2023-2024学年广东省湛江市经开区七年级（上）期末英语试卷

这是一份2023-2024学年广东省湛江市经开区七年级（上）期末英语试卷，共11页。试卷主要包含了听力应用，读写综合，语法选择，完形填空，阅读理解，短文填空等内容，欢迎下载使用。
(时间：90分钟 满分：120分)
一、听力应用（本大题共30小题，每小题1分，共30分；A、B、C、D部分为听力理解，E部分为情景对话）
A. 听句子（本题有5小题，每小题1分，共5分）
根据所听句子的内容和所提的问题，选择符合题意的图片回答问题。每小题听两遍。
( ) 1．What is the girl’s favrite fruit?
A． B．C．
( ) 2．What sprts des the by play every day?
A． B．C．
( ) 3．What des the speaker talk abut?
A． B．C．
( ) 4．What things are Jack’s?
A． B．C．
( ) 5．What can the girl d well?
A． B．C．

B. 听对话（本小题有10小题，每小题1分，共10分）
根据所听对话的内容，回答每段对话后面的问题，在每小题所给的三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话听两遍。
听第一段对话，回答第6小题。
( ) 6. Wh is the P.E. teacher?
Paul. B. Jhn. C. David.
听第二段对话，回答第7小题。
( ) 7. Where are the tw speakers?
A. At a clthes stre. B. At a bk stre. C. At a fruit stre.
听第三段对话，回答第8小题。
( ) 8.What clr is Ann's cup?
A. It’ s blue. B. It’s purple. C. It’s brwn.
听第四段对话，回答第9小题。
( ) 9. When is Linda's birthday?
It ’s n January 1st B. It’s n Octber 1st. C. It’s n June 1st.
听第五段对话，回答第10小题。
( ) 10. What’s David’s car number?
A. It’s 73J68. B. It’s 67G36. C. It’s 32G76.
听第六段对话，回答第11-12小题。
( ) 11. Wh buys the glves?
A. Linda. B. Bill. C. Mr. Brwn.
( ) 12. Hw much is the hat?
A. $36. B. $ 67. C. $ 37.
听第七段对话，回答第13-15小题。
( ) 13. When is the science lessn n Mnday?
At 8:00. B. At 9:00. C. At 10:00.
( ) 14. What lessns d they have n Friday mrning?
Chinese and science. B. art and math. C. English and P.E.
( ) 15. Why des Betty like histry?
A. Because histry is fun. B. Because she likes the teacher.
C. Because she can talk t friends.
C. 听短文（本题有5小题，每小题1分，共5分）
根据所听独白的内容，在每小题所给的三个选项中选出一个能完成句子的最佳选项。短文听两遍。
( ) 16．The girl has ________at 8: 00.
A．Chinese B．math C．English
( ) 17．She has a science lessn at ________.
A．10:00 B．9: 00 C．9: 30
( ) 18．She thinks science is ________.
A．difficult B．interesting C．relaxing
( ) 19．Her favrite subject is ________.
A．art B．P. E. C．music
( ) 20．She thinks music is ________.
A．bring B．fun C．relaxing
D. 听填信息（本题有5小题，每小题1分，共5分）
你将听到一段关于Frank的短文，请你根据所听内容填写下面的信息卡。短文听两遍。
情景对话（本题有5小题，每小题1分，共5分）
请通读下面对话，根据对话内容，从方框内的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，选项中有一项为多余选项。
A: Hw’s yur day, Peter?
B: Nt gd. Yu knw, it’s Tuesday tday and I have tw math lessns.
A: 26
B: Because it’s t difficult fr me.
A: 27
B: Music. I think it’s very interesting. What abut yu? D yu like music?
A: Yes, I like it, t. 28 I think it’s very useful and the English teacher is my favrite.
B: 29
A: Mr. Smith. He’s a gd teacher and he’s great fun.
B: 30
A: I have it every day.
二﹑语法选择（本大题共10小题，每小题1分，共10分）
通读下面短文，掌握其大意，然后按照句子结构的语法和上下文连贯的要求，从每题所给的四个选项中选出一个最佳答案。
Lk at the pht. It's a pht f my family. The ld man and the ld wman 31 my grandparents. This is my father. He is next t 32 brther, my uncle. This wman is my mther. She is an English teacher. Yu can 33 three kids in the pht. The tw girls are my 34 . The girl in the red dress is Nancy 35 the girl in the yellw dress is Susan. 36 is the by, d yu knw? It's 37 . My grandparents live in the USA. I live in Beijing 38 my parents nw. My father is a dctr. He wrks in Beijing Hspital. He ften has milk fr breakfast. And he likes 39 bread. My mther ften has sme eggs and a glass f range juice. I have 40 big and happy family.
三﹑完形填空（本大题共10小题，每小题1分，共10分）
通读下面的短文，掌握其大意，然后在各小题所给的四个选项中，选出一个最佳答案。
Sme children in Africa dn't have schl things. Yu can help them. Lk! They are very 41 when they get sme schl things frm thers.
Bill is really happy. He gets a new 42 . He can put his pencils in it nw. Jane gets a 43 . She always wants a ntebk, but her parents can't buy ne fr her because they are t pr. This is her 44 ntebk. What is that in Mike's hands? Oh. It’s a strybk. Mike likes 45 very much. He wants sme bks. Little Tmmy 46 sme pencils. Nw he can write with a pencil.
D yu want t 47 these African children? Yu can give yur ld 48 things t us. We 49 bks, schlbags, dictinaries, crayns, pencils, rulers, erasers, pencil bxes...
If yu dn't knw hw t give them t us, yu can call 850499-8335. Our 50 is sunshine @ develpafrica.cm.
四﹑阅读理解（本大题共15小题，每小题2分，共30分）
阅读A、B两篇短文，并从每小题所给的四个选项中，选出能回答所提问题或完成所给句子的最佳答案。
A
Welcme t My Birthday Party!
( ) 51. What can't yu have at Lily's birthday party?
A. Ice-cream. B. Juice. C. Cake. D. Hamburgers.
( ) 52.Whse birthday party lasts(持续) the lngest?
A. Lily's. B. Mike's. C. Jane's. D. Wally's.
( ) 53.Where are yu ging if yu want t g t Wally’s birthday party?
A. Lily's hme. B. Children's Park. C. Peple’s Park.D. Wally's hme.
( ) 54. When is Mike's birthday?
On May 7th. B. On June 6th C. On June 1st. D. On May 8th.
( ) 55. What can we learn frm the passage?
Jane’s and Mike’s birthdays are in the same mnth.
Yu can take phts with Jane’s at her birthday.
Wally's birthday party starts at 3:00 a.m.
Yu can call Lily at 555-2981 t g t her hme.
B
Nw schl gardening is very cl. Parents and teachers like these hands-n(实践) lessns.
Students lve the gardening lessns, t. In the lessns, students have a new way t learn smething.
The students like the lessns because they can help them relax. They dn't have t sit at their desks in the classrm all day. They can get ut and it’s gd fr their eyes. Als, the gardening lessns can teach them smething that they cannt learn in the classrm.
In gardens, teachers ask all the students t watch seriusly. The students can see hw the flwers grw. But sme schls dn't have much rm fr a garden. Then sme students can g t parks.
“Gardening is an imprtant subject,” a lt f teachers say. “It lets students knw where ur fd cmes frm, and makes them have their duty fr their hme."
( ) 56. Why d the parents and teachers like schl gardening?
Because they can get ut. B. Because it is a hands-n lessn.
C. Because it is an easy lessn. D. Because they like flwers.
( ) 57. What can students d in the gardening lessns?
A. Learn smething and help them relax B. Sit at their desks in the classrm
C. Learn smething in the classrm D. Finish their hmewrk
( ) 58. What des the underlined wrd “seriusly” in Paragraph 4 mean in Chinese?
严肃地 B. 关心地 C. 认真地 D. 快速地
( ) 59. What can we learn frm the passage?
Gardening isn't a subject.
Students dn't like gardening.
Gardening is gd fr students’ eyes.
Students can have the gardening lessn in the classrm.
( ) 60. What's the best title fr the passage?
A. Hw t Grw Flwers B. Hw t Relax
C. Getting ut D.Gardening Lessns in Schl
C
配对阅读。
左栏是5个人的购物需求，右栏是7则有关商店及商品的广告，请为左栏的每个人选择合适的商店及商品，并将题卡上对应题目所选的选项涂黑。
五﹑短文填空（本大题共10小题，每小题1.5分，共15分）
请从方框内选择合适的词并用其正确形式填空，使文章完整连贯。注意每空一词，每词仅用一次，有两词为多余项。
she surprised watch an hw be happy China friend his with ck

Adikin Rse Mary is frm Uganda(乌干达). She 66.________ 29 years ld. She lives in Zhejiang 67.________ her family nw. This is 68.________ ninth years in China. Rse can speak Chinese well. And she makes many 69.________ in China. She talks t them in 70.________. She eats well. She has 71.________ gd eating habit. She likes cking. She 72._________all kinds f dishes. She als shares vides n Duyin. The vides are abut her cking. She gets many fans. Lts f peple like73._________her vides. They learn74.________ t ck frm her. Rse is 75.________with her life. “This is my favurite way f living-the family staying tgether and ur sn grwing up healthily and happily. ” she says.
六、读写综合（本大题分为A、B两部分，共25分）
A. 回答问题（共5小题，每小题2分，共10分）
请阅读下面这篇文章，根据所提供的信息，回答5个问题。要求所写答案语法正确、语义完整。
I'm Paul. I have three gd friends. They are Jim, Frank and Mary. We like sprts very much. My favrite sprt is basketball. I have fur basketballs. I think playing basketball is interesting. But Jim and Frank think it is bring. Their favrite sprt is sccer. They play sccer every afternn at schl.They have fur sccer balls. Mary is a nice girl. Her favrite sprt is vlleyball. She plays it very well. It's relaxing fr her t play vlleyball. But she has nly ne vlleyball. Sprts are gd fr us.
Hw many gd friends des Paul have?
_____________________________________________________________________________
What d Paul and his friends like?
_______________________________________________________________________________
78．Hw d Jim and Frank like playing basketball?
______________________________________________________________________________
79．Wh has fur sccer balls?
______________________________________________________________________________
80．What sprt des Mary play well?
______________________________________________________________________________
B. 书面表达（本题15分）
81. 健康的生活是成长、成才的前提和保障。请以“Eating Healthily”为题，给学校英文广播站投稿，谈谈你对健康饮食的看法。
内容包括：
介绍健康的食物有哪些;
你喜欢吃的食物有哪些, 原因是什么;
提出对健康饮食的建议(不少于两条);
强调健康饮食对我们的重要性。
提示词: advice(建议)，a balanced diet(饮食平衡)
作文要求：
不能照抄原文，不得在作文中出现真实校名、地名和考生的真实姓名。
语句连贯，词数80左右，作文的开头已经给出，不计入总词数。
Eating Healthily
A healthy lifestyle is very imprtant fr us, s we have t eat healthily.
_________________________________________________________________________________
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Infrmatin Sheet
◆Frank lst his schlbag in the 21 .
◆The schlbag is 22 .
◆A schl ID card, a pencil bx, a 23 and a baseball are in it.
◆Frank’s phne number is 24 .
◆Frank asks fr 25 .
A．But I like English best.
B．When d yu have English?
C．Wh’s yur English teacher?
D．Why dn’t yu like math?
E．Thanks a lt.
F．What’s yur favrite subject?
( ) 31. A. am
B. is
C. are
( ) 32. A. he
B. him
C. his
( ) 33. A. see
B. sees
C. is seeing
( ) 34. A. sister
B. sisters’
C. sisters
( ) 35. A. and
B. but
C. r
( ) 36. A. Wh
B. What
C. Hw
( ) 37. A. I
B. me
C. my
( ) 38. A. frm
B. with
C. fr
( ) 39. A. eat
B. eats
C. eating
( ) 40. A. an
B. a
C. the
( ) 41．A. difficult
B. interesting
C. busy
D. excited
( ) 42．A. pencil bx
B. mdel plane
C. pencil
D. cmputer
( ) 43．A. schlbag
B. pen
C. ntebk
D. watch
( ) 44．A. first
B. next
C. secnd
D. last
( ) 45．A. clthes
B. sprts
C. bks
D. games
( ) 46．A. gets
B. knws
C. buys
D. sells
( ) 47．A. take
B. help
C. lve
D. call
( ) 48．A. fun
B. sprts
C. kitchen
D. schl
( ) 49．A. read
B. give
C. need
D. thank
( ) 50．A. time
B. e-mail
C. price
D. number
Welcme t Lily’s 8th Birthday Party
A big birthday cake! Fruit, ice-cream and pizza. Tea, milk and juice.
Date: Mnday, May 7th
Time: 3:40 p. m. t 6:00 p.m.
Place: Lily's hme
Dn't yu knw hw t g t Lily's hme? Just call Lily at 577-8932.
A Birthday Party
Welcme t my birthday party!
Time: 4:00 p. m. t 6:00 Children’s Day
Place: Peple’s Park
Phne number: 555-2981
E-mail:mike@163.cm
Cme and have fun!
Mike
Cme t Jane’s Birthday Party!
Date: June 6th
Time: 2:00 p. m. t 5:00 p.m.
Place: Jane's hme
We can play games and have a lt f fd at the party. Can yu cme? Please call 234-5542 and tell Jane.
Wally’s Birthday Party
Wally will be happy t see yu at his birthday party frm 3:00 p. m. t 5:00 p. m. at Children's Park.
Cme and enjy cake, drinks and music, and take pictures with Wally.
( ) 61. Alan’s schlbag is ld nw. He wants t buy a new schlbag, but he desn’t have much mney.
( ) 62. Mr. Brwn feels tired n his way t the Peple’s Park. He needs t drink sme water because he has walked fr a lng time.
( ) 63. Jane’s friend David’s birthday is cming. Jane wants t buy a birthday gift fr him. She is thinking abut a nice basketball.
( ) 64. Winter is cming. Peter desn’t have enugh scks t keep warm. He needs sme lng thick scks.
( ) 65. The schl dancing party is cming. Anna needs a skirt fr dancing. Her favrite clr is pink. She wants t buy a pink ne.
A. We sell drinks and snacks near the Peple’s Park. We get a set f table and chairs in frnt f ur stre s yu can have a gd rest.
B. D yu want t lk cl? D yu need new scks? Yu can cme t Ms. Green’s Sck Stre. I’m sure yu’ll get what yu want.
C. Our stre has many nice and cheap things. Yu can buy pens, pencils, pencil-bxes, and schlbags at very gd prices.
D. Are yu a sprts lver? There’s lts f sprts equipment（器材）in ur stre. We have great baseball bats fr nly $7, and the basketballs are at the price f $6.
E. Welcme t Mr. Cl’s Sweater Stre. Fr bys, we have sweaters in black fr nly $10. Fr girls, we have sweaters in pink fr nly $15.
F. Cme and see at Mike’s Sprts Stre near the Peple’s Park. We have sme gd ping-png balls n sale. Cme t see fr yurself.
G. Mr. Brwn’s stre has all kinds f clthes. Yu can see skirts, jackets, cats, sweaters in all clrs in the stre. Cme and have a lk.
2023-2024学年度第一学期教学质量监测
七年级上英语参考答案及评分标准
一、听力应用（本大题分为A、B、C、D、E五部分，共30小题，每小题1分）
1-5 CCACC 6-10 BCABC 11-15 AACBB 16-20 BCABC21. library 22. purple 23. dictinary 24. 929-3155 25. help
26-30 DFACB
评分标准：
第一大题D部分（(共5小题，每小题1分)
主要考查考生的听的能力，原则上单词拼写错误不得分，但单词拼写上如有大小写错误和单复数错误，建议不扣分，例如：23题dictinaries不扣分。
二、语法选择（本大题有15小题，每小题1分，共15分）
31-35 CCACA 36-40 ABBCB
三、完形填空。（每小题1分，共10分）
41-45 DACAC 46-50 ABDCB
四、阅读理解（本大题有15小题，每小题2分，共30分）
51-55 DCBCA 56~60 BACCD 61~65 CADBG
五、短文填空（本大题有10小题，每小题1.5分，共15分）
66. is 67. with 68. her 69. friends 70. Chinese
71. a 72. cks 73. watching 74. hw 75. happy
评分标准：
考生所填答案与所给答案一致，形式正确给满分。
所选词语相符但形式有错，如动词形式或时态错误，名词单复数错误，大小写错误等，每个扣0.5分；所选词语错误不给分。
六、读写综合（本大题分为A、B两部分，共25分）
A. 回答问题（共5小题，每小题2分，共10分）
He has three gd friends. /Three.
They like sprts very much. /Sprts.
They think it is bring. /Bring.
Jim and Frank have fur sccer balls. /Jim and Frank.
She plays vlleyball very well. /Vlleyball.
第六大题评分标准：
A.问答题(共5小题，每小题2分)
每小题回答完整句子或关键词，且信息准确，给满分；信息不完整或出现无关信息，每小题扣1分；首字母没大写，形式、人称代词错误，每个扣0.5分；信息错误不给分。
B.书面表达（本题15分）
1.评分原则与方法:
(1)采用总体评分法:考生能否根据写作提示，较好地把阅读文章中与写作相关的内容进行归纳和运用来完成书面表达任务。评分时，要注重内容的完整及语言表达的准确性。先确定所属档次，然后以该档次的要求进行微调，最后给分。
(2)内容的表述:要求考生能完整地按写作要点进行表述，作文具有一定的连贯性。具体要点的分数分配见第2点。少于规定词数20％的酌情扣分。
(3)语言的引用:原文照抄的，只能在第5档中调整:但套用原文的句式结构且运用得当的，不扣分。如考生把文章所给出的开头部分抄写在答题卡上，不扣分(即使抄写有错误！)。
2.内容要点的分数分配(仅供参考，建议评分时从内容、语言及篇章逻辑三方面给予考虑)
内容分:6分
(1) 介绍健康的食物有哪些；------—————————————————1分
(2) 你喜欢吃的食物有哪些, 原因是什么；——————————————2分
(3) 提出对健康饮食的建议(不少于两条)；------------————-————2分
(4) 强调健康饮食对我们的重要性。------——————————————1分
语言分:8分
篇章逻辑及连贯性:1分
3.评分档次和标准
第一档:13-15分要求:内容涵盖所有的要点，表达准确，意思连贯，符合逻辑，只有个别语言错误。
第二档:10-12分要求:内容涵盖所有的要点，表达请楚，意思连贯，符合逻辑，但有少数语言错误。
第三档:7-9分要求:内容涵盖大部分要点，表达较为清楚、连贯，基本符合返辑，但有一些语言错误。
第四档:4-6分要求:内容涵盖部分要点，能写出少量正确句子，但整体表达不太连贯，且语言错误较多。
第五档:0-3分只能写出一些单词，不成句子，缺乏逻辑性，错误很多。注:以上答及评分标准仅供参考，可按照改卷要求做出适当调整
范文：
Eating Healthily
A healthy lifestyle is very imprtant fr us, s we have t eat healthily.
Fruits are healthy, such as strawberries, bananas and ranges. Vegetables are als healthy, t. Fr example, carrts and tmates are gd fr us. I like salad. It tastes gd. I als like milk and eggs, because they are gd fr ur health.
D yu want t keep healthy? Let me give yu sme advice. First, we shuld have a balanced diet. We can eat fresh vegetables and fruits every day. Secnd, dn’t eat t much junk fd. It will make us fat.
All in all, we can keep healthy if we have a gd eating habit.