广西贵港市桂平市2022-2023学年七年级下学期期末英语试题

这是一份广西贵港市桂平市2022-2023学年七年级下学期期末英语试题，共12页。试卷主要包含了听力，单项选择，补全对话，完形填空，阅读理解，综合填空，书面表达等内容，欢迎下载使用。
(考试时间: 120分钟, 满分: 120分)
一、听力(共30小题，每小题1分，共30分)
(一) 听句子，选图片。
你将听到五个句子，请选出与所听句子内容相符的图片，有一幅图是多余的。每个句子读两遍。
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
(二) 听短对话，选择最佳答案。
你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，请根据对话内容，选出最佳答案。每段对话读两遍。
6. Where is the new library?
A. Next t a bkstre. B. Behind a bkstre. C. In frnt f a bkstre.
7. What time des Linda usually g t bed?
A. At 8:45. B. At 9:00. C. At 9:15.
8. What is Richard gd at?
A. Playing the pian. B. Playing the guitar. C. Playing the vilin.
9. Hw's the weather tday?
A. Sunny and warm. B. Windy and cld. C. Windy and warm.
10. Hw was the by's schl trip?
A. Great. B. Bring. C. Interesting.
(三) 听长对话，选择最佳答案。
你将听到三段对话，请根据对话内容，选出每个问题的最佳答案。每段对话读两遍。请听第一段对话，回答第11至 13 小题。
11. What des Jenny think f dancing?
A. It's relaxing. B. It's bring. C. It's difficult.
12. What des the by lve?
A. Playing chess. B. Watching tennis games. C. Playing tennis.
13. Where are the tw speakers ging?
A. T the sprts center. B. T the by's hme. C. T the schl.
请听第二段对话，回答第 14 至 16 小题。
14. What wuld the man like t buy?
A. A bird. B. A skirt. C. A T- shirt.
15. What size des the man's mther take?
A. Size L. B. Size S. C. Size M.
16. Hw much will the man pay fr it?
A. 60 yuan. B. 80 yuan. C. 160 yuan.
请听第三段对话，回答第17至20小题。
17. Where are Alice and Jack talking?
A. In the library. B. On the phne. C. At Alice's hme.
18. What is Jenny ding?
A. She is having a party.
B. She is talking n the phne.
C. She is reading in the library.
19. Why des Alice make the phne call?
A. She wants t ask Jack fr help.
B. She wants t knw what Jenny is ding.
C. She wants t ask Jenny t g t her birthday party.
20. What time is the party?
A. At 4:30. B. At 5:00. C. At 8:30.
(四) 听短文，选择最佳答案。
你将听到一篇短文，请根据短文内容，选出每个问题的最佳答案。短文读两遍。
21. What day was that day?
A. Children's Day. B. Wmen's Day. C. Father's Day.
22. Hw many peple are there in the Jnes’ family?
A. Three. B. Fur. C. Five.
23. Hw did the family g t the cuntryside?
A. By bus. B. By train. C. By car.
24. Hw lng did it take the family t get there?
A. Abut tw hurs. B. Abut three hurs. C. Abut fur hurs.
25. What did the children d there?
A. They played sccer. B. They tk phts. C. They went fishing.
(五) 听短文，填信息。
二、单项选择 (共10小题，每小题1分，共10分)
从下列各小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出最佳选项。
31.— Can yu g t the z tmrrw?
— Oh, I'm nt sure .
A. nly B. yet C. t
32.— yu tired after running fr ten minutes?
—— N. I feel tired at all.
A. Did; didn't B. Were; didn't C. Were; wasn't
33. Anna is having a great time her grandparents.
A. visit B. visits C. visiting
34.— is it frm yur hme t yur hspital?
— Only 10 minutes’ bus.
A. Hw lng B. Hw much C. Hw far
35. I want t buy the red T- shirt because I think it can gd luck t me.
A. take B. bring C. buy
36. She is my favrite and I like all f her mvies.
A. actress B. actr C. artist
37. Dn't s ften. It's bad fr yur health.
A. get up B. cut up C. stay up
38.— D yu knw Liu Genghng?
— Sure. He is getting n Tik Tk(抖音) these days.
A. surprised B. ppular C. interesting
39. — Mary, is there a bank near here?
— Yes, it's acrss the pst ffice.
A. frm B. next C. behind
40.— ?
— Yes, I’d like sme ndles.
A. What wuld yu like B. What d yu d C. May I take yur rder
三、补全对话(共5小题，每小题1分，共5分)
根据对话内容，从下面方框中选出恰当的句子补全对话，有一个选项是多余的。
A. I will take the bus.
A: Hell? This is Kate.
B: Hi, Kate. It's Lily. 41
A: I'm swimming in the swimming club. B. My hme is nt far frm there.
B: 42 C. When d yu usually g there?
A: My cusin Lisa. D. What are yu ding nw?
B: Tmrrw is Sunday. Are yu free tmrrw? 43 E. Let's g t the shpping center.
A: Sunds gd. Hw will yu g there? F. Wh are yu swimming with?
B: 44 What abut yu?
A:I will walk. 45
B: Well. Let's meet in frnt f the center at 9: 00 am.
A: OK. See yu tmrrw.
B: See yu then.你将听到一篇短文，请根据短文内容，将所缺信息填入答题卡对应的横线上，每空一词。短文读三遍。 Rbert
Age
(26) ___________ years ld.
Appearance (外貌)
He has shrt curly (27) ___________ hair.
Hbby
He can play the drums. He wants t be a(28)_________ in the future.
Favrite singer
David Bwie plays the guitar and (29) ___________ very well. He wears (30) ___________
四、完形填空(共10小题，每小题1分，共10分)
阅读下面语篇，从各小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出最佳选项。
Krc was frm a pr (穷) family. He wrked in 46 restaurant t make sme mney after schl. The bss(老板) asked him 47 the tables. He had t clean tw 48 tables every day. Krc felt s bred. One day Krc 49 hme late. After dinner, Krc said t his father, “I dn't want t g t the restaurant tmrrw. I dn't want t clean the tables 50 wash dishes every day. I want t be a bss.”
His father didn't say anything. He let Krc clean the table. Krc cleaned it quickly. Then his father wiped (擦) the table 51 a white clth (布) and the clth gt very dirty. His father tld his sn.“ It's 52 fr yu t clean a table, but yu can't clean it very well. 53 can yu be the bss?” Krc's face gt red. He 54 frgt his father's wrds. After that, he used five clths each time t clean the tables. The bss liked him and made him the new bss f the restaurant. Ten years later, Krc pened 55 first restaurant cmpany(公司) —McDnald’s.
46. A. a B./ C. the
47. A. clean B. cleans C. t clean
48. A. hundred B. hundreds C. hundreds f
49. A. get t B. gets C. gt
50. A. and B. r C. but
51. A. by B. n C. with
52. A. easy B. easily C. mre easily
53. A. What B. Hw C. When
54. A. ften B. never C. smetimes
55. A. him B. he C. his
五、阅读理解(共20小题, 第56—60小题, 每小题1分; 第61—75 小题, 每小题2分, 共35分)
A
Tday is Sally's mther's birthday. Sally wanted t buy a gift fr her mther, but she didn't knw what t buy. After lunch, she went shpping. In a stre, she saw a beautiful blue umbrella (雨伞). She thught her mther wuld lve this gift. She bught it and tk a bus t g hme. But when she gt ff the bus, she left the umbrella n her seat. She came hme sadly (伤心地). Her mther asked the reasn(原因). Sally tld her mther she lst the birthday gift. Mther said,“ It desn’t matter. Yu are the best gift.”
根据语篇内容，判断下列句子正误，正确的在答题卡上填“T”，错误的在答题卡上填“F”。
56. Tday is Sally's birthday.
57. Sally bught a blue umbrella.
58. Sally went hme by bus.
59. Sally left the keys n the seat.
60. Sally's mther thinks Sally is the best gift.
B
T help students t get int a gd reading habit, N. 6 Middle Schl pens a reading club -- Read fr Fun. Here are sme rules fr students t bey(遵守).
N running!
Running helps yu keep healthy, but Read fr Fun is nt a sprts club. It's a club fr bk lvers. S, d nt run in it.
N ? !
It's OK fr yu t talk abut bks with friends r classmates in the club, but d nt make much nise(噪音). N ne likes t read in nisy places.
N littering(扔垃圾)!
T make sure that every bk lver can enjy reading in the club, yu need t keep the club clean and tidy. D nt litter everywhere.
N fd!
The sund f eating and the smell f fd will affect (影响) thers' learning, s please dn't bring fd int the club.
根据语篇内容，选择最佳选项。
61. Read fr Fun is fr students t .
A. make friends B. read mre bks C. talk abut rules
62. There are rules mentined in the passage.
A. tw B. three C. fur
63. Which(哪一个) can be put in“ ? ”.
A. shuting B. talking C. playing
64. In the club, students can .
A. have sme fd B. leave litter n the desk C. talk abut bks with thers
65. Students can't bring fd t the club because .
A. they wuld affect thers
B. there is fd in the club
C. there is a teacher watching yu
C
Fur students frm different cuntries are camping and they are talking abut the weather. Let's listen t them!
Tiffany: It's cl and sunny mst f the time in ur cuntry. I live in Beijing, a beautiful city. It's summer nw. It is a little ht, but I still feel gd.
Llita: I live in Mscw. It's usually wind y there. It makes me feel bad. I dn't like that.
Ben:I live in the nrth f Canada. It's very cld in winter, s we wear warm clthes. Many peple like snwy weather because they can make snwmen and Canada is beautiful.
Jeff: I cme frm Australia. I never see a snwy day. It's very ht mst f the time in ur cuntry. And in winter it's nt very cld. Many peple like t cme t my cuntry fr their vacatin.
根据语篇内容，选择最佳选项。
66. It can be in Beijing nw.
A. March B. July C. December
67. Wh desn't like the weather f his/ her cuntry?
A. Jeff. B. Ben. C. Llita.
68. Jeff never sees a day in Australia.
A. snwy B. rainy C. windy
69. What can we learn frm the passage?
A. Tiffany cmes frm Australia.
B. Ben lives in the suth f Canada.
C. Many peple like t g t Jeff's cuntry fr their vacatin.
70. What is the passage mainly(主要的) abut?
A. Different habits. B. Different cuntries. C. The weather in different cuntries.
D
Mr. Smith is frm New Yrk. He came t China in 2013. He teaches us English. His English classes are very interesting. We all like his classes very much.
Mr. Smith has tw children-- Sctt and Catherine. Sctt is 16 and his sister is 12. They are in China, t. And they can d a lt f things. Fr Sctt, he likes music, especially (尤其) hip- hp(说唱音乐). He is at the music club in his schl. He is als at Chinese kung fu club, because he likes China and Chinese kung fu very much. Fr Catherine, she is a quiet(内向) girl. She likes music t, but her favrite music is pp music. And she is gd at writing. She wants t be a writer, s Mr. Smith teaches her t write. She learns a lt frm Mr. Smith. Mr. Smith says he is very happy t have these tw children. He is prud f them.
根据语篇内容，选择最佳选项。
71. Mr. Smith is .
A. an English teacher B. a writer C. a singer
72. Mr. Smith is in China fr abut years.
A. eight B. ten C. six
73. Catherine is gd at .
A. writing B. hip- hp C. Chinese kung fu
74. The secnd paragraph(段) is mainly abut .
A. What Mr. Smith can d B. What Mr. Smith likes C. What Sctt and Catherine can d
75. The underlined wrd“ prud” means“ ” in Chinese.
A. 失望的 B.骄傲的 C. 开心的
六、综合填空 (共15小题，每小题1分，共15分)
(一) 单词拼写(每小题1分，共10分)
根据题目所给的首字母或中文提示，正确拼写单词，并将答案填写在答题卡对应的横线上。
76. G alng the street and when yu see the bank, turn r .
77. Tigers, elephants and lins are all my favrite a .
78. Ann a is thin nw, but she was really h five years ag.
79. Lk! My grandmther is c delicius fd fr ur family in the kitchen.
80. Mary is an e girl. She des well in all her lessns.
81. Fr villagers, the bridge is the nly way t the utside (世界).
82. Yesterday mrning, Lisa’s father (弄醒) her up at 6:00.
83. There is a very big river (介于……之间) their schl and the village.84. Nw sme elephants are in great danger. We must (救助) them.
85. In the (结尾). We finished ur wrk n time.
(二) 选词填空(共5小题，每小题1分，共5分)
根据语篇内容，从方框中选择恰当的单词，并用其正确形式填空。每个单词只能用一次。
jean thirteen say happy I
Anna is my friend. Yesterday was her 86 birthday. She had a birthday party at hme. She asked 87 t her party. Hw beautiful she lked. She wre a yellw sweater and blue 88 . Everyne gave her sme nice gifts and 89 “ Happy Birthday” t her. I gave her a bk as a gift. She was very happy. Her mther made a birthday cake fr her. We ate the cake and played games 90 , we had a great time that day.
七、书面表达(15分)
假如你是李华,代表班级推荐你的同学 Helen参加学校“最佳学生奖”( the Best Student Award)评选。请根据以下提示内容，给校长写一篇英语推荐信。
要求：1. 必须包含以下所给要点，可适当增加细节，以使行文连贯，内容充实；
2.文中不能出现真实姓名和校名；
3.词数：80词左右(开头和结尾已给出，不计入总词数)。
参考词汇: recmmend 推荐, utging开朗, helpful 乐于助人
Dear Headmaster,
I wuld like t recmmend Helen fr the Best Student Award.
We all think Helen shuld get the award. If she gets the award, we will be very happy.
Yurs,
Li Hua
2023 年春季期七年级英语期末教学质量检测
请把试卷上选择题的答案填入下列答题表中
26. 27. 28. 29. 30.
六、综合填空 (共15小题，每小题1分，共15分)
(一) 单词拼写
76. 82. 80. 84. 84.
77. 79. 81. 83. 85.
(二) 选词填空
86. 87. 88. 90. 88.
七年级英语参考答案及评分标准
一、听力（每小题1分，共30分）
（一）1—5 FCEDB
（二）6—10BAACB
（三）11—13 CBA 14—16 BAB17—20 BCCA
（四）21—25 ABCCB
（五）26. Furteen / 14 27. brwn 28. musician 29. sings 30. glasses
二、单项选择（每小题1分，共10分）
31—35 BBCCB36—40 ACBAC
三、补全对话（每小题1分，共5分）
41—45 DFEAB
四、完形填空（每小题1分，共10分）
46—50 ACACB 51—55 CABBC
五、阅读理解（第56—60小题，每小题1分；第61—75小题，每小题2分，共35分）
56—60 FTTFT 61—65 BCACA
66—70 BCACC 71—75 ABACB
六、综合填空（每小题1分，共15分）
（一）单词拼写
76. right77. animals78. heavy79. cking80. excellent
81. wrld 82. wke83. between 84. save85. end
（二）选词填空
86. thirteenth / 13th 87. me88. jeans 89. said90. happily
七、书面表达（15分）One pssible versin:
Dear Headmaster，
I wuld like t recmmend Helen fr the Best Student Award.
Helen is f medium height and thin. She has a rund face and lng hair. She is very friendly and kind. She is als utging and helpful. She studies very hard. She likes sprts and reading. She lves family and life. She gets n well with classmates, t.
Helen ften helps thers. She went t the ld peple’s hme last week. She helped the ld peple clean up and tld them stries.
We all think Helen shuld get the award. If she gets the award, we will be very happy．
Yurs，
Li Hua
评分标准
一、听力测试（26—30小题）、综合填空（76—90小题）
按参考答案评分，每小题单词拼写完全正确才得分，形式不对（含大小写错误）不予评分。
二、书面表达
（一）评分原则
1.本题满分为15分，不设小数点以下分值。评卷员熟悉各档次作文评分细则（第5档13-15分；第4档10-12分；第3档7-9分：第2档4-6分；第1档1-3分)。（见下表）。
2.本题具有一定的开放性，考生可以根据要点紧扣主题适当发挥，但必须涵盖所有要点内容。
3.评分时，先根据考生的书面表达内容及语言表达情况，初步确定其所属档次，然后根据该档次的要求衡量、确定或调整档次，最后评分。相同的错误不重复计算；单词拼写错误四个以上扣0.5分，全文最多扣2分；字数少于60词扣1分。
4.如书写较差以至影响交际，将其分数扣分1分。
5.对于抄袭试卷内容情况的处理：完全抄袭试卷内容，赋分0分；若抄袭内容是根据主题巧妙增删后写进作文的，则参照评分标准给分。
6.文中若透露个人信息，一律不予评分。
五级写作评分标准
（二）具体评分建议（满分15分）
时态：一般现在时为主，举例用一般过去时
人称：第三人称为主
覆盖所有内容要点（要点应有适当拓展）：结构清晰，要点齐全：
每个要点及补充的各1分，共14分。
注：字数和书写（1分），如果书写过差，影响评卷，或字数不到60词，则各扣1分。
2023年春季期期末教学质量检测七年级英语听力录音材料
一、听力。（一）听句子，选图片。你将听到五个句子，请选出与所听句子内容相符的图片，有一幅图是多余的。每个句子读两遍。
1. Cindy milked the cw n the farm last weekend.
2. These dumplings taste really delicius.
3. My family went t the beach n vacatin in summer.
4. The birthday persn usually makes a wish n the birthday.
5. Lk！A little by is riding a hrse by the river.
（二）听短对话，选择最佳答案。你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，请根据对话内容，选出最佳答案。每段对话读两遍。
6. W: Excuse me, can yu tell me the way t the new library?
M: Yes, g alng this rad and yu will find a bkstre. It’s behind the bkstre.
7. M: Linda, what time d yu usually g t bed?
W: l usually g t bed at a quarter t nine.
W: Wh is the man in the picture, Dave?
M: He is Richard, a great musician. He plays the pian very well.
M: It’s warm and windy tday. Shall we fly kites in the park?
W: It’s a gd idea.
10. W: Eric, did yu have a gd time n yur schl trip?
M: Oh, n. I never had fun.
（三）听长对话，选择最佳答案。你将听到三段对话，请根据对话内容，选出每个问题的最佳答案。每段对话读两遍。
请听第一段对话，回答第11至13小题。
M: Hi, Jenny. Let’s g dancing.
W: Srry, I can’t dance. It’s difficult fr me. Hw abut playing chess?
M: Oh, it’s bring. I dn’t like it.
W: Well, d yu like tennis?
M: Yes, I d. But I dn’t play it. I lve watching the game.
W: OK. Let’s g and watch the game at the sprts center.
M: Sunds gd. Let’s g.
请听第二段对话，回答第14至16小题。
W: What can I d fr yu?
M: I’d like t buy a skirt fr my mum.
W: What clr des she like?
M: Purple.
W: All right. And what size?
M: Large.
W: What abut this ne?
M: It lks nice. Hw much is it?
W: It’s 160 yuan , but it’s n sale tday. Everything is half price in this shp,
M: OK. I’ll take it.
请听第三段对话，回答第17至20小题。
M: Hell. This is Jack speaking.
W: Hell, Jack. This is Alice. Is yur sister, Jenny, there?
M: N, she’s nt at hme. She’s reading in the library.
W: When will she cme back?
M: I’m nt sure. Can I take a message fr her?
W: Sure. This Sunday is my birthday. I want t ask her t cme.
M: OK. Where is the party?
W: At my hme at 4:30 n Sunday afternn.
M: All right. I’ll tell her.
W: Thanks. Bye.
M: Bye.
（四）听短文，选择最佳答案。你将听到一篇短文，请根据短文内容，选出每个问题的最佳答案。短文读两遍。
It was Children’s Day. Mr. and Mrs. Jnes bught their children, Tny and Lisa, sme nice gifts. They tk their children fr a trip, t. Mr. Je drve them t the cuntryside by car. It’s far frm their hme. It tk them abut fur hurs t get there. The cuntryside was very beautiful. The air was very clean. The children saw many nice flwers and tall trees. They sang and danced happily. They tk lts f beautiful phts, t. The Jnes had a gd time there.
（五）听短文，填信息。你将听到一篇短文，请根据短文内容，将所缺信息填入答题卡对应的横线上，每空一词。短文读三遍。
Hell! My name is Rbert. I am a furteen-year-ld by with shrt curly brwn hair. I can play the drums. I want t be a musician in the future. My favrite rck singer is David Bwie. He plays the guitar and sings very well. He’s f medium height. He wears glasses. I think he is very handsme.
What d yu lk like? Are yu tall? Is yur hair lng r shrt? D yu wear glasses? Wh is yur favrite singer? Write sn and tell me abut yurself.姓名
Helen
外貌
……(身高、身材、头发等)
性格
友善， 开朗， 乐于助人， 与同学相处融洽
能力和爱好
学习刻苦， 喜欢运动， 热爱家人和生活
事例
上周， 去了敬老院…… (至少举一件事)。
……
……
题目
一
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五
六
七
总分
得分








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题号
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25
26-30小题答案请填写在表格下相应横线上
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题号
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档次
分数
评分标准
第五档
13～15分
很好地完成了规定的写作任务。包含所有内容要点，结构完整，语句流畅，意思清楚、连贯。使用较为丰富的语法结构和词汇，语法和词汇错误极少（没有或仅有1处语法错误），格式正确，书写规范。
第四档
10～12分
较好地完成了规定的写作任务。基本上包含所有内容要点，结构较完整，语句完整，意思清楚。语法结构和词汇错误较少（有2～3处语法错误），格式基本正确，书写较为规范。
第三档
7～9分
基本上完成了规定的写作任务。包含主要内容要点，结构欠完整，少数语句不通顺，意思基本清楚。语法结构和词汇错误较多（有4～5处语法错误），格式基本正确，书写基本规范。
第二档
4～6分
未能按要求完成规定的写作任务。只包含少数内容要点，结构不完整，多数语句欠完整，意思不够清楚。语法结构和词汇错误较多（有6～7处语法错误），影响理解，格式不够正确，书写欠规范。
第一档
1～3分
未能按要求完成规定的写作任务。只写出个别要点，结构不完整，多数语句不完整或意思不明，语法和词汇错误很多，书写不规范。
0分
未能传达给读者任何信息。内容太少，无法评判；写的内容均与所要求内容无关或所写内容无法看清。