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辽宁省东港市2024-2025学年八年级上学期期中教学质量监测英语试卷
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这是一份辽宁省东港市2024-2025学年八年级上学期期中教学质量监测英语试卷，文件包含辽宁省东港市2024-2025学年八年级上学期期中教学质量监测英语试卷+docx、听力音频mp3等2份试卷配套教学资源，其中试卷共11页， 欢迎下载使用。
考试时间：90分钟 试卷满分：100分
★第一部分选择题
I. 听录音, 按要求完成任务。
从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项(15分)
i. 听句子, 选择最佳答语。每个句子读一遍。(2. 5分)
1. A. Have fun. B. Well dne. C. Dn't wrry
2. A. Nt at all. B. Gd idea. C. Never mind.
3. A. Srry t hear that. B. Three times a year. C. Thank yu.
4. A. June 1st. B. Tuesday. C. In the afternn.
5. A. My pleasure. B. Gd fr yu. C. That's t bad.
ii: 听五段短对话, 选择正确答案。每段对话读一遍。(2. 5分)
6. What des Sandy like?
A. Junk fd B. Vegetables. C. Fruit
7. When des Jacky usually run?
A. In the mrning. B. In the afternn. C. In the evening.
8. Hw ften des Gina's mther g shpping?
A. Twice a day. B. Once a week. C. Once a year.
9. What des the man smetimes d?
A. Run. B. Swim. C. Playball games.
10. What's Dave's favrite TV prgram?
A. Chinese Cking. B. Animal Wrld. C. Sprts News.
iii. 听长对话, 选择正确答案, 对话读两遍。(5分)
11. Hw was the weather yesterday mrning?
A. Rainy. B. Sunny. C. Windy.
12. What did Tny d n the beach?
A. He played vlleyball. B. He flew a kite. C. He tk phts.
13. Hw lng did they play n the beach?
A. One hur. B. Tw hurs. C. Three hurs
14. Hw did they get hme?
A. By bus. B. By car. C. By bike.
15. Hw did Mark feel in the evening?
A. Angry. B. Wrried. C. Tired.
iv. 听短文, 选择正确答案。短文读两遍。(5分)
16. When did they have the talent shw?
A. Yesterday. B. Last Friday C. The day befre yesterday.
17. Hw many acts were there at the talent shw?
A. 10. B. 12. C. 20.
18. Wh was the best perfrmer?
A. Steve. B. Mark. C. Dennis.
19. What did Mary d at the talent shw?
A. She tld a funny stry.
B. She danced beautifully.
C. She sang an English sng.
20. What prize did Tm and his musical grup win?
A. The mst creative act. B. The best dancer. C. The ludest singer.
Ⅱ. 单项选择(共10小题, 每小题1分, 满分10分)
从每题所给的A 、B 、C 、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
21. 下面哪一个单词的重音在第二个音节上?
A. percent B. Internet C. serius D. culture
22. 下面句子四个选项中, 哪个可以连读?
It's always interesting t watch ther peple shw their talents.
A B C D
23. 下面四个句子中哪一个句尾应该读升调?
A. What's the best mvie theatre?
B. D yu want t watch a game shw?
C. Wh's mre hard-wrking at schl?
D. I bught smething special in New Yrk City.
24. —What is _________ river in China?
—The Yangtze River(长江).
A. lng B. lnger C. much lnger D. the lngest
25. Believe in yurself! Yur dream will cme true ________ yu put yur heart int it.
A. s that B. althugh C. as lng as D. as sn as
26. The tw bys _________ with each ther abut a basketball just nw.
A. fight B. fught C. are fighting D. will fight
27. — ____________ d yu g t the mvies?
—Hardly ever.
A. Hw many B. Hw ld C. Hw ften D. Hw much
28. Mulan _________ like a by and tk her father’s place t fight the enemy.
A. made up B. dressed up C. gt up D. put up
29. The dumplings are ___________ than the ndles, I think.
A. very nice B. the mst delicius
C. much delicius D. much mre delicius
30. —What d yu think f talk shws?
—They are very interesting. I ___________ them.
A. lve B. dn't mind C. dn't like D. can't stand
Ⅲ. 阅读理解(共20小题, 每小题1. 5分, 满分30分)
第一节阅读下面语言材料, 从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
What d yu talk abut when yu plan a trip? Mst peple wuld answer that it is the chice f the place. But I think whm t travel with might be the mst imprtant. A survey (调查)amng American children shws that Mm is the tp pick fr a vacatin pal(伙伴). S, talk abut it with yur classmates: D yu like mther-kid trips r d yu like travelling with yur best friend?
31. What des the writer think is the mst imprtant t plan a trip?
A. Why t travel. B. When t travel.
C. Hw t travel. D. Whm t travel with.
32. Accrding t the survey, wh is the best travel pal?
A. Brther r sister. B. Father. C. Mther. D. Best friend.
33. In the survey, __________ children want Dad t be their travel pal.
A. 16 B. 26 C. 50 D. 54
34. In which part f the magazine can we read the text?
A. Art B. Travel. C. Science. D. Histry.
B
Sharn wanted t make sme mney. She was nly 15 years ld, s she culdn't drive , deliver fd(送外卖)r get a jb at a stre, but she culd babysit kids n weekends. Her neighbr Mrs. Brwn had tw kids. Bth Mr. and Mrs. Brwn were always s busy that they hardly went ut at night. But they still went ut nce r twice a mnth. There were ther high schl girls lking after their kids befre, s why culdn't Sharn d it?
One day Sharn went t Mrs. Brwn's hme and tld her what she wanted t d. Mrs. Brwn was surprised at first, but she didn't seem t be against(反对)the idea. Sharn tried t sund helpful. Sharn said she lived next dr, and it wuld be s cnvenient. Mrs. Brwn said she'd tell her if she needed her.
One Saturday night, Mrs. Brwn went t Sharn's huse and asked her fr help. Sharn watched the kids, Peter and 'Michelle, that night. Peter was nly seven mnths ld, s he culd nly drink milk. Michelle was 12 years ld. Sharn sang sngs fr Peter, and he fell asleep sn. Sharn helped Michelle with her hmewrk and read stries t her. It was very interesting.
Mr. and Mrs. Brwn went back tw hurs later. They were very happy t see everything was OK. They paid Sharn fr her wrk and thanked her. It seemed they might ask her the next time. Fr Sharn, it was a nice experience(经历)and a great way t make sme mney.
35. What culd 15-year-ld Sharn d t make sme mney n weekends?
A. Drive a car. B. Get a jb at a stre. C. Lk after kids. D. Deliver fd.
36. The underlined wrd “cnvenient ”in Paragraph 2 prbably means“ ”
A. nisy B. easy C. serius D. dangerus
37. Hw lng did Sharn lk after the kids fr Mrs. Brwn that night?
A. Mre than tw hurs. B. Over three hurs.
C. Less than half an hur. D. Less than tw hurs.
38. What des this text mainly talk abut?
A. The kids f Sharn's neighbrs.
B. The ways f finding a gd jb.
C. Sharn's ways t make sme mney.
D. Sharn's first experience f lking after kids.
C
A businessman was grwing ld. He called all the yung men in his cmpany tgether. He said, “I am ging t give each f yu a seed( 种 子 )tday. I want yu t plant the seed. I will chse the next chief executive fficer (CEO) accrding t yur plants. "
Jim gt a seed. He went hme happily and planted the seed in a pt(罐子)carefully. Everyday, he watered it. After abut three weeks, ther men began t talk abut their seeds and plants. Jim was a little sad because nthing had happened since he planted the seed in the pt. He just kept watering the seed every day. He tried t make the seed grw, but he still failed.
A year later, all the yung men brught their plants t the businessman. Jim put his empty pt n the flr and ther men laughed. The businessman asked what had happened t the seed. Jim tld him the stry abut it. The businessman said t the ther yung men, “Jim is the next CEO. ”
“Hw culd he be the CEO? ”the thers asked. Then the businessman said, “One year ag, I gave yu all biled seeds. It was impssible fr them t grw. The yung man was the nly ne with hnesty(诚实)t bring me a pt with my seed in it. ”
39. Frm Paragraph l we can knw that a businessman wanted t _______________.
A. play a jke B. plant the seeds
C. chse the next CEO D. get sme gd plants
40. Which is the right rder(顺序)f Jim's stry?
① Other men laughed at him.
② Jim watered the seed every day.
③ The businessman tld the truth.
④ Jim gt a seed and planted it in a pt.
⑤ Jim was a little sad because the seed didn't grw.
A. ④②⑤①③ B. ②④⑤①③C. ①④②③⑤ D. ④②⑤③①
41. What did Jim get at last ?
A. The seed. B. The pt. C. The plant. D. The jb f the CEO.
42. What can we learn frm the text?
A. Everyne can becme the CEO.
B. Hnesty is very imprtant t us.
C. It's implite t laugh at ther peple.
D. Jim is the cleverest man in the cmpany.
D
Yu want t live a happier life? Try laughing fr n reasn. That's hw many peple start their day at Laughter Yga(瑜伽)Clubs arund the wrld, and many dctrs nw think that having a gd laugh might be ne f the best ways t stay healthy.
The first Laughter Yga Club was started in Mumbai, India, in 1995 by Dr. Madan Kataria. “Yung children laugh abut 300 times a day. Adults laugh between 7 and 15 times a day, ”says Dr. Kataria. “Everyne is naturally gd at laughing. We want peple t feel happy with their lives. ”
A study at the UCLA Schl f Medicine in Califrnia shws that laughter reduces stress (减缓压力) and is very gd fr the heart. Laughter Yga is used in many hspitals fr the illness: treatment(疾病治疗)and it is als practiced in schls, factries and ld peple's hmes.
S what is Laughter Yga? I went t my nearest Laughter Yga Club t find ut. I was quite nervus abut it. I didn't like the idea f laughing with thers. First, ur laughter teacher tld us t clap ur hands and say, “H h h, ha ha ha. ”He said ur bdies can't tell the difference between fake laughter and real laughter, s they bth wrk, After ten minutes everybdy in the rm was laughing fr real! We did different kinds f laughter exercises and finally I was surprised by hw relaxed I felt.
S if yu're sad(伤心的)abut smething, just start laughing. As Dr. Kataria says, “When yu laugh, yu change, and when yu change, the wrld arund yu changes. ”
43. Hw des the writer begin the text?
A. By telling a stry. B. By giving an example.
C. By asking a questin. D. By listing(列出)numbers.
44. What des “it” in paragraph 3 refer t(指代)?
A. Laughter. B. The study. C. Illness treatment. D. Laughter Yga.
45. Hw did the writer feel in his Laughter Yga Club experience?
a. Nervus. b. Surprised. c. Sad d. Relaxed.
A. abd B. abc C. acd D. bcd
46. What's the writer's purpse(目的)in writing the text?
A. T ask us t jin Laughter Yga Club.
B. T shw us different ways f laughing.
C. T advise us t laugh fr a happier life
D. T tell us different kinds f Laughter Yga Clubs.
第二节阅读短文, 从方框内所给的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项, 其中有一个多余的选项。
Why d we call the frefinger shizhi?
In Chinese, shi means(意思是)“fd” — 47____________
A lng time ag, everyne in China ate with their hands. At that time, peple ften used their frefingers t taste fd, such as sup. They'd quickly dip(浸入)their frefingers int the sup. 48 _______________That's why the frefinger became knwn as the “fd finger”.
49 ____________ Perhaps because it is mre flexible(灵活的)and easier t use than ther fingers.
There is a Chinese idim(习语)shizhi dadng. It means that ne's frefinger is “jumping”. A stry says that during the Spring and Autumn Perid(春秋时期), there lived a man named Gngzi Sng. He liked eating very much. 50__________ Nw we use this idim t shw hw excited we get when we see tasty fd cming ur way.
IV. 完型填空(共10小题, 每小题1分, 满分10分)
阅读短文, 理解其大意, 从A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Animals are imprtant fr us. Sme peple see animals as their friends, and sme even like keeping a cat r a(an) 51 at hme because they're cute.
After bringing them hme, animals can 52 with peple fr a lngtime. The writer f the Natinal Academy f Sciences finds that dgs enjy lking at peple's eyes. That's why many peple feel dgs are s lvely when they lk at dgs' big 53 . Sme scientists als find that animals can understand peple because they can learn abut the feelings quickly and 54 , When peple are sad, animals can nt nly knw it at nce but als make peple feel warm and 55.
We shuld be friendly t animals. Animals need hme, fd and drink. S we need t 56 them thse things. Learning t 57 animals at hme helps children becme kind. We shuld als ntice the situatin f animals. The bad news is that many animals dn't have 58 land(土地)t live in because the cities are getting bigger and bigger. S we shuld 59 them when they are in truble.
It's time fr us t d smething. Setting up nature parks is a gd 60 . Let's find mre ways t help them.
51. A. kidB. umbrellaC. flwerD. dg
52. A. cmpeteB. stayC. talkD. feed
53. A. nsesB. muthsC. eyesD. ears
54. A. widelyB. healthilyC. hardlyD. smartly
55. A. happyB. wrriedC. interestedD. bred
56. A. tellB. teachC. giveD. pst
57. A. lk upB. lk afterC. lk atD. lk fr
58. A. enughB. magicC. famusD. similar
59. A. helpB. frgetC. shwD. leave
60. A. stryB. wayC. questinD. menu
★ 第二部分 非选择题
V. 语篇填空(共10小题, 每小题1分, 满分10分)
阅读短文, 在空白处填入一个适当的单词, 或用括号内所给词的正确形式填空, 使 短文通顺连贯。
D peple have great breakfasts? Many scientists think breakfast is 61_______ (much) imprtant ne f the three meals. We did a survey abut it n the website(网站). And 14, 594 peple answered 62 __________ (we) questins. The survey had simple questins, such 63________“Hw ften d yu eat breakfast? ”, “D yu eat breakfast 64_________ (quick)? ” and “What d yu have fr breakfast? ”It had difficult questins, t, like “D yu think breakfast is 65________ imprtant meal fr yu? Why? And “Hw d yu feel withut having breakfast? ”
Frm the 66________ (result) f the survey, we knew that many ffice wrkers didn't have breakfast, 67_________ they knew it was imprtant. Only 34%f them tk time t eat the 68________ (ne) meal f the day. And many mthers said that they wanted their children 69_________(have) a gd breakfast, but they were t busy getting ready fr schl t have breakfast. The survey als shwed that abut 77% f the yung kids 70________ (eat) breakfast every day, but nly 50% f the middle schl students and 36% f the high schl students did s.
VI. 阅读与表达(共4小题, 71-73小题, 每小题2分, 74小题4分；满分10分)
阅读短文, 然后根据内容回答问题。
Dear Alice,
I hpe yu're well. I'm n vacatin in Lndn with my friend Mary. We arrived by plane n Mnday mrning and tk a taxi t ur htel. I went fr a walk in Hyde Park but Mary didn't cme with me because she was tired.
Then n Tuesday we saw the clck, Big Ben, and Buckingham Palace. Queen Elizabeth lives in the Palace, but we didn't see her! I bught sme presents but Mary didn't buy anything!
The next day we visited the British Museum and had dinner in a Chinese restaurant!
On Thursday mrning we relaxed. Then we went t Twer Bridge n the River Thames and lked at the city. It's very big!
Finally tday I did sme shpping and Mary listened t a cncert in the park. I came back t the htel and read the newspaper. I tk lts f phts and I'm sending(发送) them with this e-mail t yu!
Tmrrw mrning we're ging t fly hme. It was a shrt vacatin, but it was great! Say hell t yur mum and dad.
Lve,
Tara
71. Hw did Tara and Mary g t Lndn fr a vacatin?
________________________________________________________________________
72. What did Tara and Mary d n Wednesday?
________________________________________________________________________
73. Hw many days did Tara and Mary stay in Lndn?
________________________________________________________________________
74. D yu like taking a trip n yur vacatin? Why? Write 25 wrds r mre.
________________________________________________________________________
V. 书面表达(满分15分)
75. 假设你是李辉。你将参加校报“英语园地”栏目举办的“我的朋友我来谈”征文比赛, 请结合自己实际和要点提示, 写一篇短文介绍一下你和你的朋友。
要点如下：
(1)外貌、性格、爱好等方面的异同；
(2)发生在你们之间的一件令你难忘的事；
(3)你的交友观。 注意：
(1)词数为70左右；
(2)可适当增加细节, 以使行文连贯；
(3)文章的开头结尾已给出, 不计入总词数；
(4)文中不能出现真实姓名及学校名称。
Gd mrning, ladies and gentlemen!
Tday my speech tpic is “My friend and I” .
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________That's all fr my speech.Thank yu!
2024--2025学年度上学期期中教学质量监测
八年级英语试卷
考试时间：90分钟 试卷满分：100分
★第一部分 选择题
1-20略。
Ⅱ. 单项选择(共10小题, 每小题1分, 满分10分)
21-25 AABDC 26-30 CCBCA
Ⅲ. 阅读理解(共20小题, 每小题1. 5分, 满分30分)
第一节阅读下面语言材料, 从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
31-34 DCBB 35-38 CBAD 39-42 CADB 43-46 CDAC
第二节阅读短文, 从方框内所给的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项, 其中有一个多余的选项。
47-50 ADCE
IV. 完型填空(共10小题, 每小题1分, 满分10分)
51-55 DBCDA 56-60 CBAAB
★ 第二部分 非选择题
V. 语篇填空(共10小题, 每小题1分, 满分10分)
61. the mst 62. ur 63. as 64. quickly 65. an
66. results 67. althugh 68. first 69. t have 70. ate
VI. 阅读与表达(共4小题, 71-73小题, 每小题2分, 74小题4分；满分10分)
71. By plane.
72. They visited the British Museum and had dinner in a Chinese restaurant.
73. Five days.
74. Any reasnable answer will be OK.
V. 书面表达(满分15分)
略。Kids' tp picks fr vacatin pals
Mm 27%
Best friend 25%
Dad 13%
Brther r sister 8%
Pet 7%
Frm: Hliday Inn Resrt Survey f 200 US children aged 6-17
A. s shizhi means“fd finger(手指)”.
B. Why did everyne eat with their hands at that time?.
C. But why did peple chse the frefinger t d this?
D. Then, they'd put the finger int their muth and taste it.
E. Every time his frefinger was “jumping”, he wuld eat a delicius dish next.
考试时间：90分钟 试卷满分：100分
★第一部分选择题
I. 听录音, 按要求完成任务。
从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项(15分)
i. 听句子, 选择最佳答语。每个句子读一遍。(2. 5分)
1. A. Have fun. B. Well dne. C. Dn't wrry
2. A. Nt at all. B. Gd idea. C. Never mind.
3. A. Srry t hear that. B. Three times a year. C. Thank yu.
4. A. June 1st. B. Tuesday. C. In the afternn.
5. A. My pleasure. B. Gd fr yu. C. That's t bad.
ii: 听五段短对话, 选择正确答案。每段对话读一遍。(2. 5分)
6. What des Sandy like?
A. Junk fd B. Vegetables. C. Fruit
7. When des Jacky usually run?
A. In the mrning. B. In the afternn. C. In the evening.
8. Hw ften des Gina's mther g shpping?
A. Twice a day. B. Once a week. C. Once a year.
9. What des the man smetimes d?
A. Run. B. Swim. C. Playball games.
10. What's Dave's favrite TV prgram?
A. Chinese Cking. B. Animal Wrld. C. Sprts News.
iii. 听长对话, 选择正确答案, 对话读两遍。(5分)
11. Hw was the weather yesterday mrning?
A. Rainy. B. Sunny. C. Windy.
12. What did Tny d n the beach?
A. He played vlleyball. B. He flew a kite. C. He tk phts.
13. Hw lng did they play n the beach?
A. One hur. B. Tw hurs. C. Three hurs
14. Hw did they get hme?
A. By bus. B. By car. C. By bike.
15. Hw did Mark feel in the evening?
A. Angry. B. Wrried. C. Tired.
iv. 听短文, 选择正确答案。短文读两遍。(5分)
16. When did they have the talent shw?
A. Yesterday. B. Last Friday C. The day befre yesterday.
17. Hw many acts were there at the talent shw?
A. 10. B. 12. C. 20.
18. Wh was the best perfrmer?
A. Steve. B. Mark. C. Dennis.
19. What did Mary d at the talent shw?
A. She tld a funny stry.
B. She danced beautifully.
C. She sang an English sng.
20. What prize did Tm and his musical grup win?
A. The mst creative act. B. The best dancer. C. The ludest singer.
Ⅱ. 单项选择(共10小题, 每小题1分, 满分10分)
从每题所给的A 、B 、C 、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
21. 下面哪一个单词的重音在第二个音节上?
A. percent B. Internet C. serius D. culture
22. 下面句子四个选项中, 哪个可以连读?
It's always interesting t watch ther peple shw their talents.
A B C D
23. 下面四个句子中哪一个句尾应该读升调?
A. What's the best mvie theatre?
B. D yu want t watch a game shw?
C. Wh's mre hard-wrking at schl?
D. I bught smething special in New Yrk City.
24. —What is _________ river in China?
—The Yangtze River(长江).
A. lng B. lnger C. much lnger D. the lngest
25. Believe in yurself! Yur dream will cme true ________ yu put yur heart int it.
A. s that B. althugh C. as lng as D. as sn as
26. The tw bys _________ with each ther abut a basketball just nw.
A. fight B. fught C. are fighting D. will fight
27. — ____________ d yu g t the mvies?
—Hardly ever.
A. Hw many B. Hw ld C. Hw ften D. Hw much
28. Mulan _________ like a by and tk her father’s place t fight the enemy.
A. made up B. dressed up C. gt up D. put up
29. The dumplings are ___________ than the ndles, I think.
A. very nice B. the mst delicius
C. much delicius D. much mre delicius
30. —What d yu think f talk shws?
—They are very interesting. I ___________ them.
A. lve B. dn't mind C. dn't like D. can't stand
Ⅲ. 阅读理解(共20小题, 每小题1. 5分, 满分30分)
第一节阅读下面语言材料, 从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
What d yu talk abut when yu plan a trip? Mst peple wuld answer that it is the chice f the place. But I think whm t travel with might be the mst imprtant. A survey (调查)amng American children shws that Mm is the tp pick fr a vacatin pal(伙伴). S, talk abut it with yur classmates: D yu like mther-kid trips r d yu like travelling with yur best friend?
31. What des the writer think is the mst imprtant t plan a trip?
A. Why t travel. B. When t travel.
C. Hw t travel. D. Whm t travel with.
32. Accrding t the survey, wh is the best travel pal?
A. Brther r sister. B. Father. C. Mther. D. Best friend.
33. In the survey, __________ children want Dad t be their travel pal.
A. 16 B. 26 C. 50 D. 54
34. In which part f the magazine can we read the text?
A. Art B. Travel. C. Science. D. Histry.
B
Sharn wanted t make sme mney. She was nly 15 years ld, s she culdn't drive , deliver fd(送外卖)r get a jb at a stre, but she culd babysit kids n weekends. Her neighbr Mrs. Brwn had tw kids. Bth Mr. and Mrs. Brwn were always s busy that they hardly went ut at night. But they still went ut nce r twice a mnth. There were ther high schl girls lking after their kids befre, s why culdn't Sharn d it?
One day Sharn went t Mrs. Brwn's hme and tld her what she wanted t d. Mrs. Brwn was surprised at first, but she didn't seem t be against(反对)the idea. Sharn tried t sund helpful. Sharn said she lived next dr, and it wuld be s cnvenient. Mrs. Brwn said she'd tell her if she needed her.
One Saturday night, Mrs. Brwn went t Sharn's huse and asked her fr help. Sharn watched the kids, Peter and 'Michelle, that night. Peter was nly seven mnths ld, s he culd nly drink milk. Michelle was 12 years ld. Sharn sang sngs fr Peter, and he fell asleep sn. Sharn helped Michelle with her hmewrk and read stries t her. It was very interesting.
Mr. and Mrs. Brwn went back tw hurs later. They were very happy t see everything was OK. They paid Sharn fr her wrk and thanked her. It seemed they might ask her the next time. Fr Sharn, it was a nice experience(经历)and a great way t make sme mney.
35. What culd 15-year-ld Sharn d t make sme mney n weekends?
A. Drive a car. B. Get a jb at a stre. C. Lk after kids. D. Deliver fd.
36. The underlined wrd “cnvenient ”in Paragraph 2 prbably means“ ”
A. nisy B. easy C. serius D. dangerus
37. Hw lng did Sharn lk after the kids fr Mrs. Brwn that night?
A. Mre than tw hurs. B. Over three hurs.
C. Less than half an hur. D. Less than tw hurs.
38. What des this text mainly talk abut?
A. The kids f Sharn's neighbrs.
B. The ways f finding a gd jb.
C. Sharn's ways t make sme mney.
D. Sharn's first experience f lking after kids.
C
A businessman was grwing ld. He called all the yung men in his cmpany tgether. He said, “I am ging t give each f yu a seed( 种 子 )tday. I want yu t plant the seed. I will chse the next chief executive fficer (CEO) accrding t yur plants. "
Jim gt a seed. He went hme happily and planted the seed in a pt(罐子)carefully. Everyday, he watered it. After abut three weeks, ther men began t talk abut their seeds and plants. Jim was a little sad because nthing had happened since he planted the seed in the pt. He just kept watering the seed every day. He tried t make the seed grw, but he still failed.
A year later, all the yung men brught their plants t the businessman. Jim put his empty pt n the flr and ther men laughed. The businessman asked what had happened t the seed. Jim tld him the stry abut it. The businessman said t the ther yung men, “Jim is the next CEO. ”
“Hw culd he be the CEO? ”the thers asked. Then the businessman said, “One year ag, I gave yu all biled seeds. It was impssible fr them t grw. The yung man was the nly ne with hnesty(诚实)t bring me a pt with my seed in it. ”
39. Frm Paragraph l we can knw that a businessman wanted t _______________.
A. play a jke B. plant the seeds
C. chse the next CEO D. get sme gd plants
40. Which is the right rder(顺序)f Jim's stry?
① Other men laughed at him.
② Jim watered the seed every day.
③ The businessman tld the truth.
④ Jim gt a seed and planted it in a pt.
⑤ Jim was a little sad because the seed didn't grw.
A. ④②⑤①③ B. ②④⑤①③C. ①④②③⑤ D. ④②⑤③①
41. What did Jim get at last ?
A. The seed. B. The pt. C. The plant. D. The jb f the CEO.
42. What can we learn frm the text?
A. Everyne can becme the CEO.
B. Hnesty is very imprtant t us.
C. It's implite t laugh at ther peple.
D. Jim is the cleverest man in the cmpany.
D
Yu want t live a happier life? Try laughing fr n reasn. That's hw many peple start their day at Laughter Yga(瑜伽)Clubs arund the wrld, and many dctrs nw think that having a gd laugh might be ne f the best ways t stay healthy.
The first Laughter Yga Club was started in Mumbai, India, in 1995 by Dr. Madan Kataria. “Yung children laugh abut 300 times a day. Adults laugh between 7 and 15 times a day, ”says Dr. Kataria. “Everyne is naturally gd at laughing. We want peple t feel happy with their lives. ”
A study at the UCLA Schl f Medicine in Califrnia shws that laughter reduces stress (减缓压力) and is very gd fr the heart. Laughter Yga is used in many hspitals fr the illness: treatment(疾病治疗)and it is als practiced in schls, factries and ld peple's hmes.
S what is Laughter Yga? I went t my nearest Laughter Yga Club t find ut. I was quite nervus abut it. I didn't like the idea f laughing with thers. First, ur laughter teacher tld us t clap ur hands and say, “H h h, ha ha ha. ”He said ur bdies can't tell the difference between fake laughter and real laughter, s they bth wrk, After ten minutes everybdy in the rm was laughing fr real! We did different kinds f laughter exercises and finally I was surprised by hw relaxed I felt.
S if yu're sad(伤心的)abut smething, just start laughing. As Dr. Kataria says, “When yu laugh, yu change, and when yu change, the wrld arund yu changes. ”
43. Hw des the writer begin the text?
A. By telling a stry. B. By giving an example.
C. By asking a questin. D. By listing(列出)numbers.
44. What des “it” in paragraph 3 refer t(指代)?
A. Laughter. B. The study. C. Illness treatment. D. Laughter Yga.
45. Hw did the writer feel in his Laughter Yga Club experience?
a. Nervus. b. Surprised. c. Sad d. Relaxed.
A. abd B. abc C. acd D. bcd
46. What's the writer's purpse(目的)in writing the text?
A. T ask us t jin Laughter Yga Club.
B. T shw us different ways f laughing.
C. T advise us t laugh fr a happier life
D. T tell us different kinds f Laughter Yga Clubs.
第二节阅读短文, 从方框内所给的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项, 其中有一个多余的选项。
Why d we call the frefinger shizhi?
In Chinese, shi means(意思是)“fd” — 47____________
A lng time ag, everyne in China ate with their hands. At that time, peple ften used their frefingers t taste fd, such as sup. They'd quickly dip(浸入)their frefingers int the sup. 48 _______________That's why the frefinger became knwn as the “fd finger”.
49 ____________ Perhaps because it is mre flexible(灵活的)and easier t use than ther fingers.
There is a Chinese idim(习语)shizhi dadng. It means that ne's frefinger is “jumping”. A stry says that during the Spring and Autumn Perid(春秋时期), there lived a man named Gngzi Sng. He liked eating very much. 50__________ Nw we use this idim t shw hw excited we get when we see tasty fd cming ur way.
IV. 完型填空(共10小题, 每小题1分, 满分10分)
阅读短文, 理解其大意, 从A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Animals are imprtant fr us. Sme peple see animals as their friends, and sme even like keeping a cat r a(an) 51 at hme because they're cute.
After bringing them hme, animals can 52 with peple fr a lngtime. The writer f the Natinal Academy f Sciences finds that dgs enjy lking at peple's eyes. That's why many peple feel dgs are s lvely when they lk at dgs' big 53 . Sme scientists als find that animals can understand peple because they can learn abut the feelings quickly and 54 , When peple are sad, animals can nt nly knw it at nce but als make peple feel warm and 55.
We shuld be friendly t animals. Animals need hme, fd and drink. S we need t 56 them thse things. Learning t 57 animals at hme helps children becme kind. We shuld als ntice the situatin f animals. The bad news is that many animals dn't have 58 land(土地)t live in because the cities are getting bigger and bigger. S we shuld 59 them when they are in truble.
It's time fr us t d smething. Setting up nature parks is a gd 60 . Let's find mre ways t help them.
51. A. kidB. umbrellaC. flwerD. dg
52. A. cmpeteB. stayC. talkD. feed
53. A. nsesB. muthsC. eyesD. ears
54. A. widelyB. healthilyC. hardlyD. smartly
55. A. happyB. wrriedC. interestedD. bred
56. A. tellB. teachC. giveD. pst
57. A. lk upB. lk afterC. lk atD. lk fr
58. A. enughB. magicC. famusD. similar
59. A. helpB. frgetC. shwD. leave
60. A. stryB. wayC. questinD. menu
★ 第二部分 非选择题
V. 语篇填空(共10小题, 每小题1分, 满分10分)
阅读短文, 在空白处填入一个适当的单词, 或用括号内所给词的正确形式填空, 使 短文通顺连贯。
D peple have great breakfasts? Many scientists think breakfast is 61_______ (much) imprtant ne f the three meals. We did a survey abut it n the website(网站). And 14, 594 peple answered 62 __________ (we) questins. The survey had simple questins, such 63________“Hw ften d yu eat breakfast? ”, “D yu eat breakfast 64_________ (quick)? ” and “What d yu have fr breakfast? ”It had difficult questins, t, like “D yu think breakfast is 65________ imprtant meal fr yu? Why? And “Hw d yu feel withut having breakfast? ”
Frm the 66________ (result) f the survey, we knew that many ffice wrkers didn't have breakfast, 67_________ they knew it was imprtant. Only 34%f them tk time t eat the 68________ (ne) meal f the day. And many mthers said that they wanted their children 69_________(have) a gd breakfast, but they were t busy getting ready fr schl t have breakfast. The survey als shwed that abut 77% f the yung kids 70________ (eat) breakfast every day, but nly 50% f the middle schl students and 36% f the high schl students did s.
VI. 阅读与表达(共4小题, 71-73小题, 每小题2分, 74小题4分；满分10分)
阅读短文, 然后根据内容回答问题。
Dear Alice,
I hpe yu're well. I'm n vacatin in Lndn with my friend Mary. We arrived by plane n Mnday mrning and tk a taxi t ur htel. I went fr a walk in Hyde Park but Mary didn't cme with me because she was tired.
Then n Tuesday we saw the clck, Big Ben, and Buckingham Palace. Queen Elizabeth lives in the Palace, but we didn't see her! I bught sme presents but Mary didn't buy anything!
The next day we visited the British Museum and had dinner in a Chinese restaurant!
On Thursday mrning we relaxed. Then we went t Twer Bridge n the River Thames and lked at the city. It's very big!
Finally tday I did sme shpping and Mary listened t a cncert in the park. I came back t the htel and read the newspaper. I tk lts f phts and I'm sending(发送) them with this e-mail t yu!
Tmrrw mrning we're ging t fly hme. It was a shrt vacatin, but it was great! Say hell t yur mum and dad.
Lve,
Tara
71. Hw did Tara and Mary g t Lndn fr a vacatin?
________________________________________________________________________
72. What did Tara and Mary d n Wednesday?
________________________________________________________________________
73. Hw many days did Tara and Mary stay in Lndn?
________________________________________________________________________
74. D yu like taking a trip n yur vacatin? Why? Write 25 wrds r mre.
________________________________________________________________________
V. 书面表达(满分15分)
75. 假设你是李辉。你将参加校报“英语园地”栏目举办的“我的朋友我来谈”征文比赛, 请结合自己实际和要点提示, 写一篇短文介绍一下你和你的朋友。
要点如下：
(1)外貌、性格、爱好等方面的异同；
(2)发生在你们之间的一件令你难忘的事；
(3)你的交友观。 注意：
(1)词数为70左右；
(2)可适当增加细节, 以使行文连贯；
(3)文章的开头结尾已给出, 不计入总词数；
(4)文中不能出现真实姓名及学校名称。
Gd mrning, ladies and gentlemen!
Tday my speech tpic is “My friend and I” .
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________That's all fr my speech.Thank yu!
2024--2025学年度上学期期中教学质量监测
八年级英语试卷
考试时间：90分钟 试卷满分：100分
★第一部分 选择题
1-20略。
Ⅱ. 单项选择(共10小题, 每小题1分, 满分10分)
21-25 AABDC 26-30 CCBCA
Ⅲ. 阅读理解(共20小题, 每小题1. 5分, 满分30分)
第一节阅读下面语言材料, 从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
31-34 DCBB 35-38 CBAD 39-42 CADB 43-46 CDAC
第二节阅读短文, 从方框内所给的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项, 其中有一个多余的选项。
47-50 ADCE
IV. 完型填空(共10小题, 每小题1分, 满分10分)
51-55 DBCDA 56-60 CBAAB
★ 第二部分 非选择题
V. 语篇填空(共10小题, 每小题1分, 满分10分)
61. the mst 62. ur 63. as 64. quickly 65. an
66. results 67. althugh 68. first 69. t have 70. ate
VI. 阅读与表达(共4小题, 71-73小题, 每小题2分, 74小题4分；满分10分)
71. By plane.
72. They visited the British Museum and had dinner in a Chinese restaurant.
73. Five days.
74. Any reasnable answer will be OK.
V. 书面表达(满分15分)
略。Kids' tp picks fr vacatin pals
Mm 27%
Best friend 25%
Dad 13%
Brther r sister 8%
Pet 7%
Frm: Hliday Inn Resrt Survey f 200 US children aged 6-17
A. s shizhi means“fd finger(手指)”.
B. Why did everyne eat with their hands at that time?.
C. But why did peple chse the frefinger t d this?
D. Then, they'd put the finger int their muth and taste it.
E. Every time his frefinger was “jumping”, he wuld eat a delicius dish next.
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