广西贵港市桂平市2022-2023学年七年级下学期期中考试英语试卷

这是一份广西贵港市桂平市2022-2023学年七年级下学期期中考试英语试卷，共9页。试卷主要包含了听力，单项选择，补全对话，完形填空，阅读理解，综合填空，书面表达等内容，欢迎下载使用。
(考试时间: 120分钟, 满分: 120分)
一、听力 (共30小题, 每小题1分, 共30分)
(一) 听句子，选图片。
你将听到五个句子，请选出与所听句子内容相符的图片，有一幅图是多余的。每个句子读两遍。
1. 2. 3. 5. 4.
(二) 听短对话，选择最佳答案。
你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，请根据对话内容，选出最佳答案。每段对话读两遍。
6. What time des Mike d his hmewrk?
A.8:00. B.9:00. C.9:30.
7. Where are lins frm?
A. Suth Africa. B. Australia. C. China.
8. Wh can play the guitar?
A. Helen. B. Bb. C. Tm.
9. Hw lng des it take Tny's father t g t wrk by car?
A. Abut 5 minutes. B. Abut 10 minutes. C. Abut 15 minutes.
10. What are they talking abut?
A. The schl rules. B. The animals. C. The fd.
(三) 听长对话，选择最佳答案。
你将听到三段对话，请根据对话内容，选出每个问题的最佳答案。每段对话读两遍。请听第一段对话，回答第11 至 13 小题。
11. What is Sally ding?
A. Ding her hmewrk. B. Watching TV. C. Playing the guitar.
12. What can Jhn d fr the ld peple?
A. Dance. B. Sing. C. Play the guitar.
13. Hw d they g t the ld peple's hme?
A. By bike. B. On ft. C. By bus.
请听第二段对话，回答第14 至 16 小题。
14. What time des Mike usually g t schl?
A. At 6:00. B. At 6:45. C. At 7:15.
15. Hw far is it frm Mike's hme t schl?
A. Abut ne kilmeter. B. Abut tw kilmeters. C. Abut three kilmeters.
16. Hw many schl rules d they talk abut?
A. One. B. Tw. C. Three.
请听第三段对话，回答第17至20 小题。
17. What day is it tday?
A. Saturday. B. Sunday. C. Mnday.
18. What animals des Amy like?
A. Tigers. B. Kalas. C. Pandas.
19. Hw ld is the panda?
A. One year ld. B. Tw years ld. C. Three years ld.
20. When is Amy's birthday?
A. On September 16th. B. On Octber 15th. C. On Octber 16th.
(四) 听短文，选择最佳答案。
你将听到一篇短文，请根据短文内容，选出每个问题的最佳答案。短文读两遍。
21. Where is Melissa frm?
A. The UK. B. Australia. C. The USA.
22. Where des Melissa live?
A. In her friends' hme. B. In her aunt's hme. C. In her grandparents' hme.
23. What is Melissa busy with all day?
A. Learning Chinese. B. Learning English. C. Helping students with English.
24. What des Melissa have t d in the evenıng?
A. Clean her rm. B. Watch TV. C. Play cmputer games.
25. What time des Melissa g t bed?
A. At 8:00. B. At 9:00. C. At 10:00.
(五) 听短文，填信息。
你将听到一篇短文，请根据短文内容，将所缺信息填入答题卡对应的横线上，每空一词。短文读三遍。
二、单项选择(共10小题，每小题1分，共10分)
从下列各小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出最佳选项。
31. — Let's jin the science club.

A. Cme n B. Sunds gd C. Yu, t
32.— Why d yu see the giraffes first?
-- Because are really beautiful.
A. these B. we C. they
33. This is really a stry. We all like it.
A. bring B. difficult C. funny
34. — Mary, please get up . It's late.
—OK, mum.
A. quickly B. usually C. really
35.— Jenny very well.
— That's fr sure. She is my favrite sprts star.
A. swims B. sings C. draws
36.— We must save the tigers.
— Yes. They are in great .
A.200 B. place C. danger
37. The hamburger gd. D yu want ne?
A. tastes B. sunds C. likes
38.— Where is Mr. Jacksn?
— He in the park. He there every Sunday afternn.
A. walks; walks B. walks; walking C. is walking; walks
39.— Are yu in an English club an art club?
—I'm in an English club.
A. and B. r C. s
40. Mrs. Brwn is t her students, but they still like her.
A. gd at B. busy with C. strict with
三、补全对话 (共5小题，每小题1分，共5分)
根据对话内容，从下面方框中选出恰当的句子补全对话，有一个选项是多余的。
Lucy: Hi, Tm. 41
Tm: Ycs,I am.
Lucy: Great. We have a music festival n Saturday. 42
Tm: Sure. But what can I d at the festival?
Lucy: 43 Yu can sing an English sng(歌曲). A. What abut yu?
Tm:OK. 44 B. D yu want t jin us?
Lucy: I like playing the vilin. 45 C. Yu can tell stries t them.
Tm: Really? I think classmates will like it. D. I want t play a sng at the festival.
E. Are yu free this Saturday?
F. I knw yu sing very well.
四、完形填空(共10小题，每小题1分，共10分)
阅读下面语篇，从各小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出最佳选项。
Chris is 12 years ld. He 46 in a village in England. The schl in his village is nt far 47 his hme, s Chris ften ges t schl n ft. Chris usually gets up at abut 7:00 in the mrning. It is nt 48 . S he has a quick breakfast. He ges t schl at abut 7:50. It takes 49 abut 10 minutes t 50 t schl. He gets t schl at abut 51 ' clck. Smetimes Chris rides his bike t schl. Schl starts(开始) at 8:10. His favrite subject is math. He thinks numbers are 52 .
Chris has a 53 , He hpes(希望) t g t a big city like Lndn sme day(某一天). S he can take the subway. “1 54 take the subway. It must be a lt f fun,” he says.
Can his dream 55 ?“ Sure, it can.” says Chris.
46. A. lives B. wrks C. teaches
47. A. n B. in C. frm
48. A. late B. early C. bad
49. A. he B. his C. him
50. A. take B. walk C. ride
51. A. six B. eight C. nine
52. A. interesting B. free C. bring
53. A. habit B. bridge C. dream
54. A. never B. ften C. usually
55. A. have fun B.cme true C. have time
五、阅读理解(共20小题, 第56—60小题, 每小题1分; 第61—75 小题, 每小题2分, 共35分)
A
My name is Steve. I'm American and I'm thirteen. I'm a student in N. 7 Middle Schl. I like sprts very much. I like t play ping- png and swim. But I'm nt n the schl sprts club.
Dean and Michael are my brthers. They are students, t. But we aren't in the same schl. They like music. Dean plays the guitar and the pian very well. Michael likes t sing and dance. They are n the schl art club.
We live in Lndn with ur parents nw. My mther is a music teacher and my father is a sprts teacher. My mther can play the vilin. My father can als play it well.
根据语篇内容，判断下列句子正误，正确的在答题卡上填“T”，错误的在答题卡上填“F”。
56. Steve is 13 years ld.
57. Dean is n the schl sprts club.
58. There arc 5 peple in Steve's family.
59. Michael is gd at guitar and singing.
60. Steve's father can't play the vilin.
B
Hell, my name is Rick. There are many rules in my family. On schl days, I have t get up at 6:00 in the mrning, and then I walk t schl. I have t get hme quickly after schl. I must d my hmewrk first. I can't watch TV r g ut n schl nights. I have t g t be d befre a quarter t ten. On weekends, I can watch TV until (正到)10 ' clck pm, but I have t clean my rm and wash my clthes.
My parents are very strict, but they lve me very much, t. They play sprts with me every day. They want me t be health y and have a beautiful future (将来). I lve my parents.
根据语篇内容，选择最佳选项。
61. Hw des Rick usually g t schl?
A. By bus. B. By bike. C. On ft.
62. What time des Rick have t g t bed?
A. Befre 9:15. B. Befre 9:45. C. Befre 10:15.
63. What des Rick have t d n weekends?
A. He has t exercise.
B. He has t g t schl.
C. He has t clean his rm and wash his clthes.
64. What d Rick and his parents d tgether(一起) every day?
A. They play sprts. B. They watch TV. C. They clean the rm.
65. Which f the fllwing is TRUE? (下列哪一种说法是正确的?)
A. Rick is nt healthy.
B. Rick can't stand (忍受) his family rules.
C. Rick has a happy family and he lves his parents.
C
These days, we can watch a vide(视频). In the vide, it's difficult fr lts f village children in Yunnan t g t schl. The children have t get up at five r six and then walk a very lng way t g t schl. It usually takes them abut tw hurs t get t schl. At that time, it is still dark. They are in great danger when they walk in the dark.
It's als difficult fr many ther children t g t schl. Can yu remember a pht, the“ Snwflake (冰花) By?” The by's name is Wang Fuman and many peple knw him frm the pht. In the pht, we can see the by in the classrm, with a red face and much ice n his head. T get t schl, he has t walk fr a lng time every mrning.
With the help f many kind peple, nw these children have new classrms t study in and nice drmitries t live in.“ Our classrm is really great. I can live in the schl, s I dn't have t g hme every day," Wang says. Wang als has a new huse. Nw he lives in it happily with his parents, grandmther and sister.
根据语篇内容，选择最佳选项。
66. We can knw many village children in Yunnan t schl in the vide.
A. ride bikes B. walk C. take the bus
67. Many peple knw Wang Fuman because f (由于)
A. a pht B. a vide C. a bk
68. The underlined wrd“ drmitries” means in English.
A. libraries B. rms C. kitchens
69. There are peple in Wang's family.
A. three B. fur C. five
70. We knw .
A. the vide is abut Wang Fuman
B. Wang Fuman can live in his schl n schl days nw
C. peple call Wang Fuman the“ Snwflake By” because he likes ice
D
Tm is studying in the US. Tday is Saturday. He and Mr. White's family are having a party m the garden(花园). Tm is talking with Mr. White.
“ Yu aren't American, right?” asks Mr. White.
“ N,I'm nt. I'm frm the UK.” says Tm.
“ My friend Jack cmes frm the UK, t. Lk, he is making a phne call there.” says Mr. White.“ Yu can talk t him later.”
Then Mrs. White cmes t Tm and says,“ Have sme cakes(蛋糕). They are great!” At that time, they hear(听见) sme music. Sme f Mr. and Mrs. White's friends are singing and dancing under the tree nt far frm them. It's Tm's favrite sng. He is very happy t hear that.
根据语篇内容，选择最佳选项。
71. What day is it tday?
A. Mnday. B. Saturday. C. Sunday.
72. Where des Tm cme frm?
A. The UK. B. China. C. The US.
73. What is Jack ding?
A. Taking phts. B. Singing a sng. C. Making a phne call.
74. Where are Mr. and Mrs. White's friends singing and dancing?
A. Near the garden. B. Under the tree. C. In the huse.
75. Tm may think the music is .
A. beautiful B. new C. nisy
六、综合填空 (共15小题，每小题1分，共15分)
(一) 单词拼写 (每小题1分，共10分)
根据题目所给的首字母或中文提示，正确拼写单词，并将答案填写在答题卡对应的横线上.
76. We must be g when we are in the library.
77. Tina usually gets d at 7:30 every mrning.
78. My sister likes r bks befre ging t bed.
79. I think the dg is very s because he can dance.
80. Sally can r nly ne day a week. She's always tired(疲倦的).
81. Mrs. Smith has three (小孩)
82. Mike's father is (四 十) years ld.
83. Je's parents ften take the (火车) fr a trip.
84. Nw my mther is making (汤) in the kitchen.
85. Dal c always (忘记) t make his beds after he gets up.
(二) 选词填空 (共5 小题，每小题1分，共5分)
根据语篇内容，从方框中选择恰当的单词，并用其正确形式填空。每个单词只能用一次。
study g I play ne
Jhn is twelve. He is 86 gd friend. On schl days, he usually 87 hme by bike after schl. Jhn likes sprts. He is gd at 88 vlleyball. He must get hme befre 5:30 pm. When he gets hme, he has t d his hmewrk 89 . Then he can watch TV fr half an hur. At 7:00 pm, his family have dinner. Frm 8:00 pm t 9:30 pm, Jhn 90 . fr the next day's lessn. At 10:00 pm, he has t g t bed.
七、书面表达(15分)
假如你是 Laura，请你根据下面的要点提示，给你的美国笔友Becky发一封电子邮件，告诉她你们班的班规，并谈谈你对这些规则的看法。
要点提示：1.不能迟到； 2.必须按时完成作业：
3.不能和同学打架； 4…… (至少补充两点)
写作要求：1.内容必须包含上面所有要点提示；
2.可适当增加细节，以使行文连贯；
3.文中不得透露个人信息；
4.词数60左右(短文肖句和结尾已给出，不计入总词数)。
Dear Becky.
I'm nw in Class 2 Grade 7. Let me tell yu sme f my class rules.
Yurs,
Laura
七年级英语参考答案及评分标准
一、听力（每小题1分，共30分）
（一）1—5 FDABE
（二）6—10AABCA
（三）11—13 ABA 14—16 CAB17—20 BBAC
（四）21—25 CBCAB
（五）26. White 27. vegetables 28. basketball 29. 3/Three 30. writes
二、单项选择（每小题1分，共10分）
31—35 BCCAA36—40 CACBC
三、补全对话（每小题1分，共5分）
41—45 EBFAD
四、完形填空（每小题1分，共10分）
46—50 ACBCB 51—55 BACAB
五、阅读理解（第56—60小题，每小题1分；第61—75小题，每小题2分，共35分）
56—60 TFTFF 61—65 CBCAC
66—70 BABCB 71—75 BACBA
六、综合填空（每小题1分，共15分）
（一）单词拼写
76. quiet77. dressed78. reading79. smart80. relax
81. children82. frty83. train 84. sup85. frgets
（二）选词填空
86. my87. ges88. playing89. first90. studies
七、书面表达（15分）One pssible versin:
Dear Becky,
I’m nw in Class 2 Grade 7. Let me tell yu sme f my class rules.
First, we can’t arrive late fr schl. Secnd, we have t finish ur hmewrk n time. Third, we can’t fight with ur classmates. And we must clean ur classrm every day and keep it clean. At last but nt the last, we have t wear ur schl unifrms every day. I dn’t think these rules are strict. We must fllw them because they’re gd fr us.
What are yur schl rules? Please write t me sn.
Yurs,
Laura
评分标准
一、听力测试（26—30小题）、综合填空（76—90小题）
按参考答案评分，每小题单词拼写完全正确才得分，形式不对（含大小写错误）不予评分。
二、书面表达
（一）评分原则
1.本题满分为15分，不设小数点以下分值。评卷员熟悉各档次作文评分细则（第5档13-15分；第4档10-12分；第3档7-9分：第2档4-6分；第1档1-3分)。（见下表）。
2.本题具有一定的开放性，考生可以根据要点紧扣主题适当发挥，但必须涵盖所有要点内容。
3.评分时，先根据考生的书面表达内容及语言表达情况，初步确定其所属档次，然后根据该档次的要求衡量、确定或调整档次，最后评分。相同的错误不重复计算；单词拼写错误四个以上扣0.5分，全文最多扣2分；字数少于60词扣1分。
4.如书写较差以至影响交际，将其分数扣分1分。
5.对于抄袭试卷内容情况的处理：完全抄袭试卷内容，赋分0分；若抄袭内容是根据主题巧妙增删后写进作文的，则参照评分标准给分。
6.文中若透露个人信息，一律不予评分。
五级写作评分标准

Mlly's pet
Mna's pet
Name
Lucky
Cc
Age
1
29. ___________
Clr
26. __________
Black
What t eat
Milk and 27. __________
Bread and fruit
What t d
Mlly plays balls with Lucky in the 28. __________ club.
Mna 30. ____________ stries abut Cc and talks abut it with her classmates in the stry telling club.
档次
分数
评分标准
第五档
13～15分
很好地完成了规定的写作任务。包含所有内容要点，结构完整，语句流畅，意思清楚、连贯。使用较为丰富的语法结构和词汇，语法和词汇错误极少（没有或仅有1处语法错误），格式正确，书写规范。
第四档
10～13分
较好地完成了规定的写作任务。基本上包含所有内容要点，结构较完整，语句完整，意思清楚。语法结构和词汇错误较少（有2～3处语法错误），格式基本正确，书写较为规范。
第三档
7～9分
基本上完成了规定的写作任务。包含主要内容要点，结构欠完整，少数语句不通顺，意思基本清楚。语法结构和词汇错误较多（有4～5处语法错误），格式基本正确，书写基本规范。
第二档
4～6分
未能按要求完成规定的写作任务。只包含少数内容要点，结构不完整，多数语句欠完整，意思不够清楚。语法结构和词汇错误较多（有6～7处语法错误），影响理解，格式不够正确，书写欠规范。
第一档
1～3分
未能按要求完成规定的写作任务。只写出个别要点，结构不完整，多数语句不完整或意思不明，语法和词汇错误很多，书写不规范。
0分
未能传达给读者任何信息。内容太少，无法评判；写的内容均与所要求内容无关或所写内容无法看清。