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山东省枣庄市薛城区2023-2024学年上学期八年级英语期中试题
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这是一份山东省枣庄市薛城区2023-2024学年上学期八年级英语期中试题，共8页。试卷主要包含了11等内容，欢迎下载使用。
（满分120分）
2023.11
温馨提示：
①本试卷分为第Ⅰ卷（选择题）和第Ⅱ卷（非选择题）两部分。
②1-45小题选出答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其它答案标号。
③考试结束，考生将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第Ⅰ卷（选择题，满分55分）
一、听力选择（1～15小题，每小题1分，满分15分）
（一）根据你听到的内容，选出相应的图片，完成1～5小题。录音读两遍。
A．B．C．D．
E．F．G．H．
（二）根据你听到的内容，判断下列句子是否符合你听到的对话内容，符合的用“T”表示，不符合的用“F”表示。录音读两遍。
（ ）6．Andy is watching a really funny sitcm.
（ ）7．Andy thinks watching sitcms is a great way t relax.
（ ）8．Mary thinks even game shws are better than sitcms.
（ ）9．Mary likes sprts shws but desn’t like talent shws.
（ ）10．Andy thinks talent shws are s wnderful.
（三）你会听到五个人的谈论，从A到E的列表中，为每个说话者选择表达每个人观点的字母。每个字母只用一遍。录音读三遍。
（ ）11．Speaker 1A．I never drink cffee but I drink juice every day.
（ ）12．Speaker 2B．I like reading and I read bks five times a week.
（ ）13．Speaker 3C．I eat well and I d sprts fur times a week.
（ ）14．Speaker 4D．Over half f ur students like playing sprts.
（ ）15．Speaker 5E．My friend ges t the shpping center twice a mnth.
二、完型填空（16～25小题，每小题1分，满分10分）
阅读下面短文，掌握其大意，然后从16～25各题所给的四个选项（A、B、C、D）中，选出最佳选项。
When I was a kid, my parents never let me watch scary mvies. At that time, ne f my 16 was t watch ne.
I remember ging t a friend’s huse fr his birthday party, 17 in middle schl. After the party was ver, it was dark. We sat in the living rm and talked. “Hw abut watching the latest 18 ?” Smene asked. And 19 said n. Great! My dream came true. I was s excited.
The mvie was nt as 20 as I thught. It was terrible. I didn’t want t g n halfway. 21 I fund thers were nt as scary as me. “N, they will laugh 22 me,” I thught. S I kept watching. I hardly 23 that night. When I went t bed, I culdn’t 24 thinking abut the scary things saw in the mvie. Once I 25 any nise（响声）, I thught smething wuld break int the huse and kill me. Frm then n, I never watched scary mvies again.
（ ）16．A．jkesB．rlesC．jbsD．dreams
（ ）17．A．maybeB．sC．asD．pretty
（ ）18．A．actin mvieB．cartn
C．scary mvieD．cmedy
（ ）19．A．smeneB．nbdyC．everyneD．anyne
（ ）20．A．bringB．cheapC．excitingD．bad
（ ）21．A．ButB．ThughC．BecauseD．If
（ ）22．A．frB．tC．withD．at
（ ）23．A．spkeB．ateC．drankD．slept
（ ）24．A．expectB．hpeC．stpD．wait
（ ）25．A．sawB．heardC．listenedD．tuched
三、阅读理解（26～45 小题，每小题2分，满分40分）
阅读下面两篇短文，从26～35各题所给的四个选项（A、B、C、D）中，选出最佳选项。
A
（ ）26．Why did the writer write the infrmatin abve?
A．T ask sme mney fr the students in the cuntryside.
B．T ask new students t jin the talent shw.
C．T ask the students t watch the talent shw.
D．T ask sme students t pay 2 dllars.
（ ）27．If Linda perfrms in the shw with her three friends, hw much shuld they pay?
A．$2．B．$6．C．$10．D．$8.
（ ）28．What will the mney be used t d?
A．Buy prizes fr the winners.
B．Buy smethings fr schl.
C．Buy schl things fr the students in the cuntryside.
D．Buy things fr the talent shw.
（ ）29．Hw lng will the shw last?
A．An hur.B．One and a half hurs.C．Tw hurs.D．Tw and a half hurs.
（ ）30．What can we learn frm the infrmatin abve?
A．Students can jin the talent shw auditins n Nvember 12th.
B．There are three ways t get mre infrmatin abut the shw.
C．If yu want t be in the Talent Shw, yu shuld submit a vide befre Nvember 14th.
D．Yu can get a tape player when yu win the secnd prize.
B
Saturday, March 24th
We arrived in the ht, wet city—Bangkk（曼谷）. This is ur first trip t Thailand. All the different smells make us want t try the fd. We are ging t eat smething special fr dinner tnight. The htel we are staying in is cheap, and very clean. We plan t stay here fr a few days, visit sme places in the city, and then travel t Chia ng Mai in the Nrth.
Tuesday, March 27th
Bangkk is wnderful and surprising! The places are interesting. We visited the famus market which was n water, and saw a lt f fruit and vegetables. Everything is s clrful, and we tk lts f phts there! Later tday we will leave fr Chiang Mai. We will take the train t Chiang Mai and stay there fr tw days, and then catch a bus t Chiang Rai.
Friday, March 30th
Our bus ride t Chiang Rai was lng and bring. We visited a small village in the muntains. The village peple here lve the quiet life- n cmputers r phnes. They are the kindest peple I have ever met. They always smile and say “hell”. Kathy and I can nly speak a few wrds f Thai, s smiling is the best way t shw ur kindness. I feel gd here, but we must g hme. I hpe t be able t cme back next year.
（ ）31．Hw was the weather in Bangkk?
A．Warm and sunny.B．Ht and dry.C．Ht and wet.D．Cld and windy.
（ ）32．Hw did they g t Chiang Rai?
A．Take the train.B．Take the plane.C．Ride the bike.D．Take the bus.
（ ）33．Hw many days did they stay in Thailand?
A．Five days.B．Seven days.C．Nine days.D．Ten days.
（ ）34．Which f the fllwing is NOT TRUE?
A．We arrived in Bangkk first, and then travelled t Chiang Mai
B．We visited the famus market n water in Bangkk.
C．I didn’t like the bring trip t Chiang Rai at all.
D．The village peple enjy their quiet life in Chiang Rai.
（ ）35．What is the best title fr the whle diary?
A．My First TravelB．The Outside Wrld
C．Traveling in ThailandD．A Cuntry n the Train
C
读下面的文章，然后判断文章后面36～40的问题，正确的答案写T，错误的答案写F。
I had the meanest（最苛刻的） mther in the wrld. While ther kids ate candy fr breakfast. I had t have crn bread and eggs. When thers had Cke and candy fr lunch, I had t eat a sandwich. But at least I wasn’t alne（独自的）. My brther and tw sisters had the same mean mther as I did.
We had t wear clean clthes and take a bath every day. Other kids culd wear the same clthes fr days.
We had t be in bed by 9:00 p. m. and up at 7 a. m. We culdn’t sleep till nn n the weekends like ur friends. We had t wash dishes, make beds and learn t ck. I believed she was always thinking f mean things t d t us.
My mther was the meanest mther. All f us went n higher educatin. Nne f us did bad things. She made us grw up int gd peple. Nw, I am trying t educate my children like this. I will feel happy and successful when my children call me mean mther.
Because, yu see, I am s thankful I had the meanest mther in the wrld.
（ ）36．I had t have crn bread, eggs and candy.
（ ）37．Mther was nt s mean t my sisters as t me,
（ ）38．Other kids didn’t have t wash their clthes every day.
（ ）39．All the fur children in my family had gd educatin.
（ ）40．My mther was t mean, s I dn’t like her.
D
阅读理解 七选五 根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入文中41～45小题处的最佳选项。
The first cartns came ut in newspapers. They tld stries by using pictures. 41 In this mvie, an artist drew pictures f tw faces n a blackbard. The faces came t life. 42 There were lt f animals in early cartns. One famus early cartn character was Felix the Cat. Walt Disney started t make cartns in the 1920s. 43 But in Disney’s cartn, it was called Alice in Cartn Land. Walt Disney’s mst famus cartn character was Mickey Muse. It was made in 1928, first in a black- and- white mvie withut sund, then very sn after that in a talking mvie and later in clr. 44
Tday, ver a hundred years later, cartns are still ppular with peple. 45 Because they are s special. Wh is mre ppular than cartns with bth kids and adults?
第Ⅱ卷（非选择题，满分65分）
四、听力填空（46～50小题，每小题2分，满分10分）
听下面一段短文，请根据所听内容完成下面的填空。每空一词。把答案写在答题卡46～50小题横线上。短文读三遍。
46．I always finish my breakfast fastest n ______.
47．I want t get t Greenwd Park befre 10:00 A．m. t ______ ______ ______.
48．On weekends, almst everyne ges there t see the ______ ______.
49．Sme peple think they are bring, but I think they are the ______ ______ peple.
50．Yu can read r ______ at ne f the small cffee shps near the park.
五、语法填空（51～60小题，每小题1分，满分10分）
阅读下面的材料并填空。有的答案要填入适当的内容，有的答案要用括号内单词的正确形式，但每个答案不多于三个单词。
Paul and Carl were best friends. They lived clse 51 each ther, s they went t schl tgether.
One day, when Paul and Carl 52 （reach） the classrm, the teacher intrduced（介绍）a new classmate t the class. Her name is Lisa. Lisa was a very lvely girl. She sat next t Carl. At lunchtime, Carl asked Lisa t sit with her and Paul. Paul was excited, because he expected 53 （talk） t their new friend. But he culd 54 （hard） speak t Lisa. She was busy talking with Carl. And Carl gave her cake t Lisa. Carl usually gave it t Paul! After schl, Carl and Lisa talked abut their 55 （plan） fr the summer. It made Paul feel unhappy. S, he didn’t say 56 （smething） t them.
When Carl was ready 57 （g） hme, Paul was waiting fr her. He lked sad. He said t Carl, “Yu’ re my best friend, but tday yu talked with Lisa all the time. Yu gave yur cake t her, and I heard yu talking abut the summer plans. I feel 58 that she is yur best friend! Yu like her better.” Carl felt srry fr what she did. She said t Paul, “Dn’t be s sad, Paul. She can’t take 59 （yu） place in my heart. But we three can be best friends. Let’s play 60 her tgether tmrrw.”
六、阅读表达（61～65小题，每小题2分，满分10分）
Hi, dear bys and girls! D yu knw hw t be a healthy kid? Here are sme rules yu shuld fllw.
First, eat different fds, especially fruit and vegetables. Yu may have a favrite fd, but yu’d better eat smething different. If yu eat different fds, yu will prbably get mre nutrients（营养物质） yur bdy needs.
Secnd, drink water and milk as ften as pssible. When yu’re really thirsty, cld water is the N. 1 chice（选择）. Milk is a great drink that can give yu mre calcium（钙） yur bdy needs.
Third, listen t yur bdy. Hw d yu feel when yu are full? When yu are eating, ntice hw yur bdy feels and when yur stmach（胃） feels cmfrtably full. Eating t much will nt make yu feel cmfrtable and make yu fat.
Furth, limit（限制） screen time. Screen time is the time yu watch TV, vides, r using cmputers. It is gd t take mre exercise such as basketball, bike riding and swimming. Yu can’t watch TV fr mre than tw hurs a day.
Fifth, be active（积极的）. One thing yu’d like t d as a kid is t find ut which activity yu like best. Find ways t be active every day.
Fllw these rules and yu can be a healthy kid.
61．Hw many rules are there in the passage?
___________________________________________________________________________________________
62．Why des the writer think milk is gd fr us?
___________________________________________________________________________________________
63．Accrding t the passage, hw many hurs can yu watch TV a day?
___________________________________________________________________________________________
64．请将划线句子翻译为汉语。
___________________________________________________________________________________________
65．请给短文拟一个适当的英文题目。
___________________________________________________________________________________________
七、补全句子（66～70小题，每小题2分，满分10分）
根据汉语意思完成英语句子，每个空格填一个单词。
66．今天的报纸上没有什么有趣的事情。
There is ______ ______ in tday’s newspaper.
67．这个房间太大了，至少能容纳200名学生。
The rm is s big. It hlds tw hundred students ______ ______.
68．你可以在那儿最快地买到票。
Yu can buy tickets ______ ______ quickly there.
69．这个工作由你负责。
The jb is ______ ______ yu.
70．易老师是一位好老师，她总是愿意帮助有困难的学生。
Miss Yi is a great teacher and she is always ______ ______ help students in truble.
八、书面表达（共1题，满分15分）
学校举办英语演讲比赛，主题是介绍自己最好的朋友。假如你是李华，请用英语写一篇演讲稿介绍你的好朋友Jeff。
内容要点：
1．个子比你高，比你更外向。他总是给你讲有意的故事。
2．喜欢运动，每周锻炼四次。放学后，你们还一起打篮球。
3．喜欢听音乐，看动作片，还喜欢看新闻，因为……
4．上周末，你们去 Twn Cinema看了电影，电影很精彩，你觉得这家影院是最好的一家影院，因为它有最舒适的座位和最好的音效。
要求：1．内容必须包含以上信息，并可根据需要适当添加；
2．书写规范，条理清楚，行文连贯，段落分明；
3．词数80词左右，所给开头和结尾不计入总次数，文中请勿出现具体学校和真实姓名，否则不予评分。
Hell, everyne! I’m glad t intrduce my best friend Jeff t yu.
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
That’s all. Thank yu.
八年级英语试题参考答案
23.11
第一部分（选择题，满分65分）
一、听力选择（1～15小题，每小题1分，满分15分）
1-5．FAEHD 6-10．TTTFT 11-15．CDBEA
二、完型填空（16～25小题，每小题1分，满分10分）
16-20．DACBC 21-25．ADDCB
三、阅读理解（26～45小题，每小题2分，满分40分）
26-30．BDCDD 31-35．CDBCC 36-40．FFTTF 41-45．ABEFC
第二部分 （非选择题，满分55分）
四、听力填空题（46.50小题，每小题2分，满分10分）
46．Saturdays 47．meet my friends 48．street perfrmers
49．mst creative 50．relax
五、语法填空（51.60小题, 每小题1分，满分10分）
51．t 52．reached 53．t talk 54．hardly 55．plans
56．anything 57．t g 58．like 59．yur 60．with
六、任务型阅读（61～65小题，每小题2分，满分10分）
61．Five.
62．Because it can give yu mre calcium yur bdy needs.
63．At mst tw hurs a day.
64．多做运动是有好处的，比如打篮球、骑自行车和游泳。
65．Hw t be a healthy kid?/ The rules t be a healthy kid.
七、补全句子（66～70小题，每小题2分，满分10分）
66．nthing interesting 67．at least 68．the mst 69．up t 70．ready t
八、书面表达（共1题，满分15分）
One pssible versin:
Hell, everyne! I’m glad t intrduce my best friend Jeff t yu. He is kind and friendly. He is taller and much mre utging than me. He always tells me funny stries and makes me laugh. We are bth interested in sprts. We ften exercise fur times every week and play basketball tgether after schl. We bth enjy listening t music and watching actin mvies, they are relaxing fr us. Smetimes Jeff likes watching news because he wants t knw what’s ging n arund the wrld.
Last weekend, we watched an actin mvie in Twn Cinema. It was s wnderful. I think Twn Cinema is the best mvie theater. It has the mst cmfrtable seats and the best sund.
That’s all. Thank yu.New Student Talent Shw
Can yu sing r dance? Are yu gd at playing the guitar? D yu want t shw yur talents t yur new schlmates? If s, dn’t miss the New Student Talent Shw! It shws the talents f new students.
7: 30 p. m.-10: 00 p. m. Friday, Nvember 18th,2022
All kinds f perfrmers such as singers, dancers, strytellers, magicians are welcme!
Auditin（试演）
New students wh want t auditin fr the shw can:
·Submit（提供） avidetgetcnnected@byui.edubefreNvember 12th.
·Jin the talent shw auditins n Mnday, Nvember 14th, 9: 00A．m.-2: 30p. m. in the Manwaring Center
Prize
·1st prize a guitar
·2nd prize a tape player
·3rd prize a cup
Fundraiser（募捐活动）
Every perfrmer needs t pay 2 dllars t jin the shw. And there will be a fundraiser during the talent shw. All the mney will be used t buy bks, pens, schl bags and sme ther schl things fr the students in the cuntryside. If yu have any questins abut the shw, write an e- mail t get cnnected@ byui edu r call the Student Supprt Office at 496-1420.
A．The first cartn mvie （ in 1906） was abut faces.
B．They smiled and a small dg jumped thrugh a ring.
C．Maybe they will be ppular fr many mre years in the future.
D．Sme peple think cartns are just fr kids and dn’t mind them.
E．Sme f his earliest mvies were abut a famus stry, Alice in Wnderland.
F．A Mickey Muse mvie was the first cartn mvie with sund t get really ppular.
G．Chinese cartns shw ur traditinal culture, like ink painting and paper cutting.
（满分120分）
2023.11
温馨提示：
①本试卷分为第Ⅰ卷（选择题）和第Ⅱ卷（非选择题）两部分。
②1-45小题选出答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其它答案标号。
③考试结束，考生将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第Ⅰ卷（选择题，满分55分）
一、听力选择（1～15小题，每小题1分，满分15分）
（一）根据你听到的内容，选出相应的图片，完成1～5小题。录音读两遍。
A．B．C．D．
E．F．G．H．
（二）根据你听到的内容，判断下列句子是否符合你听到的对话内容，符合的用“T”表示，不符合的用“F”表示。录音读两遍。
（ ）6．Andy is watching a really funny sitcm.
（ ）7．Andy thinks watching sitcms is a great way t relax.
（ ）8．Mary thinks even game shws are better than sitcms.
（ ）9．Mary likes sprts shws but desn’t like talent shws.
（ ）10．Andy thinks talent shws are s wnderful.
（三）你会听到五个人的谈论，从A到E的列表中，为每个说话者选择表达每个人观点的字母。每个字母只用一遍。录音读三遍。
（ ）11．Speaker 1A．I never drink cffee but I drink juice every day.
（ ）12．Speaker 2B．I like reading and I read bks five times a week.
（ ）13．Speaker 3C．I eat well and I d sprts fur times a week.
（ ）14．Speaker 4D．Over half f ur students like playing sprts.
（ ）15．Speaker 5E．My friend ges t the shpping center twice a mnth.
二、完型填空（16～25小题，每小题1分，满分10分）
阅读下面短文，掌握其大意，然后从16～25各题所给的四个选项（A、B、C、D）中，选出最佳选项。
When I was a kid, my parents never let me watch scary mvies. At that time, ne f my 16 was t watch ne.
I remember ging t a friend’s huse fr his birthday party, 17 in middle schl. After the party was ver, it was dark. We sat in the living rm and talked. “Hw abut watching the latest 18 ?” Smene asked. And 19 said n. Great! My dream came true. I was s excited.
The mvie was nt as 20 as I thught. It was terrible. I didn’t want t g n halfway. 21 I fund thers were nt as scary as me. “N, they will laugh 22 me,” I thught. S I kept watching. I hardly 23 that night. When I went t bed, I culdn’t 24 thinking abut the scary things saw in the mvie. Once I 25 any nise（响声）, I thught smething wuld break int the huse and kill me. Frm then n, I never watched scary mvies again.
（ ）16．A．jkesB．rlesC．jbsD．dreams
（ ）17．A．maybeB．sC．asD．pretty
（ ）18．A．actin mvieB．cartn
C．scary mvieD．cmedy
（ ）19．A．smeneB．nbdyC．everyneD．anyne
（ ）20．A．bringB．cheapC．excitingD．bad
（ ）21．A．ButB．ThughC．BecauseD．If
（ ）22．A．frB．tC．withD．at
（ ）23．A．spkeB．ateC．drankD．slept
（ ）24．A．expectB．hpeC．stpD．wait
（ ）25．A．sawB．heardC．listenedD．tuched
三、阅读理解（26～45 小题，每小题2分，满分40分）
阅读下面两篇短文，从26～35各题所给的四个选项（A、B、C、D）中，选出最佳选项。
A
（ ）26．Why did the writer write the infrmatin abve?
A．T ask sme mney fr the students in the cuntryside.
B．T ask new students t jin the talent shw.
C．T ask the students t watch the talent shw.
D．T ask sme students t pay 2 dllars.
（ ）27．If Linda perfrms in the shw with her three friends, hw much shuld they pay?
A．$2．B．$6．C．$10．D．$8.
（ ）28．What will the mney be used t d?
A．Buy prizes fr the winners.
B．Buy smethings fr schl.
C．Buy schl things fr the students in the cuntryside.
D．Buy things fr the talent shw.
（ ）29．Hw lng will the shw last?
A．An hur.B．One and a half hurs.C．Tw hurs.D．Tw and a half hurs.
（ ）30．What can we learn frm the infrmatin abve?
A．Students can jin the talent shw auditins n Nvember 12th.
B．There are three ways t get mre infrmatin abut the shw.
C．If yu want t be in the Talent Shw, yu shuld submit a vide befre Nvember 14th.
D．Yu can get a tape player when yu win the secnd prize.
B
Saturday, March 24th
We arrived in the ht, wet city—Bangkk（曼谷）. This is ur first trip t Thailand. All the different smells make us want t try the fd. We are ging t eat smething special fr dinner tnight. The htel we are staying in is cheap, and very clean. We plan t stay here fr a few days, visit sme places in the city, and then travel t Chia ng Mai in the Nrth.
Tuesday, March 27th
Bangkk is wnderful and surprising! The places are interesting. We visited the famus market which was n water, and saw a lt f fruit and vegetables. Everything is s clrful, and we tk lts f phts there! Later tday we will leave fr Chiang Mai. We will take the train t Chiang Mai and stay there fr tw days, and then catch a bus t Chiang Rai.
Friday, March 30th
Our bus ride t Chiang Rai was lng and bring. We visited a small village in the muntains. The village peple here lve the quiet life- n cmputers r phnes. They are the kindest peple I have ever met. They always smile and say “hell”. Kathy and I can nly speak a few wrds f Thai, s smiling is the best way t shw ur kindness. I feel gd here, but we must g hme. I hpe t be able t cme back next year.
（ ）31．Hw was the weather in Bangkk?
A．Warm and sunny.B．Ht and dry.C．Ht and wet.D．Cld and windy.
（ ）32．Hw did they g t Chiang Rai?
A．Take the train.B．Take the plane.C．Ride the bike.D．Take the bus.
（ ）33．Hw many days did they stay in Thailand?
A．Five days.B．Seven days.C．Nine days.D．Ten days.
（ ）34．Which f the fllwing is NOT TRUE?
A．We arrived in Bangkk first, and then travelled t Chiang Mai
B．We visited the famus market n water in Bangkk.
C．I didn’t like the bring trip t Chiang Rai at all.
D．The village peple enjy their quiet life in Chiang Rai.
（ ）35．What is the best title fr the whle diary?
A．My First TravelB．The Outside Wrld
C．Traveling in ThailandD．A Cuntry n the Train
C
读下面的文章，然后判断文章后面36～40的问题，正确的答案写T，错误的答案写F。
I had the meanest（最苛刻的） mther in the wrld. While ther kids ate candy fr breakfast. I had t have crn bread and eggs. When thers had Cke and candy fr lunch, I had t eat a sandwich. But at least I wasn’t alne（独自的）. My brther and tw sisters had the same mean mther as I did.
We had t wear clean clthes and take a bath every day. Other kids culd wear the same clthes fr days.
We had t be in bed by 9:00 p. m. and up at 7 a. m. We culdn’t sleep till nn n the weekends like ur friends. We had t wash dishes, make beds and learn t ck. I believed she was always thinking f mean things t d t us.
My mther was the meanest mther. All f us went n higher educatin. Nne f us did bad things. She made us grw up int gd peple. Nw, I am trying t educate my children like this. I will feel happy and successful when my children call me mean mther.
Because, yu see, I am s thankful I had the meanest mther in the wrld.
（ ）36．I had t have crn bread, eggs and candy.
（ ）37．Mther was nt s mean t my sisters as t me,
（ ）38．Other kids didn’t have t wash their clthes every day.
（ ）39．All the fur children in my family had gd educatin.
（ ）40．My mther was t mean, s I dn’t like her.
D
阅读理解 七选五 根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入文中41～45小题处的最佳选项。
The first cartns came ut in newspapers. They tld stries by using pictures. 41 In this mvie, an artist drew pictures f tw faces n a blackbard. The faces came t life. 42 There were lt f animals in early cartns. One famus early cartn character was Felix the Cat. Walt Disney started t make cartns in the 1920s. 43 But in Disney’s cartn, it was called Alice in Cartn Land. Walt Disney’s mst famus cartn character was Mickey Muse. It was made in 1928, first in a black- and- white mvie withut sund, then very sn after that in a talking mvie and later in clr. 44
Tday, ver a hundred years later, cartns are still ppular with peple. 45 Because they are s special. Wh is mre ppular than cartns with bth kids and adults?
第Ⅱ卷（非选择题，满分65分）
四、听力填空（46～50小题，每小题2分，满分10分）
听下面一段短文，请根据所听内容完成下面的填空。每空一词。把答案写在答题卡46～50小题横线上。短文读三遍。
46．I always finish my breakfast fastest n ______.
47．I want t get t Greenwd Park befre 10:00 A．m. t ______ ______ ______.
48．On weekends, almst everyne ges there t see the ______ ______.
49．Sme peple think they are bring, but I think they are the ______ ______ peple.
50．Yu can read r ______ at ne f the small cffee shps near the park.
五、语法填空（51～60小题，每小题1分，满分10分）
阅读下面的材料并填空。有的答案要填入适当的内容，有的答案要用括号内单词的正确形式，但每个答案不多于三个单词。
Paul and Carl were best friends. They lived clse 51 each ther, s they went t schl tgether.
One day, when Paul and Carl 52 （reach） the classrm, the teacher intrduced（介绍）a new classmate t the class. Her name is Lisa. Lisa was a very lvely girl. She sat next t Carl. At lunchtime, Carl asked Lisa t sit with her and Paul. Paul was excited, because he expected 53 （talk） t their new friend. But he culd 54 （hard） speak t Lisa. She was busy talking with Carl. And Carl gave her cake t Lisa. Carl usually gave it t Paul! After schl, Carl and Lisa talked abut their 55 （plan） fr the summer. It made Paul feel unhappy. S, he didn’t say 56 （smething） t them.
When Carl was ready 57 （g） hme, Paul was waiting fr her. He lked sad. He said t Carl, “Yu’ re my best friend, but tday yu talked with Lisa all the time. Yu gave yur cake t her, and I heard yu talking abut the summer plans. I feel 58 that she is yur best friend! Yu like her better.” Carl felt srry fr what she did. She said t Paul, “Dn’t be s sad, Paul. She can’t take 59 （yu） place in my heart. But we three can be best friends. Let’s play 60 her tgether tmrrw.”
六、阅读表达（61～65小题，每小题2分，满分10分）
Hi, dear bys and girls! D yu knw hw t be a healthy kid? Here are sme rules yu shuld fllw.
First, eat different fds, especially fruit and vegetables. Yu may have a favrite fd, but yu’d better eat smething different. If yu eat different fds, yu will prbably get mre nutrients（营养物质） yur bdy needs.
Secnd, drink water and milk as ften as pssible. When yu’re really thirsty, cld water is the N. 1 chice（选择）. Milk is a great drink that can give yu mre calcium（钙） yur bdy needs.
Third, listen t yur bdy. Hw d yu feel when yu are full? When yu are eating, ntice hw yur bdy feels and when yur stmach（胃） feels cmfrtably full. Eating t much will nt make yu feel cmfrtable and make yu fat.
Furth, limit（限制） screen time. Screen time is the time yu watch TV, vides, r using cmputers. It is gd t take mre exercise such as basketball, bike riding and swimming. Yu can’t watch TV fr mre than tw hurs a day.
Fifth, be active（积极的）. One thing yu’d like t d as a kid is t find ut which activity yu like best. Find ways t be active every day.
Fllw these rules and yu can be a healthy kid.
61．Hw many rules are there in the passage?
___________________________________________________________________________________________
62．Why des the writer think milk is gd fr us?
___________________________________________________________________________________________
63．Accrding t the passage, hw many hurs can yu watch TV a day?
___________________________________________________________________________________________
64．请将划线句子翻译为汉语。
___________________________________________________________________________________________
65．请给短文拟一个适当的英文题目。
___________________________________________________________________________________________
七、补全句子（66～70小题，每小题2分，满分10分）
根据汉语意思完成英语句子，每个空格填一个单词。
66．今天的报纸上没有什么有趣的事情。
There is ______ ______ in tday’s newspaper.
67．这个房间太大了，至少能容纳200名学生。
The rm is s big. It hlds tw hundred students ______ ______.
68．你可以在那儿最快地买到票。
Yu can buy tickets ______ ______ quickly there.
69．这个工作由你负责。
The jb is ______ ______ yu.
70．易老师是一位好老师，她总是愿意帮助有困难的学生。
Miss Yi is a great teacher and she is always ______ ______ help students in truble.
八、书面表达（共1题，满分15分）
学校举办英语演讲比赛，主题是介绍自己最好的朋友。假如你是李华，请用英语写一篇演讲稿介绍你的好朋友Jeff。
内容要点：
1．个子比你高，比你更外向。他总是给你讲有意的故事。
2．喜欢运动，每周锻炼四次。放学后，你们还一起打篮球。
3．喜欢听音乐，看动作片，还喜欢看新闻，因为……
4．上周末，你们去 Twn Cinema看了电影，电影很精彩，你觉得这家影院是最好的一家影院，因为它有最舒适的座位和最好的音效。
要求：1．内容必须包含以上信息，并可根据需要适当添加；
2．书写规范，条理清楚，行文连贯，段落分明；
3．词数80词左右，所给开头和结尾不计入总次数，文中请勿出现具体学校和真实姓名，否则不予评分。
Hell, everyne! I’m glad t intrduce my best friend Jeff t yu.
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
That’s all. Thank yu.
八年级英语试题参考答案
23.11
第一部分（选择题，满分65分）
一、听力选择（1～15小题，每小题1分，满分15分）
1-5．FAEHD 6-10．TTTFT 11-15．CDBEA
二、完型填空（16～25小题，每小题1分，满分10分）
16-20．DACBC 21-25．ADDCB
三、阅读理解（26～45小题，每小题2分，满分40分）
26-30．BDCDD 31-35．CDBCC 36-40．FFTTF 41-45．ABEFC
第二部分 （非选择题，满分55分）
四、听力填空题（46.50小题，每小题2分，满分10分）
46．Saturdays 47．meet my friends 48．street perfrmers
49．mst creative 50．relax
五、语法填空（51.60小题, 每小题1分，满分10分）
51．t 52．reached 53．t talk 54．hardly 55．plans
56．anything 57．t g 58．like 59．yur 60．with
六、任务型阅读（61～65小题，每小题2分，满分10分）
61．Five.
62．Because it can give yu mre calcium yur bdy needs.
63．At mst tw hurs a day.
64．多做运动是有好处的，比如打篮球、骑自行车和游泳。
65．Hw t be a healthy kid?/ The rules t be a healthy kid.
七、补全句子（66～70小题，每小题2分，满分10分）
66．nthing interesting 67．at least 68．the mst 69．up t 70．ready t
八、书面表达（共1题，满分15分）
One pssible versin:
Hell, everyne! I’m glad t intrduce my best friend Jeff t yu. He is kind and friendly. He is taller and much mre utging than me. He always tells me funny stries and makes me laugh. We are bth interested in sprts. We ften exercise fur times every week and play basketball tgether after schl. We bth enjy listening t music and watching actin mvies, they are relaxing fr us. Smetimes Jeff likes watching news because he wants t knw what’s ging n arund the wrld.
Last weekend, we watched an actin mvie in Twn Cinema. It was s wnderful. I think Twn Cinema is the best mvie theater. It has the mst cmfrtable seats and the best sund.
That’s all. Thank yu.New Student Talent Shw
Can yu sing r dance? Are yu gd at playing the guitar? D yu want t shw yur talents t yur new schlmates? If s, dn’t miss the New Student Talent Shw! It shws the talents f new students.
7: 30 p. m.-10: 00 p. m. Friday, Nvember 18th,2022
All kinds f perfrmers such as singers, dancers, strytellers, magicians are welcme!
Auditin（试演）
New students wh want t auditin fr the shw can:
·Submit（提供） avidetgetcnnected@byui.edubefreNvember 12th.
·Jin the talent shw auditins n Mnday, Nvember 14th, 9: 00A．m.-2: 30p. m. in the Manwaring Center
Prize
·1st prize a guitar
·2nd prize a tape player
·3rd prize a cup
Fundraiser（募捐活动）
Every perfrmer needs t pay 2 dllars t jin the shw. And there will be a fundraiser during the talent shw. All the mney will be used t buy bks, pens, schl bags and sme ther schl things fr the students in the cuntryside. If yu have any questins abut the shw, write an e- mail t get cnnected@ byui edu r call the Student Supprt Office at 496-1420.
A．The first cartn mvie （ in 1906） was abut faces.
B．They smiled and a small dg jumped thrugh a ring.
C．Maybe they will be ppular fr many mre years in the future.
D．Sme peple think cartns are just fr kids and dn’t mind them.
E．Sme f his earliest mvies were abut a famus stry, Alice in Wnderland.
F．A Mickey Muse mvie was the first cartn mvie with sund t get really ppular.
G．Chinese cartns shw ur traditinal culture, like ink painting and paper cutting.
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