2023-2024学年黑龙江省齐齐哈尔市讷河市七年级（上）期末英语试卷

这是一份2023-2024学年黑龙江省齐齐哈尔市讷河市七年级（上）期末英语试卷，共8页。试卷主要包含了考试时间 90分钟，全卷共六道大题，总分120分， B，  B．$30等内容，欢迎下载使用。
考生注意：
本考场试卷序号
（由监考填写）
1.考试时间 90分钟。
2.全卷共六道大题，总分120分。

第一部分 听力部分（共计20分）
第一部分 听句子，选出与之相符的图片。每句话读两遍。


A B C D E
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
第二部分 听句子，选择恰当的应答语。每句话读两遍。
听对话，选择正确答案。对话读两遍。
听下面短对话，完成第11-12小题。
( )11．Where is Eric nw?
A. In the library. B. In the classrm. C. In the art rm.
( )12．What’s Eric’s phne number?
A. 013-5528. B. 301-2285. C. 301-5528.
听下面较长对话，完成第13-15小题。
( )13．What des Ted have?
A．A jacket B．A T-shirt. C．A sweater.
( )14．Wh buys it fr Ted?
A．His father. B．His mther. C．His brther.
( )15．Hw much is the sweater?
A. $13. B．$30. C．$33.
第四部分 听短文，完成表格。短文读两遍。
第二部分 语言知识运用（共计35分）
( )21. There is____ "u" and____ "s" in the wrd "us".
A. an, aB. an. anC. a, an
( )22.—Tm, is this ____ pencil ?
—N, it isn't. ____ is in the pencil bx.
A. yur; Mine B. yurs; Mine C. yur; My
( )23. ____ is my family pht and ____ are my parents.
A. This; thse B. These; that C. That; this
( )24.—Have sme____, please. — N, thanks. I'm nt thirsty at all.
A. ranges B. water C. cakes
( )25.—Let's____ sme fd fr Simn's birthday dinner.
—OK. Hw abut chicken and salad ?
A. think abut B. lk at C. cme t
( )26. ____ is yur favrite day f the week ?—Friday. We have P.E. and music n Friday.
A.When B. Hw C. What
( )27.—Des yur brther have tennis balls ? — ____ . He plays baseball.
A.Yes, he des B. N, he desn't C. Yes, it is
( )28. This is_____ mther. She's frm China.
A. Jim’s and Jill B. Jim and Jill's C. Jim’s and Jill's
( )29. Dave and I are_____, and we're in_____ class.
A. twelfth; same B. twelfth; the sameC. twelve; the same
( )30.—Happy New Year, Li Lei ! — ____ .
A. Thank yu ! B. The same t yu !C. The same as yu !
My name is Dianna. I'm a middle schl student. Dave is my uncle, my father's 31 . He's an art teacher in my schl. He's a gd teacher and he can draw(画画) 32 .Our schl isn't big, but Dave likes it. He gets up (起床) at 6:00 in the mrning.Then he 33 sme sprts. I think it’s a (n) 34 habit. After finishing playing sprts, he 35 breakfast at abut 7:20 a.m. Then he ges t schl at 7:40 a.m.
What des Dave d at schl? He has three r fur 36 lessns every schl day. He's very 37 at schl. He has lunch at 12:00. He likes chicken and carrts fr 38 .He ges hme (家) at abut 5:30 p.m. After ne 39 ，at abut 6:30 p.m., he has dinner at hme. He 40 his sns and daughters very much. He always has a gd time with them after dinner. Dave really likes his life(生活).
( ) 31.A. father B. brther C. cusin
( ) 32. A. really B. nly C. well
( ) 33.A. plays B. watches C. knws
( ) 34. A. interestingB. easy C. healthy
( ) 35.A. sells B. eats C. asks
( ) 36.A.art B. music C. histry
( ) 37. A. fine B. busy C. free
( ) 38. A. dinner B. lunch C. class
( ) 39. A. time B. day C. hur
( ) 40.A.thinks B. finds C. lves
(A) 根据所给对话从A至F中选择最佳回应。将选项填到相应的题号右面横线上，每个选项只能用一次。
A: Can I help yu?
B: Yes, please. (41) ________
A: Well, what clr d yu like ?
B: I like black.
A: OK. (42) ________Please lk at it.
B: Oh, it’s t lng fr me. I want a shrt ne.
A: Please cme here. (43) ________
B: Great! It’s nice. Hw much is it?
A: (44)________
B: Ten dllars? Great! (45) ________
A: Here yu are.
B: Thank yu.
( B ) 用适当的词或句子补全对话。
A: Hey, Mike! (46)______________________________?
B: Yes, I d. English is my favrite subject. What abut yu? D yu like it？
A: N, I dn’t.
B: (47)______________________________?
A: My favrite subject is histry.
B: (48)______________________________? It’s bring.
A: Well, I think it’s interesting and relaxing.
B: I see. (49)______________________________?
A: On Mnday and Wednesday.
B: (50)_______________________________?
A: Ms. Jnes. And she’s my favrite teacher.
第三部分 阅读理解(共计50分)
( A )
( )51. In English, the given names cme first and the family names cme last. Family names are als called last names. Westerners (西方人) get their family names in different ways.
( )52. Sme family names such as Smith, Ck and Taylr are all abut a persn's jb. Fr example, Jhn Smith, here "Smith" means the name f a jb as well as Ck, Miller and Fisher.
( )53. Sme westerners get their family names frm their living places such as Bush,Cliff and Lake. S des a famus American writer Jack Lndn.
( )54. Sme family names are frm clrs. Fr example, the family names Black means“布 莱克”and White means“怀特”. Larry Brwn—a famus basketball player in America als gets his family name frm clrs.
( )55. Other family names are frm the name f a parent. Fr example,"David's sn" becmes Davidsn, and "Peter's sn"becmes Petersn.
为每一段选择合适的标题，其中有2个多余选项。
A. Name accrding t(依据)clrs
B. Name accrding t the living places
C. Name accrding t their parents’ names
D. Name accrding t famus writers
E. Name in different ways
F. Interesting names
G. Name accrding t jbs

( B )
Dave is a 12-year-ld by. There are three peple in his family: his father, mther and he. They are in Shanghai. Dave likes blue. Lk, his jacket and backpack are blue. He is in Class 3. 22 bys and 18 girls are in his class. His gd friends Liu Kun and Li Lei are in Class 3, t. Miss Wang is their math teacher. She is a gd teacher. Her classes are interesting. Math is nt difficult fr them!
Dave likes playing cmputer games, but he desn’t play them every day. He plays sprts every day. It is gd fr his health.
根据短文内容判断下列句子正（T）误（F）。
( )56. Dave plays cmputer games every day .
( )57. His parents are in Beijing nw.
( )58. His favrite clr is blue.
( )59. There are 41 students in his class.
( )60. Mr. Wang is their math teacher.
( C )
根据表格信息，选出最佳选项。
( )61. When is Rebecca's party?
A. March 1. B. April 4. C. May 1.
( )62. If yu want t g t Daniel's party, yu can call ____.
A.032 —767539 B.032 —795864C. 020— 512301
( ) 63. Andrew's party is ____ hurs.
A. tw B. three C. fur
( )64.Whse (谁的) party has dancing?
A. Daniel's. B. Amy's. C. Andrew's.
( ) 65. Which is TRUE?
A. Daniel has a swimming party.
B. Amy's party is in the afternn.
C. Rebecca's party is at Victria Park.
( D )
根据短文内容,用方框中所给词的正确形式填空,使短文完整、正确。
Hi, I'm Sally. I like milk and (66) ________ (bread). I ften have them in the mrning. I dn't like (67) ________(egg), althugh (虽然)I knw they are gd fr me. Oh, I like fruit (68) ________(salad),t. I always have apples, bananas and (69) ________(strawberry) in it, but dn't like (70) ________(pear) in it. My brther is different(不同的)frm me. He (71) ________(like) ice-cream and(72) ________(hamburger), but he (73) ________(nt like) chicken. What abut(74)________(vegetable)? Well, (75)________(tmat) and carrts are ur favrites.
( E )
Hell, I'm Sally. I'm a student in Class Fur in Zhihui Middle Schl. 22 students are in my class, and 14 f them are bys.
This is my classrm. Cme and see. This yellw desk is①______(my). Yu can see my English bks n my desk. I lve English.
English is really easy and interesting fr me. What's this n my chair? It's a schlbag. My pencil bx, baseballs and dictinary are in the schlbag. There's a tennis ball under my chair. I like sprts, and tennis is my favrite. I like playing it ②______ my friends after schl.
That desk is Bnnie's. Yu can find an apple and tw ranges n her desk. Bnnie is a fat girl. She wants t be slim(苗条的)and healthy. S she nly eats vegetables and fruit fr lunch these days. Besides(除了) eating well, Bnnie plays sprts every day. She lves vlleyball, and she can play it well.
根据短文内容,完成下列任务。
76. 请分别写出①、②处所缺的单词。①_____ ②_____
77. 从短文中找出与下面句子意思相近的句子。
I think English is easy and fun.

78. 把文中划线句子翻译成汉语。

79. 简要回答下列问题。
Hw many girls are there in Sally's class?

80. What des Bnnie d t be slim?

第四部分 书面表达 (共计15分)
A. Write a passage accrding t the infrmatin given.(30--50词)
假如你是七年级二班的Jack，你在学校里丢失了一个黑色书包和一双白色运动鞋，书包里有一本字典和一串钥匙。请你写一则寻物启事，你的电话是8215678。（30-50词）。
Lst
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________Thank yu !
B. Write a passage accrding t the title given.(不少于60词)
根据表格提示，以“My best friend”为题写一篇短文，介绍一下你最好的朋友林梅。
要求：1.字迹工整，语言流畅，表达准确，逻辑清晰。2.文章可以适当发挥。
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________题 号
I
II
III
IV
V
VI
总分
核分人
得 分
得 分
评卷人
= 1 \* ROMAN \* MERGEFORMAT I. 听力（本题共20分，每小题1分 ）
()6. A.I’m OK.
B.I’m nine.
C.I’m a student.
()7. A.Yes, I d.
B.N, he isn’t.
C.Yes, he des.
()8. A.Here yu are.
B.Sunds gd.
C.It’s under the table.
()9. A.On Friday.
B.In Rm 501.
C.It’s cl.
()10.A. A jacket.
B.Basketball.
C.Salad.
Abut Jhn
Age
12 years ld.
Birthday
On (16) ____________ 22nd
Schl
In Sunshine Middle Schl in China
Frm Mnday t Friday
He is very (17) ____________. He has breakfast at (18) __________ and ges t schl at 7:30.
Favrite Subject
(19) ___________.
On Saturday and Sunday.
He plays ball games. He likes t (20) ___________ sccer game.
得 分
评卷人
= 2 \* ROMAN II. 单项选择（本题共10分，每小题1分）
根据句意从A、B、C中选择最佳选项。
得 分
评卷人
= 3 \* ROMAN III. 完形填空 (本题共10分，每小题1分）
得 分
评卷人
IV. 情景交际（本题共15分，(A)每小题1分,(B)每小题2分）
A. What d yu want t buy?
B. I need a skirt.
C. Hw abut this ne?
D. Ten dllars.
E. I will take it.
F. Here is a black ne.
得 分
评卷人
= 4 \* ROMAN V. 阅读理解（本题共50分，每小题2分）
Please cme t Rebecca's party.
Sunday, March 1
Frm 3:30 p.m, until (直到) 5:30 p.m.
At Rebecca's huse
Call 032— 767539
Daniel invites (邀请) yu t cme t Daniel's swimming party !
It's n Saturday, April 4, at 2:15 p.m.
Call Daniel at 020— 512301.
Wuld yu like t cme t Andrew's party ?
It's n Friday, May 1, at Victria Park, frm 10:00 a.m. until 2:00 p.m.
Fun, fd and ftball!
TEL: 032 —795864
E-mail:andrew@fgcl.cm
Can yu cme t Amy's party?
Place:33, Albert Street
Time: frm 8:00 p.m. until late n August 4 Party, fd, games and dancing.
TEL: 020— 875645
E-mail:amy.timms@warldnet.cm
得 分
评卷人
= 5 \* ROMAN VI.书面表达 （本题共15分,其中A题5分，B题10分）
(注意：文中不准出现考生真实姓名、校名和老师名，否则不赋分)
Age
15
Date f birth
8月26日
Eating habits
喜欢苹果、鸡蛋、牛奶，它们很健康
Favrite subjects
英语、音乐，它们有趣。
Dislike(s)
favrite teacher
张老师，非常幽默风趣
After-schl activities
和朋友们踢足球、打篮球等
2023－2024学年度上学期期末教学质量测查
七年级英语试卷参考答案及评分说明
第一部分 听力部分（共计20分）
= 1 \* ROMAN I. 听力（本题共20分,每小题1分）
第一部分 1— 5 CEABD
第二部分 6—10 ABBAC
第三部分 11—15 ACCAB
第四部分 16.January 17.busy 18.7:00/seven 19. P.E. 20.watch
语言知识运用（共计35分）
= 2 \* ROMAN II. 单项选择（本题共10分,每小题1分）
21—25 CAABA 26—30 CBBCB
= 3 \* ROMAN III. 完形填空（本题共10分，每小题1分）
31—35 BCACB 36—40ABBCC
IV. 情景交际（本题共15分）
(A) 41—45 BFCDE
(B) 46. D yu like English?
47. What’s yur favrite subject?
48. Why d yu like it?
49. When is it?/ When d yu have it?
50. Wh is yur favrite teacher?
注：只要学生答案符合语境，教师即可酌情赋分。
第三部分 阅读理解 (共计50分)
V. 阅读理解（本题共50分，每小题2分）
（A）51—55 EGBAC
( B ) 56— 60 FFTFF
( C ) 61— 65ACCBA
( D) 66. bread 67.eggs 68. salad 69. strawberries 70. pears
71. likes 72. hamburgers 73. desn't like/dislikes 74. vegetables 75. tmates
( E)
76. ①mine ②with
77. English is really easy and interesting fr me.
78. 所以这些天她午餐只吃蔬菜和水果。
79. Eight / 8.
80. She eats well and play sprts every day.

第四部分 书面表达 (共计15分)
VI. 书面表达（本题共15分）
（本题共5分）
评分要求：切合题意，表达清楚，语言准确，无语法及单词错误，表达出关键点即可赋分。若出现语法、时态或拼写错误，2处扣一分。
(B)（本题共10分）
评分要求：
根据学生所写的内容和语言表达，初步断定其所属档次，然后赋分。不足80词的，从本题总分中扣1分；书写较差，格式、标点符号错误较多，以致影响阅卷的，降低一个档次。每档次赋分范围和要求如下：
第一档：（7—10分）
完成了试题的内容，覆盖所有题意要求；应用了较多的语法结构和词汇，基本没有语法和词汇错误；具有较强的语言表达能力；格式和标点规范，符合英语的表达习惯；行文连贯，表达清晰明了，可读性强，完全达到了预期的写作目的。
第二档：（4—6分）
符合题意要求；应用的语法结构和词汇基本准确，并能满足题目的要求，虽有一些语法和词汇错误，但不影响理解；达到了预期写作的目的，可读性较好。
第三档：（1—3分）
未恰当或未完成试题规定的内容，漏掉或未描述清楚主要内容，写了一些无关的内容；有较多语法和词汇错误，影响了对写作内容的理解，信息未能清楚地表达出来。
第四档：（0分）
未能传达任何有关写作信息，写的内容均与所要求的内容无关或写的内容无法辨认。