2023-2024学年辽宁省大连市庄河市八年级（上）期末英语试卷

这是一份2023-2024学年辽宁省大连市庄河市八年级（上）期末英语试卷，共10页。试卷主要包含了 B等内容，欢迎下载使用。
第一部分 听力（20分）
Ⅰ.听对话，选图。听下面五段对话，选择正确的图片，听完每段对话后，你有3秒钟时间作答，每段对话读一遍。（本题共5小题，每小题1分，共5分）
1. What present did the girl give t the by?
A. B. C.
2. What was the weather like last night?
A. B. C.
3. What was the girl ding when the earthquake happened?
A. B. C.
4. Which cuntry did Sandy g last mnth?
A. B. C.
5. What are they talking abut?
A. B. C.
Ⅱ.短对话理解。根据所提问题，选择正确的答案。每段对话读两遍。（本题共5小题，每小题1分，共5分）
6. Why dn't they g acrss the rad nw?
A. Because the traffic lights are red.
B. Because there are t many cars.
C. Because they are waiting fr smene.
7. What will Linda d n Saturday?
A. G t a park. B. G fr a picnic. C. G t a party.
8. When can the by stay ut in the evening?
A. At 8: 30. B. At 9: 30. C. At 10: 30.
9. What sprt des the by like best this year?
A. Ftball. B. Swimming. C. Skating.
10. What was Sam ding when the snwstrm came?
A. Reading a bk. B. Walking t the bus stp. C. Waiting fr a taxi.
Ⅲ.长对话理解。听下面一段对话，选择最佳答案，听完对话后你有15秒钟时间作答。本段对话读两遍。（本题共5小题，每小题1分，共5分）
11. Wh bught the sweater fr Tm?
A. Tm's brther. B. Tm's cusin. C. Tm's uncle.
12. When did Tm get his sweater?
A. Yesterday. B. Last week. C. Last year.
13. Is Tm's cusin shrter r taller than him?
A. He is as tall as Tm. B. He's taller than Tm. C. He's shrter than Tm.
14. Wh is with big eyes?
A. Tm. B. Tm's brther. C. Tm's uncle
15. Wh is mre utging?
A. Mike. B. Tm. C. Tm's cusin.
IV. 听短文，写出表格中所缺的单词。每空仅填一词。短文读两遍。（本题共5小题，每小题1分，共5分）
16. A. 12B. 20C. 22
17. A. prB. ldC. yung
18. A. wrkingB. learningC. reading
19. A. fdB. hmesC. rms
20. A. TuesdayB. WednesdayC. Thursday
第二部分 选择题（共60分）
V.语音题（本题共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
从各题所给的选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
21.划线字母“e”发音不同于其他三个的是____________
A. chessB. gentlemanC. acceptD. degree
22.划线字母“i”发音不同于其他三个的是____________
A. describeB. excitingC. scientistD. pity
23.划线字母组合“u”发音不同于其他三个的是____________
A. grudB. ludlyC. enughD. suth
24.下列单词中，重读在第二个音节的单词是____________
A. cllegeB. describeC. actressD. magic
25.下列单词中，重读在第二个音节的单词是____________
A. accidentB. jurneyC. hweverD. service
26.下列句子停顿正确的是____________
A. It's a gd idea/t write dwn the crrect answers/ next t the mistake.
B. It's a gd idea/t write dwn the crrect answers next t the mistake.
C. It's a gd idea/t write dwn/the crrect answers/ next t the mistake.
D. It' s/a gd idea/t write dwn the crrect answers next t the mistake.
27.下列句子停顿正确的是____________
A. There are/strms/frm time t time in summer and /autumn.
B. There are strms/ frm time t time in summer/ and autumn.
C. There are strms/frm time t time/in summer and autumn.
D. There are strm/frm time t time in summer and autumn.
28.下列句子读升调的是____________
A. We all need t prtect the animals.B. D yu ften g t see the Beijing Opera?
C. Hw des Tny g t schl?D. That's such gd advice!
29.下列句子重读标注错误的是____________
A. Let's imagine an accident. B. What can we d t help him?
C. Make sure he's warm. D. Cver him with a cat.
30.下列句子连读错误的是____________
A. Lk at that cute panda. B. She is nt gd at swimming.
C. Spain scred a minute ag. D. He lives the farthest frm schl.
VI.阅读理解（共20小题，每小题2分，满分40分）
第一节 阅读下面语言材料，从每题所给的A. B. C. D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A.
31. If yu want t visit a giant panda in America, where shuld yu g?
A. T the z. B. T the frests. C. T the parks. D. T the muntains.
32. Why are there fewer and fewer tigers?
A. Because they dn't have enugh fd t eat.
B. Because the weather is nt as gd as befre.
C. Because they can't have babies at the z.
D. Because peple destry (毁坏) their living places and hunt them fr their fur.
33. Which f the fllwing is RIGHT?
A. It's easy t keep giant pandas in the z.
B. Tigers can hunt big animals like lins fr fd.
C. An African elephant's ears are much bigger than an Asian elephant' s.
D. The Eurpean tter has small and lng ears.
34. The passage mainly talks abut ______________.
A. animals in dangerB. animals arund the wrld
C. large animalsD. peple and animals
B.
Hw d yu get t schl? By bus r by bike? Every mrning n schl days, a lt f students take the schl bus t schl. It is nthing new t see thse big yellw buses driving arund. Hwever, schl buses were unusual in the past.
In 1886, the first schl transprtatin (交通工具) came int use, but it was called a “schl hack”. It was a kind f hrse-drawn carriage (四轮马车) and did nt lk like a bus. Between 1900 and 1930, the hrse-drawn carriages became wden (木质的) buses. Finally, in 1930, wden buses became metal (金属的) nes.
Nw the schl bus wears a special clur—yellw. Many peple ask why it's yellw. The answer is t make peple ntice the bus. Peple can easily see this clur n the rad, especially n rainy days. By making the schl buses the yellw clur, peple can see these buses n the rad mre easily t make students much safer.
Tday, fr many students, taking the schl bus is their first chice f transprtatin. S it is safe t say that schl buses are a ppular and imprtant way f schl transprtatin.
35. Accrding t the passage, hw many kinds f schl transprtatin were there in the past?
A. Tw. B. Three. C. Fur. D. Five.
36. Why d the schl buses wear the clur yellw?
A. T make the buses beautiful. B. T make peple lve the buses.
C. T make the buses different. D. T make students much safer.
37. Hw are the schl buses nw accrding t the writer?
①interesting②ppular③imprtant④different
A. ①②B. ①③C. ②③D. ③④
38. Which is the best title f the passage?
A. Hw schl buses develp (发展) B. Hw mst students g t schl
C. Hw t take the schl busD. Hw t ntice students n the rad
C.
Peple in Denmark have happy lives. Why? Because they knw the secret (秘密) t happiness-“hygge”.
“Hygge” is a special way f life. Danish peple ften use the wrd t describe the way they spend lng and cld winter days. With almst 17 hurs f darkness every day in winter, they spend mre time indrs. At that time, Danish peple ften get tgether fr a meal r ht drinks. After winter, when it' s nt s cld, “hygge” can be picnics in the park, parties in the garden and utdr mvie nights.
Hwever, playing n yur phne at hme all day is the least “hygge” thing. TV is kay, but yu'd better ask sme friends t watch mvies with yu, as staying tgether is anther key part f being “hygge”.
Fr Danish peple, lighting candles (点蜡烛) is the mst imprtant part f creating an envirnment (环境) f “hygge” at hme. They light mre candles each year than any ther Eurpean cuntry.
In a wrd, “hygge” is abut creating a warm envirnment and enjying the little simple things in life. By making sme small changes t yur life, yu can practice this way wherever yu are.
39. Which f the fllwings are ways f “hygge”?
①Having a meal with family②Having a picnic in the park
③Playing cmputer games alne ④Playing n the phne at hme
⑤Hlding a party in the garden
A. ①②③⑤B. ①③④⑤C. ①②④⑤D. ②③④⑤
40. Why d Danish peple light a lt f candles each year?
A. T bring mre light in the rm. B. T spend winter days quickly.
C. T keep themselves warm. D. T create an envirnment f “hygge”.
41. What is the structure (结构) f the passage？(①=Paragraph 1②=Paragraph 2, …)
A. ①-②③④-⑤B. ①-②-③④⑤C. ①-②③④⑤D. ①-②③-④-⑤
42. What's the best title fr the passage?
A. Hw t live a happier life than thers B. Hw t make “hygge” famus
C. Danish peple's secret t happiness D. Danish peple's secret t make friends
D.
Bags f Lve
Last year, I wrked in a middle schl near my mther's huse, and I stayed with her fr a mnth. During that time, I helped her d sme husewrk and buy sme fd.
After the first week, I nticed that the fd was eaten up (吃光) very quickly. Then I began keeping an eye n my mum. T my surprise, I fund that she wuld put sme f the fd int a paper bag and g ut with it at abut nine every mrning. And finally, I decided t fllw her. I saw her taking the fd t the street children. She wuld als spend a lt f time talking and playing with them.
One day, I talked t a neighbur and fund ut that my mum was famus in the area. The children were very friendly with her and even thught f her as their wn mther. Then it hit me—why wuldn't she want t tell me abut it? Was she wrried that I wuld stp buying fd if I fund ut?
When my mum gt hme, I gave her a big hug (拥抱) . I tld her she didn’t need t keep it a secret frm me. And she tld me smething abut the children. Sme f them lived with an ld lady in a small huse. Others slept n the street. Fr years, she was helping the pr street children by giving them fd. After she tld me everything, I was s mved by hw selfless (无私的) she was. She helped thers in need. As her sn, I was s prud f my mum.
I cntinued (继续) t buy fd fr my mum after that. But I always added (增加) ne mre bag fr her ther children.
43. After the first week, the writer nticed that _____________.
A. the fd was put int a big bxB. his mum fllwed the children
C. the fd was eaten up quicklyD. his mum stpped buying fd
44. The street children thught f the writer's mum as their _____________.
A. ld grandmaB. wn mtherC. new neighburD. dear teacher
45. Hw did the writer feel abut his mum after she tld him everything?
A. He was prud f her. B. He was cnfident in her.
C. He was angry with her. D. He was wrried abut her.
46. The writer added ne mre bag f fd t _____________
A. make friends with the childrenB. get a hug frm his mther
C. becme famus in the areaD. help the pr street children
第二节 阅读短文，从方框中所给的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，其中有一个多余的选项。
Teens (青少年) are nt as healthy as they used t be. They are becming fatter and fatter. A new research shws 97% f the teens need mre exercise. 47. _____________. First. exercise can help yur mind. Peple wh get plenty f physical activity might wrry less and sleep better at night. Yu may even learn better in schl. 48. _____________Physical activity can make yur bdy strng.
It can als keep yu at a healthy weight (体重). But hw can teens be encuraged t d mre exercise? Here are sme gd suggestins.
Stay away frm the screen. Dctrs call watching TV r playing vide games screen time. Yu shuld have n mre than tw hurs f screen time a day. Then yu will enjy yur life mre.
49. _____________. Interest is the best teacher. Yu can chse the traditinal sprts, such as basketball, sccer, r baseball. Thse are all great sprts and if yu like them, play them.
50. _____________. Find a friend r a family member t exercise with yu. Yu will have mre fun and it's nt easy fr yu t give up.
All in all, it's necessary fr teens t d mre exercise.
VII.完形填空（共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分）
Once there was a by called Meng Ke. His dad died, s he lived 51 with his mum, Mengmu.
Mengmu wanted her sn t study and make prgress. But Meng Ke was a naughty by. He fllwed the children next dr t climb the tree t catch birds, jump int the 52 t catch fish, and steal melns. Mengmu thught, “My sn desn't study hard because the living place isn' t gd.”
Then they mved t a huse next t a 53 . Peple mved arund the market, talking and bargaining (讨价还价), while sellers 54 at the tp f their vices, trying t attract (吸引) custmers. Meng Ke saw this and 55 himself by acting like a seller. He learned t bw t the passers-by, welcming them t buy his things and even bargained just like ther sellers. Mengmu didn't like it and tld 56 , “N, this is nt the right place t raise my child either.” S she tk Meng Ke away frm the market.
At last they mved t a new place beside the schl. There Meng Ke saw the gd pupils. He 57 frm their manners (举止) .He saw the students 58 bks and he did s. Sn he develped an interest in writing and asking the teacher fr 59 . Mengmu thught the schl was the 60 place she had been lking fr.
Later, Meng Ke grew up t be a well-mannered, knwledgeable man.
51. A. alneB. lnelyC. ludlyD. suddenly
52. A. frestB. riverC. fieldD. park
53. A. zB. museumC. restaurantD. market
54. A. shutedB. lkedC. smiledD. kncked
55. A. helpedB. enjyedC. tldD. did
56. A. myselfB. yurselfC. herselfD. himself
57. A. heardB. learnedC. keptD. came
58. A. buyingB. sellingC. readingD. making
59. A. mistakesB. adviceC. medicineD. mney
60. A. difficultB. terribleC. strangeD. right
第三部分 非选择题（40分）
VIII.语篇填空（共10小题，每小题分，满分10分）
阅读短文，在空白处填入一个适当的单词或用括号内所给词的正确形式填空，使短文通畅，连贯。
Fr the yungest students, ging int schl each day can smetimes be a little terrible. S it can be very 61. ____________(help) t have a smiling face greet (迎接) them every mrning. This is what Tanner Ray is ding fr sme 62. ____________ (kid) in a kindergarten (幼儿园) in New Yrk.
Tanner is a nine-year-ld by. He is in the 63. ____________(fur) grade nw. Every mrning, he 64. ____________ (pen) the dr f the kindergarten, stands in frnt f it, and gives the little kindergartners high fives. He takes his jb seriusly 65. ____________he knws hw these kindergartners feel. He hpes this special greeting can help them have a gd day in schl.
Tanner nce met a little by n his way t schl, and the by cried ludly. Tanner gave him a high five and the by went t schl 66. ____________ (happy). S Tanner decided t spend time 67. ____________ (give) high fives t mre children each mrning. Nw, sme f the children are als interested 68. _this special greeting and d the same thing, t.
The head f the kindergarten, Heather Waltn, thinks Tanner's greeting is 69. ____________great idea. “He is ne f the 70. ____________ (gd) bys wh want t make the children in kindergarten feel better. I must thank him fr his kindness,” said Heather.
IX.阅读与表达（共4小题，71～73小题，每小题2分，74小题4分；满分10分）阅读短文，然后根据内容回答问题。
Fire is useful and imprtant t us. Yu use it t ck meals every day. But if yu are nt careful, the fire may dangerus anytime. Many peple get hurt r die in fires. S knwing hw t prtect yurself in the fire is very imprtant.
When the fire happens, the first thing yu must d is t find safe ruts (路线) t get away quickly. If yu are in the taller flrs f the building, yu can't use the lift. Yu shuld run ut alng the stairs. Frm the lwer flrs f the building, yu can jump ut thrugh the windw if it is necessary.
If yu can't get ut f the rm, yu must be careful f the smke. In fact, mst f the peple in fires die frm the heavy smke. Find smething wet t cver yur nse and muth. Keep lw t the grund, and yu will take in less smke. And yu can als pen the windw, keep yur head utside t get fresh air and shut fr help.
Remember: Nthing is mre imprtant than yur life. Yu must leave everything behind, yur mney, yur pets and s n. After yu're ut, dn't g back fr anything.
Fllw these ways, and yu can keep safe in the fire.
71. What d yu have t d first when the fire happens?
_____________________________________________________________________________________________
72. Can yu use the lift in the fire?
_____________________________________________________________________________________________
73. What causes mst f the peple in fires t lse their lives?
_____________________________________________________________________________________________
74. What is the mst imprtant thing yu shuld remember in the fire accrding t the passage? What will yu d if yu are in a fire? (at least 30 wrds)
_____________________________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________________________
X. 75.书面表达（满分20分）
丰富多彩的体育运动给我们的生活增添了许多生机和活力，游泳可以塑身，跑步可以培养耐力，打篮球可以增强团队精神. . . 作为一名中学生，你最喜欢的运动是什么？请给校园专栏写一篇英语稿，介绍你的体育活动情况。
内容提示：
(1) What's yur favurite sprt?
(2) Why d yu like that kind f sprt?
(3) What can yu get frm the sprt?
要求：
1.中心突出，语意连贯，层次清晰，书写规范。
2.文中不得出现真实的姓名和校名。
3. 100词左右。
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庄河市2023-2024学年度第一学期八年级英语试题 答案
I. 听对话选图。（本题共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分）
1-5. ACBAB
II短对话理解。（本题共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分）
6-10. BCAAB
III长对话理解。（本题共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分）
11-15. ACBCA
IV听短文，补全信息。（本题共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分）
16-20．BBABA
V. 语音题（本题共10小题；每小题1分，共10分）
21-25. DDCBC 26-30. ACBDD
VI. 阅读理解（本题共20小题，每小题2分，共40分）
Passage A: 31-34. ADCA Passage B: 35-38. BDCA
Passage C: 39-42. CDAC Passage D: 43-46. CBAD
47-50. CAEB
VI. 完形填空（本题共10小题，每小题1分，共10分）
51-55 . ABDAB 56-60. CBCBD
VIII． 语篇填空（共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分）
61. helpful 62. kids 63. furth 64. pens 65. because 66. happily 67. giving 68. in 69. a 70. best
IX. A. 阅读与表达
71．We have t find safe ruts t get away quickly first.
72. N, I/ We can’t.
73. The heavy smke.
74. 开放性试题，合理即可。
B. 书面表达（本题共20分）
My favurite sprts
Nwadays, mre and mre teenagers enjy playing basketball because it is very interesting and exciting. I am n exceptin. In my pinin, it is mre than a ball game because I’ve learned a lt frm it.
First, I feel excited when watching the game. When I cncentrate n watching the game, I will feel I am part f the game. It has taught me that if I want t d smething well. I shuld put my heart int it. Then, when I play basketball, I can build up my bdy. Befre playing basketball, I'm a frequent visitr t the hspital. But since I started t play basketball, I have been in gd health. Mrever, it is als a platfrm t shw myself and give me cnfidence in myself. Last but nt least, it has taught me t believe thers. Basketball games ask fr team wrk, and yu can't win the match by yurself. Yu shuld believe yur friend, yur teammates and yurself.
Briefly, I shuld express thanks t my favurite sprt basketball, because it has given me pleasure, gd health, cnfidence and friendship. Vlunteers wanted
Age
16. ____________t 60.
Activities
lking after 17. ____________peple wh have n family.
taking care f schl children whse parents are busy 18. ____________.
helping care fr dgs and cats withut 19. ____________.
Time
next 20. ____________.
Website (网站)
www. vlunteer. cm
Giant pandas live in the frests in China. Outside China, they are nly in zs. They mainly eat bamb. Keeping a panda in the z is difficult because it must have lts f bamb t eat.
Asian elephants have much smaller ears than African elephants. They live in the frests. There are nly a few Sri Lankan elephants (a kind f Asian elephant) in the wrld nw.
Tigers belng t (属于) the cat family. They get small animals like deer fr fd. Tigers are in danger because peple cut dwn the frests and hunt them. Peple hunt (猎杀) them fr their beautiful fur (皮毛) . In the past，there were many tigers in India, but tday there are nly a few f them.
The Eurpean tter (水獭) lives in Eurpe. It has sft, brwn fur. It is abut 75 centimeters lng. Its tai is half as lng as its bdy. It has small and rund ears. Tday peple still hunt the pr animals fr their fur.
A. Secnd, exercise helps yur bdy.
B. Exercise with thers tgether.
C. Exercise helps in tw ways.
D. Fr example, yu can g swimming when yu're free.
E. Lk fr a sprt yu are interested in.