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    2023-2024学年重庆市七年级(上)期末英语试卷

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    这是一份2023-2024学年重庆市七年级(上)期末英语试卷,共11页。试卷主要包含了5分,共9分), A等内容,欢迎下载使用。

    (满分:150分 考试时问:120分钟)
    第Ⅰ卷(共90分)
    Ⅰ. 听力测试。(共30分)
    第一节(每小题1.5分,共9分)
    听一遍。根据你所听到的句子,从A、B、C三个选项中选出最恰当的答语,并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
    1. A. Nice t meet yu, t.B. I’m fine, thanks.C. Yu are welcme.
    2. A. Yes, they are.B. Yes, it is.C. N, she isn’t.
    3. A. Gd mrning.B. See yu.C. Yes, please.
    4. A. This afternn.B. In the library.C. I’m thirteen.
    5. A. A pen.B. It’s red.C. P-E-N.
    6. A. Sunds gd.B. Me, t!C. I’m srry.
    第二节(每小题1.5分,共9分)
    听一遍。根据你所听到的对话和问题,从A、B、C三个选项中选出正确答案,并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
    7. A. Green.B. Blue.C. Black.
    8. A. Yes, he des.B. N, she desn’t.C. Yes, she des.
    9. A. 685-3939.B. 459-3939.C. 495-3639.
    10. A. Vlleyball.B. Baseball.C. Basketball.
    11. A. Brwn.B. Jack.C. Smith.
    12. A. Sme rice with vegetables.B. A chicken hamburger.C. Sme fruit salad.
    第三节(每小题1.5分,共6分)
    听两遍。根据你所听到的长对话,从A、B、C三个选项中选出正确答案,并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
    听第一段材料,回答第13和14小题。
    13. Why des Alan like art?
    A. Because it’s interesting.B. Because it’s relaxing.C. Because it’s easy.
    14. When des Alan have a math test?
    A. On Thursday mrning.B. On Friday mrning.C. On Thursday afternn.
    听第二段材料,回答第15和16小题。
    15. Where are the man and the wman?
    A. At a clthes stre.B. At schl.C. In a library.
    16. Hw much is the blue skirt?
    A. Twenty dllars.B. Thirty dllars.C. Frty dllars.
    第四节(每小题1.5分,共6分)
    听两遍。根据你所听到的短文内容,从A、B、C三个选项中选出正确答案,并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
    17. ________ is Mike’s father.
    A. TmB. JackC. Jerry
    18. Yu can see ________ in Mike’s brther’s rm.
    A. a radiB. tw basketballsC. tw sccer balls
    19. Mike’s rm is ________.
    A. bigB. smallC. tidy
    20. Where is the map?
    A. Under the desk.B. In the desk.C. On the desk.
    Ⅱ. 语法选择。(每小题1分,共10分)
    Hell, I’m Bb. Cme and meet my family.
    There is a nice pht f my family in my 21 rm. Lk! These are my parents, Jhn and Helen. The by with glasses is my brther, Peter. And this is me.
    My father is 37 and my mther is 22 , t. My parents teach English in a middle schl. They wrk hard and their students always say, “Yu are gd 23 !”.
    My brther and I g t 24 same schl. We g t schl 25 8:00 in the mrning. And we lve ur schl very much.
    Peter likes sccer. He says it’s 26 fr him. After schl, he ften 27 it with his classmates.
    I like art and I lve drawing pictures in my free time. Blue and purple 28 my favrite clrs.
    29 d my brther and I have lunch? We usually have lunch at schl. We like having lunch with ur friends 30 it’s really interesting.
    21. A. parents’B. parentsC. parent
    22. A. thirty-sixB. thirty-sevenC. thirty-eight
    23. A. sprts starsB. teachersC. sccer players
    24. A. /B. aC. the
    25. A. inB. atC. n
    26. A. difficultB. easyC. bring
    27. A. playsB. takesC. has
    28. A. isB. amC. are
    29. A. WhatB. WhenC. Where
    30. A. sB. becauseC. but
    Ⅲ. 完形填空。(每小题1.5分,共15分)
    根据短文内容,从A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个能填入相应空格内的最佳答案。并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
    Gina lves shpping. But she ften leaves (落下) sme f her things at 31 .
    One day, her mther wants her 32 sme fd. She gives 30 yuan t Gina. “Here 33 30 yuan. Please help me t buy sme bread, five eggs and tw carrts.” “ 34 , Mm!” Then Gina gets 30 yuan and ges t the stre.
    The stre is nt very big but it 35 different kinds f things. Gina buys sme bread 36 7 yuan. Five eggs and tw carrts are 15 yuan. She gives 30 yuan t the clerk (店员) 37 then takes the fd hme.
    Gina’s mm is 38 t see her bring the fd back hme. “Great, Gina!” she says. Gina is happy, t. “Mm, I dn’t frget (忘记) the things tday! Lk! I put 39 n the table.”
    Just then she finds that she leaves ne thing at the stre. “Srry, Mm. I dn’t leave the fd this time, but I leave 40 yuan there!”
    31. A. stresB. classrmsC. librariesD. hmes
    32. A. buyB. buyingC. t buyD. buys
    33. A. areB. isC. amD. be
    34. A. ThanksB. SrryC. Excuse meD. OK
    35. A. seesB. sellsC. buysD. needs
    36. A. inB. atC. frD. n
    37. A. andB. butC. sD. after
    38. A. happyB. busyC. healthyD. fun
    39. A. theyB. themC. theirD. theirs
    40. A. sixB. sevenC. eightD. nine
    Ⅳ. 阅读理解。(每小题2分,共30分)
    A
    41. Mr. and Mrs. Black with their 18-year-ld sn and 15-year-ld daughter g t Cming Museum f Glass. They need t pay (支付) ________.
    A. $15B. $30C. $45D. $60
    42. Yu can g t Hard Rck Cafe ________.
    A. at 8:00 am n MndayB. at 11:30 am n Friday
    C. at 11:30 pm n ThursdayD. at 10:30 am n Sunday
    43. Bth (都) Cring Museum f Glass and Hard Rck Cafe tell us ________.
    A. the phne numberB. the e-mailC. the mapD. the price
    B
    Interesting Knwledge (知识) abut Time
    44. Accrding t the chart abut internatinal time znes (根据时区的表格), when it is 4:00 p.m. in Beijing, it’s ________.
    A. 3:00 a.m. in LndnB. 9:00 p.m. in Paris
    C. 9: 00 a.m. in RmeD. 5: 00 p.m. in New Yrk
    45. Which f the fllwing sentences can be put in ▲ ?
    A. D peple have the clcks?B. D peple change the clcks?
    C. Des spring (春天) begin in March?D. Des summer (夏天) end in August?
    46. In 2024, peple in the UK put the clck frwards n ________.
    A. March 10thB. March 20thC. Nvember 3rdD. December 3rd
    47. Which f the fllwing sentences is NOT TRUE (不正确)?
    A. On the day f Dngzhi, the night is the lngest and the day is the shrtest.
    B. Dngzhi is usually n December 21st r 22nd.
    C. Dngzhi is imprtant in China but it desn’t have a lng histry.
    D. Peple usually eat dumplings (jiazi) t celebrate Dngzhi.
    C
    I’m Li Ming. I live in Chngqing, a city (城市) in the suthwest f China. It is a beautiful city with lvely peple. They are making ur city mre and mre (越来越) beautiful.
    My hme is nly abut 10 minutes’ walk t schl. Every mrning, I see a lt f peple n my way t schl.
    Lk! The street cleaners are cleaning the street. Mr. Zhang is ne f them. He starts wrking very early (早). He sweeps (清扫) the streets carefully. I want t thank him fr making ur city beautiful and nice.
    Mr. Ma has a bakery. He pens his shp early and he’s busy all the time. But I can always see the smile n his face. He lves his wrk. And peple ften g t his shp t buy bread and cakes.
    Mrs. Liang’s small bkstre is next t Mr. Ma’s. She starts wrking early, t. There’s a Stry Time in her bkstre every Friday evening. She reads the children interesting stries.
    We can buy beautiful flwers in Mrs. Hu’s flwer shp. She ges t the flwer market (市场) early every mrning t buy flwers fr her shp.
    That’s Mr. Lin’s Clthes Stre. We can buy great clthes in his stre. Smetimes peple can even buy the clthes fr their dgs there!
    They are all lvely (可爱) peple. They d their best t help us have a happy life.
    48. The underlined “They” in Paragraph 1 (第一段) is ________.
    A. peple in ChngqingB. Li Ming’s friends
    C. peple in ChinaD. Li Ming’s family
    49. If Li Ming wants t buy smething fr breakfast, he can g t ________ stre.
    A. Mr. Ma’sB. Mrs. Liang’sC. Mrs. Hu’sD. Mr. Lin’s
    50. Li Ming intrduces (介绍) ________ peple that he can see n his way t schl.
    A. furB. fiveC. sixD. seven
    51. Zhang Hua thinks these peple are lvely because ________.
    A. they are all Li Ming’s friendsB. they all wrk hard
    C. they wrk at the same shpD. they all like Li Ming
    D
    ①A man lives with his fur sns. One day, he tells each (每一个) f his sns t g and see what the same pear tree lks like in winter, spring, summer and autumn. After a year, he gathers (聚集) them tgether t ask them what they see.
    ②The first sn says that the tree is bare (光秃秃的) and ugly.
    ③The secnd sn answers, N!There are new green leaves. The tree brings me hpe (希望).”
    ④The third sn shakes (摇) his head. . He says the pear tree is full f flwers. . They smell (闻起来) s sweet and lk s beautiful.
    ⑤ “There are many pears, but n flwers!” the furth sn disagrees. “I see the happiness f gd harvest (丰收).”
    ⑥ The man then says t his sns, “Yu are all right. Yu get different answers because each f yu see nly ne seasn (季节) in the life f the pear tree.”
    ⑦ “Yu can’t judge (评判) a tree, a persn r yur life by nly ne seasn. If yu give up (放弃) in the winter, yu can’t see the hpe f yur spring, the beauty f yur summer and the harvest f yur autumn.”
    52. ________ says the tree brings him hpe.
    A. The first snB. The secnd snC. The third snD. The furth sn
    53. The fur sns get different answers because ________.
    A. they see the tree in different seasnsB. they see different pear trees
    C. they give up in the winterD. they dn’t like the pear tree
    54. The structure f this stry is ________.
    A. B.
    C. D.
    55. Which f the fllwing can be the best title (最适合的标题) f the stry?
    A. A Father And His SnsB. A Pear Tree
    C. Fur Pear TreesD. Different Seasns
    Ⅴ. 口语应用。(每小题1分,共5分)
    阅读下面对话,从方框内7个选项中选择5个恰当的句子完成此对话,并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
    A: Hell, Frank. 56
    B: I’m fine.
    A: 57
    B: Yes. My teachers are nice and my classmates are friendly.
    A: My teachers and classmates are nice, t.
    B: 58
    A: Yes. We have sme ball games and an art festival. Hw abut yu?
    B: We have sme fun things, t. 59
    A: That sunds gd! Can I g t yur English party?
    B: 60
    A: Great! See yu then.
    B: See yu.
    第Ⅱ卷(共60分)
    Ⅵ. 任务型阅读。(每小题2分,共8分)
    61. Accrding t the result (根据调查结果), d the students always have interest in study?
    _______________________________________________________________________________________________
    62. Why are Mr. Hu’s students nt interested in English nw?
    _______________________________________________________________________________________________
    63. What des Wang Wei’s mther help Wang Wei d?
    _______________________________________________________________________________________________
    64. If yu are Wang Wei, please cmplete (完成) the sentence “I ▲ .” (15-30个字)
    _______________________________________________________________________________________________
    Ⅶ. 根据首字母,汉语提示或所给单词的恰当形式填空。
    请将完整的单词写在答题卡上对应位置。(每小题1分,共8分)
    65. In my rm, my bks and my cmputer ________ (be) n the desk.
    66. Is this Mary’s skirt? N, that black skirt is ________ (she).
    67. I like ________ (西红柿) but I dn’t like carrts.
    68. After dinner, my grandfather always ________ (watch) sprts n TV.
    69. I r________ like t play sccer with my friends at schl.
    70. My sister’s birthday party is next week. Let’s think a________ the fd.
    71. Helen needs a ________ /ˈswetə(r)/ fr the art festival.
    72. There are 12 mnths in ne year. September is the n________ mnth.
    Ⅷ. 完成句子。(每空1分,共13分)
    根据所给提示,完成句子。每空一词,含缩略词。
    73. His sister likes bread and milk fr breakfast. (否定句)
    His sister ________ ________ bread r milk fr breakfast.
    74. Is that his mdel plane? (作否定回答)
    N, ________ ________.
    75. These blue scks are 5 dllars. (对划线部分提问)
    ________ ________ are these blue scks?
    76. We have a sccer game n Nvember 21st. (对划线部分提问)
    ________ ________ yu have a sccer game?
    77. Jack喜欢周二因为有体育和地理课。他们是他最喜欢的学科。
    Jack likes ________ because he has P. E. and gegraphy. They’re his favrite ________.
    78. Mrs. Green总是能以优惠的价格给她的孩子们买到衣服。
    Mrs. Green can always buy clthes fr her children ________ very ________ ________.
    Ⅸ. 原文填空。(每空1分,共5分)(本题中的数字需要用英文拼写)
    Dear students,
    We have sme interesting and fun things fr yu this 79 . On September 21st, we have a schl trip in the afternn. Octber is a great 80 . On the 12th and 15th, we have 81 ball games, sccer and vlleyball. Schl Day is n Octber 22nd. Yur parents can cme t ur schl. Next mnth, we have 82 art festival. It’s n Nvember 3rd. We have an English party n Nvember 30th. And n December 3rd, we have a bk sale in the schl library.
    This is a really busy term! 83 gd have time a!
    83. ________________________________________________ (连词成句)
    Ⅹ. 短文填空,请将完整的单词写在答题卡上对应位置。(每空2分,共16分)
    Peple like keeping animals at hme. Many like dgs, cats r birds 84 they lve their cmpany (陪伴). What d yu want t have? Fish are a gd idea. It is great f 85 t watch them swimming in their tanks (鱼缸). Here’s smething yu need t knw if (如果) yu 86 t keep fish.
    87 d fish need?
    First, fish need a cmfrtable and clean tank. Yu m 88 put enugh (足够) water int the tank. Then yu can put in sme water plants (植物). They can help make clean and pure water. Sme snails (蜗牛) are a great idea. Snails walk slwly with their “hmes” 89 the backs (背部). They are great cleaners. Finally, dn’t frget t change the water every week.
    Hw d yu feed (喂) fish?
    Yu can get fish 90 in fish stres. Mst is gd fr all kinds f fish. Just give the fish fd nce a day. Dn’t give yur fish t much. It is gd if yur fish can 91 their fd within (在……之内) abut 5 minutes. This will keep them healthy.
    By keeping fish, yu can learn t be respnsible and yur life will be mre clrful. Why nt g and buy sme fr yur winter vacatin nw?
    84._________85._________86._________87._________
    88._________89._________90._________91._________
    Ⅺ. 书面表达。(10分)
    每个人都需要朋友,有时候朋友是一束光,在寒冬给我们温暖;有时候朋友是一把伞,在风雨中陪伴着我们前行。相信你身边也有一位这样的朋友,他/她是怎么样的?请根据以下要点,以“My Friend”为题,介绍一位你的好朋友。

    要求:
    1. 词数:80~100词;
    2. 注意分段,语句通顺,语法正确;
    3. 文中不能出现真实姓名和学校。
    _______________________________________________________________________________________________
    _______________________________________________________________________________________________
    _______________________________________________________________________________________________
    _______________________________________________________________________________________________
    _______________________________________________________________________________________________
    _______________________________________________________________________________________________

    期末参考答案
    Ⅰ. 听力测试。
    1-6 ABCACA 7-12 CCBAAA 13-16 BCAB 17-20 ABAC
    Ⅱ. 语法选择。
    21-25 ABBCB 26-30 BACCB
    Ⅲ. 完形填空。
    31-35 ACBDB 36-40 CAABC
    Ⅵ. 阅读理解。
    41-43 BBA 44-47 CBAC 48-51 AABB 52-55 BACB
    Ⅴ. 口语应用。
    56-60 EDACG
    Ⅵ. 任务型阅读。
    61. Yes. /Yes, they d.
    62. Because English/it becmes difficult (nw).
    63. She helps Wang Wei (t) develp gd habits and learn t be psitive abut his study.
    64. 1) 15-30个字。
    2) 紧扣文章内容:围绕学习方法;好的学习习惯;积极的心态。
    (三点中至少答到一点;满足字数要求,无语法错误可得2分)
    Ⅶ. 根据首字母,汉语提示及句意补全单词或用所给单词的恰当形式填空。
    65. are 66. hers 67. tmates 68. watches 69. really 70. abut 71. sweater 72. ninth
    Ⅷ. 完成句子。
    73. desn’t like 74. it isn’t. 75. Hw much 76. When d
    77. Tuesday subjects 78. at gd / great prices
    Ⅸ. 原文填空。
    79. term 80. mnth 81. tw (写2不给分) 82. an 83. Have a gd time!
    Ⅹ. 短文填空。
    84. because85. fun86. want/like87. What
    88. must89. n90. fd91. eat/finish/have
    Ⅺ. 书面表达。


    Crning Museum f Glass
    Explre 35 centuries (世纪) f glass art and histry.
    Make yur wn (自己的) glass piece.
    Shp in ur GlassMarket.
    One Museum Way, Crning, NY 14830
    800-732-6845
    Hurs:
    Sun-Sat: 9 am-5 pm
    Clsed: January 1, Thanksgiving Day,
    and December 24 and 25
    Price:
    $15
    (Students Under 19 Free)
    Hard Rck Café Niagara Falls, USA
    333 Prspect St., NY 14303
    716-282-0007
    Hurs:
    Sun-Thu: 11:00 am-11:00 pm
    Fri-Sat: 11:00 am-00:00 am
    What is a time zne (区域)?
    A time zne exists (存在) when yu mve frm east t west n the earth.
    Place (地点)
    Time
    Beijing, China
    4 p.m.
    Lndn, the UK
    8 a.m.
    New Yrk, the USA
    3 a.m.
    Tky, Japan
    5 p.m.
    Paris, France
    9 a.m.
    Rme, Italy
    9 a.m.
    ▲ ?
    Yes. In the UK, they change (调整) the clcks twice a year. When spring begins, they put the clck frwards (向前) by ne hur. This gives mre hurs f daylight (日光) in the evening. In the middle f summer it gets dark (天黑) at abut 10 p.m.
    When summer ends, they put the clcks back by ne hur. This means (意味着) that students g t schl in daylight. In the middle f winter, the sun rises late at abut 8 a.m. and sets at abut 4 p.m.
    10 Mar3 Nv
    Frward 1 hurBack 1 hur
    10 Mar 2024-Daylight Saving Time Starts3 Nv 2024-Daylight Saving Time Ends
    What are Chinese 24 slar terms (节气)?
    The 24 slar terms have a lng histry in China. They shw the sun’s mtin (运动) every year. And they tell the earth’s trpical mvement and change f cld and ht seasns.
    Dngzhi (winter slstice) is very imprtant. It is usually n December 21st r 22nd. On that day, the night is the lngest and the day is the shrtest. T celebrate (庆祝) Dngzhi, peple usually eat dumplings (jiazi) with their family r friends.
    A. D yu have any interesting things this term?
    B. Have a gd time.
    C. Next Saturday, we have an English party.
    D. D yu like yur new schl?
    E. Hw are yu?
    F. Next Friday, we have a schl trip.
    G. That’s fr sure.
    We did (做了) a study survey (调查) last week and 100 students in Shuguang Middle Schl answered (回答了) ur questins. Here are sme f the questins and the results (结果).
    1. D yu have interest (兴趣) in study?
    2. D yu knw fr what we shuld study?
    3. D yu ask thers fr help?
    Mr. Hu, an English teacher
    I find my students are nt interested (感兴趣) in English nw because it becmes (变得) difficult. Sme f them dn't really have gd study methds.
    It's very imprtant fr the students t knw hw t study well. S I always help my students with it.
    “Read mre bks. Try t talk with yur classmates in English. G and learn sme English sngs. Yu can ask me fr help.” I always say.
    Wang Wei's mther
    Study is nt easy and it is nt always interesting. I agree (赞同) gd study habits cme first. S I help Wang Wei develp (养成) gd habits. Nw Wang Wei knws hw t make a plan (计划), where t find a gd place t study...
    Als, I think it's imprtant t be psitive (积极).When we cme acrss difficult prblems (遇到困难), we need t think abut what t d. S I help Wang Wei learn t be psitive abut his study.
    Wang Wei, 12, Grade 7
    Hell, I'm Wang Wei. My favrite subject is English. English is useful and interesting.
    English is mre and mre challenging (越来越有挑战的) nw. I ▲ .
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