play sccer. B. G running. C. Take a walk.
9. Where are the speakers?
A. In the z. B. In the classrm. C. In the supermarket.
10. When can the by watch TV at hme?
A. On Sunday. B. On Saturday. C. On Friday.
三、请听下面5段对话。每段对话后有几个小题，从题中所给的A. B. C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟。听完后，各小题给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话读两遍。
请听下面一段材料，回答第11至 12 小题。
11. What can Peter d?
A. Play chess. B. Play sccer. C. Play the guitar.
12. Wh is gd at drawing?
A. Peter. B. Jill. C. Peter's sister.
请听下面一段材料，回答第13至 14 小题。
13. What can Jet play?
A. The vilin. B. The drums. C. The pian.
14. Can Maria sing?
A. N, she can't. B. Yes, she can. C. We dn't knw.
请听下面一段材料，回答第15 至第 17 小题。
15. Hw many brthers may Jane have?
A. One. B. Tw. C. Three.
16. What des Peter lk like?
A. He is tall and fat.
B. He has shrt curly hair.
C. He has lng straight hair.
17. Hw lng d Jane's brthers play ftball?
A. Fr 5 years. B. Fr 10 years. C. Fr 15 years.
请听下面一段材料，回答第 18至第20小题。
18. Where are they?
A. At schl. B. At the ffice. C. At hme.
19. What's Tny's mther ding?
A. Cleaning the classrm. B. Talking with her friends. C. Cleaning the rm.
20. Wh can help Tny's mther?
A. Tny and his father. B. Tny. C. Tny's sister.
四、听力填空。请听下面一段独白，根据独白内容完成下列句子，每个空格一个单词。听独白前你将有30秒钟的时间阅读句子内容。独白读两遍。
21. My parents usually take me t the z n .
22. I have a lt f animal pictures in my .
23. Sme animals in the z are , but sme are nt.
24. I think pandas are very interesting and .
25. Pandas are very friendly t .
五、选择填空。(共15分，每小题1分)
26.— Excuse me, is it frm here t the hspital?
— Abut 10 minutes’ walk.
A. Hw much B. Hw lng C. Hw far D. Hw many
27. Keep please. Laura is sleeping in her bedrm.
A. strict B. quiet C. clean D. dirty
28. The ld phts make my grandmther the ld days.
A. eat ut B. cut dwn C. think f D. get up
29. Jane is gd at all her subjects, because she studies hard and frgets t d her hmewrk.
A. always B. never C. usually D. smetimes
30.— What d yu have t d at schl?
—I have t wear my schl unifrm fllw ther rules f the schl.
A. but B. r C. and D. s
31.— Tmrrw is Saturday.
— Yes. Let's and have fun this weekend.
A. sleep B. study C. relax D. watch
32. It's imprtant t take maps with yu, r yu' ll easily in the big park.
A. g ut B. keep healthy C.cme true D. get lst
33. It is difficult him t learn English like that.
A. fr B. f C. frm D. with
34. My mther ften says,“ Tm, in bed.”
A. desn't read B. dn't read C. can't read D. nt read
35.— Can yu d Chinese kung fu?
— Yes. Let me yu.
A. think B. shw C. watch D. make
36.— Why d yu want t see the lins?— Because they' re cute.
A. nt B. n C. little D. kind f
37. My brther and I ften walk t the t see pandas n weekends.
A. z B. park C. twn D. statin
38.— There is n bridge ver the river. Hw can they it?
— By bat.
A. g B. crss C. walk D. swim
39.— Hell, may I speak t Daisy?
— Hi! .
A. Yes, I am Daisy B. My name is Daisy
B. Daisy is me D. This is Daisy speaking
40.— d yu think f the schl life?
— It's very exciting.
A. Hw B. What C. Why D. Where
六、完形填空。(根据短文内容选择最佳选项，共15分，每小题1分)
Hell, I'm Wu Dng. I study at a basketball schl 41 Wuhan, China. In this schl, I learn 42 t play basketball. Als, I study ther subjects like math and music.
Every 43 , I get up at 6:00 a. m. and get dressed myself. Smetimes, I take a shwer in the mrning. I always brush my 44 twice a day t keep them clean. And I have classes in the classrm befre lunch. The afternn is the 45 fr basketball. I 46 basketball s I practice it very hard.
47 dinner, I usually take a walk fr half an hur with my friends. And then we g t the library t d ur hmewrk. I like ging there because it's very 48 . In ur library, there are many bks fr 49 t read.
Every night, I must 50 at 9 ’ clck. The teacher 51 says,“ T have a healthy bdy, yu must sleep fr abut 9 hurs each day.”
Frm Mndays t Fridays, I can't use my phne and the 52 keeps it fr me. On Saturdays, he will give it t me and I can 53 my parents.
Yu may say my schl 54 is very bring, 55 I think it's f great fun. I want t be a basketball player and I think I can make my dream cme true in the future.
41. A. at B. in C. n D. by
42. A. when B. wh C. where D. hw
43. A. mrning B. afternn C. evening D. night
44. A. face B. teeth C. hair D. leg
45. A. prblem B. way C. hur D. time
46. A. get B. find C. lve D. see
47. A. At B. Befre C. Fr D. After
48. A. quiet B. imprtant C. scary D. nisy
B. yu C. him D. them
50. A. wear unifrm B. g t bed C. watch TV D. play basketball
51. A. hard B. never C. ften D. hardly
52. A. ck B. student C. teacher D. dctr
53. A. visit B. call C. meet D. ask
54. A. life B. number C. friend D. clr
55. A. r B. s C. and D. but
七、阅读理解。(共30分，每小题2分)
A
I am Amy. I live in China with my family. It is Saturday tday. I dn't g t schl. All my family are at hme. It's three ' clck in the afternn. I am watching a tennis game n the cmputer with my brther Paul. Tennis is ur favrite sprt. My father David is drinking tea n the sfa and reading a bk. It's really relaxing fr him. Listen! My sister Lisa is playing the pian. She is gd at it. Music is her favrite subject, and she wants t be a music teacher ne day. Where is my mther? She is cutting fruit. She lves making fruit salad and always makes it fr us.
Le is my e- friend in France. China is seven hurs ahead f(早于) France. What are Le and his family ding nw? Le's parents are running in the park. They usually exercise t keep healthy. Le is cleaning his rm. It's ne f his family rules. What's this under the table? It's a white cat. It's very lazy and it always sleeps ver ten hurs a day.
56. Hw many peple are there in Amy's family?
A. Three. B. Five. C. Six. D. Seven.
57. Where may Amy's mther be?
A. In the living rm. B. In her rm.
C. In the kitchen. D. In the supermarket.
58. What time is it in France?
A.8 a. m. n Saturday. B. 10 a. m. n Saturday.
C. 8 p. m. n Saturday. D. 10 p. m. n Saturday.
59. Which f the fllwing is RIGHT?
A. Amy has a lazy white cat.
B. Amy and Paul like tennis best.
C. Le usually exercises in the park.
D. Lisa is a music teacher in a middle schl.
60. What is the passage mainly abut?
A. Weekend activities f families.
B. Relaxing things n the weekend.
C. What Amy's and Le's families are like.
D. What Amy's and Le's families are ding.
B
I'm Bb and I'm a student frm N. 1 Middle Schl. We have many rules in ur schl. I think sme f them are gd fr us, but thers are nt s gd.
We have t wear ur schl unifrms. I think it's gd. If we dn't have this rule, sme students will wear expensive clthes. They will think mre abut clthes, but nt study. We can't be late fr schl and we have t listen t the teacher in class. All f these rules are gd fr ur study and I like them.
We can't take mbile phnes t schl. I dn't think it's a gd idea. Smetimes ur parents are busy and can't get hme n time. They need t tell us abut that. If we can't take phnes, hw can they tell us? Als, we can't g t the mvies n weekends. I knw we shuld study hard, but we need sme time t relax, t.
61. What des Bb think f his schl rules?
A. He thinks all the rules are gd. B. He thinks all the rules are strict.
C. He thinks sme rules are gd. D. He desn't mind (在意) them.
62. Which rule des Bb like?
A. Listen t the teacher in class. B. Dn't eat utside.
C. Dn't g t the mvies n weekends. D. Wear sprts shes t schl.
63. Hw many rules are there in the passage?
A. Tw. B. Three. C. Fur. D. Five.
64. Why desn't Bb like the rule f n mbile phnes at schl?
A. Because he can't play games r listen t music n it.
B. Because his parents can't call him when they are busy.
C. Because he can't call his friends when he wants t see them.
D. Because he can't call his parents when he can't g hme.
65. What is the best title f this passage?
A. Rules in N. 1 Middle Schl. B. Sme ideas n the schl rules.
C. What students shuld d in schl. D. Bb talks abut the schl rules.
C
In ur city there is a big z. There are a lt f different animals in it. There are sme scary tigers and lins. They like eating meat and they eat much meat every day.
There are als tw big elephants and a baby(婴儿) ne. The elephants are very kind and friendly. They eat much grass and many bananas.
In the z, we can see different kinds f bears, brwn bears, black bears and white bears. They are all slw and clumsy(笨拙的). They stand n their back legs and lift their frnt legs t ask fr fd. They like cakes very much.
D yu like pandas? There's nly ne in the z. Her name is Lingling. She is very cute. She likes eating bamb(竹子) a lt. She is kind f shy. She's very interesting and lvely.
66. Tigers and lins like eating .
A. fruit B. meat C. vegetables D. rice
67. There are elephants in the z.
A. ne B. tw C. three D. fur
68. What clr are the bears in the z?
A. Black. B. Brwn. C. White. D. A,B and C.
69. Bears stand n their legs and lift their legs t ask fr fd.
A. frnt; back B. back; back C. frnt; frnt D. back; frnt
70. Which ne f the fllwing is NOT RIGHT?
A. Pandas like bamb very much.
B. The elephants are very friendly t peple.
C. There are different kinds f animals in the z.
D. The bears always ask fr fd with their back legs.
非选择题 (35分)
八、完成句子。(共10分，每空1分)
71. 在运动俱乐部，Eric 经常和别人交朋友。
In the sprt club, Eric ften with thers.
72. 我和我弟今天上课没有迟到。
My brther and I fr class tday.
73. Becky在周二或者打扫她的房间或者去购物。
Becky cleans her rm ges shpping n Tuesday.
74. 不要在教室里听音乐。
Dn't music in class.
75. 我们的英语老师对我们很严格。
Our English teacher is us.
九、语法填空。(共10分，每小题1分)
阅读短文，根据短文大意和提示词在每个空格上填上一个形式正确、意思相符的单词。
I have a happy family. There 76 ( be) five peple in my family — my grandparents, parents and me. But my grandparents dn't live with us in city, they live in a small village. There is a big river 77 the village and the twn and there is n bridge, 78 it is difficult fr us t g t my grandparents' hme.
Here are fur phts f my trip in my grandparents' village last year. In the first pht, my grandpa is 79 ( read) a newspaper. Everyday, my grandpa reads a newspaper fr half 80 hur. In the secnd pht, we are watching China's Gt Talent (中国达人秀) n TV, it's ne f ur favrite TV 81 ( shw). In the 82 ( three) pht, we are watching tigers in the z. Tigers are in great 83 nw, we have t save 84 ( they). In the last pht, we are taking a walk in the park. I always have 85 ( fun) in my grandparents' village. I lve my family.
十、书面表达。(共15分)
假定你叫李明，你有一个笔友，请根据以下思维导图提示，以“ My Pen Friend”为题写一篇英语短文介绍你的笔友。
写作要求：
1.短文要包括思维导图所给出的所有提示信息，书写工整、规范，可适当发挥。
2.60-80 词, 开头已给出, 不计入总词数;
My Pen Friend
My name is Li Ming.
七年级下册期中考试
听力录音稿
一、你将听到五个句子。请选出与所听句子内容相符的图片。每个句子读两遍。(共5分)
Text 1
Cindy can play the guitar.
Text 2
Bb takes the train t schl.
Text 3
Tm usually gets up at six ’clck.
Text 4
We can eat in the dinning hall.
Text 5
My favrite animals are pandas.
二、你将听到五段对话。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳答语。每段对话读两遍。(共5分)
Text 6
M: What d yu want t eat fr lunch?
W: I want t eat a chicken hamburger.
Text 7
W: Hi, Jim. It’s a quarter t nine nw.
M: Great. Let’s g and watch the animal shw at half past nine.
Text 8
W: D yu run every mrning?
M: Yes, I g running fr half an hur and then I g t schl at eight ’clck.
Text 9
W: What’s yur favrite animal?
M: Giraffes. They are s beautiful.
Text 10
W: Can yu watch TV n weekdays?
M: N, I can’t. I nly watch TV n Sunday.
三、请听下面5段对话。每段对话后有几个小题，从题中所给的A.B.C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟。听完后，各小题给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话读两遍。
请听下面一段材料，回答第11至12小题。
Text 11
M: There are sme clubs in ur schl.
W: Yes. What club d yu want t jin, Peter?
M: I am nt sure, Jill.
W: Can yu play the guitar?
M: N, I can’t. But I can play chess.
W: Well, yu can jin the chess club.
M: Sunds gd. What abut yu?
W: I am gd at drawing, s I want t jin the art club.
M: OK. Let’s jin nw.
请听下面一段材料，回答第13至14小题。
Text 12
W: D yu like playing the vilin, Jack?
M: N, I dn’t. But Jet can play it well.
W: Can Maria sing?
M: Yes, she can.
W: Thank yu fr telling me.
M: Yu are welcme.
请听下面一段材料，回答第15至第17小题。
Text 13
M: Jane, hw is yur new schl?
W: Hi, Jack. It’s nice.
M: I’m lking fr smene t play ftball with me. Can yu help me?
W: Uh, hw abut my tw brthers, Henry and Peter?
M: Yur tw brthers? D they lk the same?
W: Nt really. They’re bth tall and thin, but Henry has shrt curly hair. Peter has lng straight hair.
M: Hw ld are they?
W: They’re fifteen years ld.
M: Can they play ftball well?
W: Of curse. They started t play it at the age f ten.
M: Great. Let’s g and meet them.
请听下面一段材料，回答第18至第20小题。
Text 14
M: Mm, what are yu ding nw?
W: I’m cleaning the rm.
M : D yu want sme help?
W: Yes, Tny, please ask yur father t help me.
M: Srry, he can’t help yu. He’s talking with his friends in the living rm.
W: Oh, dear, it’s t heavy. I can’t d it.
M: Dn’t wrry. Let me help yu.
四、听力填空。请听下面一段独白，根据独白内容完成下列句子，每个空格一个单词。听独白前你将有30秒钟的时间阅读句子内容。独白读两遍。
Text 15
My parents usually take me t the z n weekends. I like animals. I have a lt f animal pictures in my rm. In the pht, I can see many animals. Sme animals are friendly, but sme are nt. I think pandas are very interesting and cute. I like watching them. They are very friendly t peple.
2024年4月七年级下册期中考试
英语参考答案
1-5 FEBDA 6-10 CCBAA11-15 ABABB16-20 CACCB
26-30 CBCBC 31-35 CDABB36-40 DABDB 41-45 BDABD
46-50 CDAAB 51-55 CCBAD56-60 BCABD
61-65 CADBB 66-70 BCDDD
21. weekends 22. rm 23. friendly24. cute25. peple
八、完成句子。（共10分，每空1分）
71. makes friends 72. aren’t late 73. either; r74. listen t75. strict with
九、语法填空（共10分，每小题1分）
76. are 77. between 78. s 79. reading 80. an 81. shws 82. third
83. danger 84. them 85. fun
十、书面表达。（共15分）
One pssible versin:
My Pen Friend
My name is Li Ming. I have a pen friend. Her name is Mary. She is 13 years ld. She is frm Australia.
Every mrning, Mary gets up early, and she usually gets up at half past six. Then she rides her bike t schl. She thinks it’s a gd exercise and it’s als gd fr her health. Mary likes animals. Her favrite animals are kalas. Because she thinks they are really friendly. Mary can sing and dance and she is in the music club. Lk! She is singing nw!
This is my pen friend. I like her very much.