重庆市凤鸣山中学教育集团校2024-2025学年七年级上学期期中英语试题

这是一份重庆市凤鸣山中学教育集团校2024-2025学年七年级上学期期中英语试题，文件包含重庆市凤鸣山中学教育集团校2024-2025学年七年级上学期期中英语试题docx、初一英语半期听力mp3等2份试卷配套教学资源，其中试卷共11页， 欢迎下载使用。
考试说明：1．考试时间：120分钟；2．试题总分150分；3．试卷页数8页
第Ⅰ卷（共96分）
Ⅰ．听力测试。（共30分）
第一节（每小题1.5分，共9分）
听一遍。根据你所听到的句子，从A、B、C三个选项中选出最恰当的答语，并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
1．A．Gd mrning! B．Gd afternn! C．Gd evening!
2．A．China. B．Tmat plants. C．Baby chickens.
3．A．Yes, it is. B．N, it isn’t. C．Yes, I am.
4．A．Bttle. B．B--t-t-l-e. C．A bttle.
5．A．It’s a ruler. B．It’s white. C．It’s in the pencil-bx.
6．A．I dn’t knw. B．I’m fine. C．Yu are welcme.
第二节（每小题1.5分，共9分）
听一遍。根据你所听到的对话和问题，从A、B、C三个选项中选出正确答案，并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
7．A．/blu:/.B．/braʊn/.C．/blæk/.
8．A．Under the chair. B．On the chair. C．Behind the chair.
9．A．B．C．
10．A．Class 1.B．Class 2.C．Class 3.
11．A．Bill. B．Miller. C．Smith.
12．A．He’s 12.B．He’s 13.C．He’s 14.
第三节（每小题1.5分，共6分）
听两遍。根据你所听到的长对话，从A、B、C三个选项中选出正确答案，并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
听第一段材料，回答第13和14小题。
13．Wh has a new pencil bx?
A．Cc. B．Yaming. C．Tengfei.
14．Hw many pencils are in the pencil bx?
A．2.B．3.C．4.
听第二段材料，回答第15和16小题。
15．Where may the tw speakers （说话者） be?
A．At schl. B．At hme. C．At a shp.
16．What des the by have in his schlbag?
A．A pen. B．A key. C．An eraser.
第四节（每小题1.5分，共6分）
听两遍。根据你所听到的短文内容，从A、B、C三个选项中选出正确答案，并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
17．The farm is ______.
A．small and beautiful B．big and beautiful C．big and tidy
18．In the mrning, the speaker gives fd t ______.
A．the pigs and hrses B．the cws and pigs C．the hrses and the cws
19．The speaker has ______ ducks.
A．seven B．fifteen C．twenty
20．We can see ______ behind the tree.
A．a small lake B．sme grass C．a red huse
Ⅱ．语法填空。（每小题1分，共10分）
根据短文内容，从A、B、C三个选项中选出一个语法正确的答案，并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
Lk! This is my 21 farm. It is big 22 beautiful. There are 23 animals n it. Thse 24 ten pigs. They’re eating （吃） nw. There are tw dgs. They are very clever （聪明的）, and 25 can help （帮助） my uncle a lt. What are 26 animals? They are cws. They are black and white. They are eating grass. Lk 27 the chickens ver there. 28 chickens can yu see? There are five baby chickens and a hen （母鸡）. 29 rabbits are eating carrts. Lk here! The 30 are in the lake. Welcme t the farm.
21．A．uncles B．uncle C．uncle’s
22．A．and B．but C．s
23．A．much B．many C．any
24．A．am B．is C．are
25．A．they B．them C．their
26．A．these B．this C．that
27．A．in B．at C．n
28．A．What B．Where C．Hw many
29．A．A B．An C．The
30．A．gse B．geese C．gses
Ⅲ．选出下列各小题划线部分发音与其他不同的一项。（每小题1分，共6分）
31．A．hme B．clse C．rse D．ht
32．A．time B．rice C．like D．pig
33．A．bus B．run C．cute D．up
34．A．game B．cat C．late D．take
35．A．bed B．we C．she D．these
36．A．class B．circle C．carrt D．cunt
Ⅳ．完形填空。（每小题1.5分，共15分）
根据短文内容，从A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个能填入相应空格内的最佳答案，并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
Hi, my name is Tm Smith. Tm is my 37 name. I’m 12 years ld. Nw I live in 38 with my parents and I’m a student in Shanghai. I’m 39 here, s I dn’t have many friends. Can yu be my friend?
My favrite sprt is 40 , s I ften play tennis with my parents. I have a friend. His name is Peter. He is 41 the UK. He is als my classmate. We are 42 in Class 7. Peter and I have 43 interest （兴趣）. We like music 44 . Peter can play the guitar and I can play the pian. We ften 45 them tgether （一起）. I have 46 friend. She is a girl and her name is Sally. She lives in Australia.
37．A．first B．last C．full D．family
38．A．the US B．the UK C．Singapre D．China
39．A．ld B．new C．fun D．great
40．A．ftball B．tennis C．basketball D．pingpng
41．A．in B．behind C．frm D．under
42．A．bth B．als C．even D．all
43．A．different B．same C．the same D．sme
44．A．very B．much C．a lt D．lt
45．A．put B．play C．plant D．pst
46．A．ther B．the ther C．thers D．anther
Ⅴ．阅读理解。（47-49小题，每小题1分，50-65小题，每小题2分，共35分）
阅读下列材料，从A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳答案，并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
A
Fur Farms in Sunshine Twn （阳光小镇）
47．______ has plants and animals n the farm.
A．Henry B．Julia C．Rbert D．Mary
48．T buy （买） sme ducks and rabbits, yu can call ______.
A．328-5916 B．328-6843 C．328-5166 D．328-7856
49．We can g t ______ farm t buy sme apples.
A．Rbert’s B．Julia’s C．Mary’s D．Henry’s
B
50．Amy ______ after class every day.
A．sings at hme B．sings with friends
C．studies singing in an art schl D．ges t the singing club
51．What des the underlined wrd “it” in paragraph 3 （第三段） refer t （指代）?
A．playing cmputer games B．playing games with friends
C．playing ftball D．studying well
52．What des Mike want t d?
A．He wants t teach thers t play ftball. B．He wants t watch ftball games n TV.
C．He wants t play ftball fr his cuntry. D．He wants t be a ftball player in his schl.
53．What may Chen Jie d later n （稍后）?
A．She may nt study again. B．She may help thers t play cmputer games.
C．She may study hard （努力地）. D．She may nt like ding her hmewrk.
C
My name is Alice. I dn’t like having cffee （咖啡）, but I lve making cffee. I can use the cffee maker （煮咖啡器）. It is easy fr me. In the mrning, I use the cffee maker at hme t make a cup f white cffee fr my mm. My mm likes having milk in her cffee. She has tw white cffees in the mrning and ne in the afternn every day. Then I use the cffee maker t make a cup f black cffee fr my dad. My dad desn’t like having milk in his cffee. He likes ht black cffee. He has a cup f ht black cffee every mrning. He desn’t like iced （冰的） cffee. My mm and dad d many things fr me. S I make cffee fr them t thank them. We’re a very happy family.
54．Hw many cffees des Alice’s mm have every day?
A．1 B．2 C．3 D．4
55．What cffee des Alice’s dad like?
A．White cffee B．Black cffee C．Iced cffee D．Milk cffee
56．Why （为什么） des Alice make cffee fr Mm and Dad?
A．T thank them B．T make them like her
C．T say srry t them D．T make them help her
57．Frm the passage （文章） we can infer （推断）______.
A．Alice and her parents like cffee very much.
B．Making cffee isn’t easy fr Alice.
C．Alice’s dad has a cup f ht black cffee every mrning.
D．Alice lves her parents very much.
D
On Friday afternn, Tm meets his gd friend Jack and says, “Jack, can yu cme t my hme after schl? I want yu t meet my cusin （表弟）. He lves the same ball game as yu.” Jack says happily, “Sure.”
When they get t Tm’s hme, it’s abut 5:45 p. m. Tm’s cusin Jim is in the living rm （客厅） watching a basketball game n TV. Tm says t him, “Jim, this is my gd friend Jack.”
Jim says t Jack, “Hi, Jack! Nice t meet yu. I’m Jim.”
“Nice t meet yu t, Jim,” Jack says. “Yu knw what? I have a pen friend called Jim. He cmes frm Wuhan,” says Jack.
“Oh, really? What’s his last name?” asks Jim.
“Brwn.”
“Really? I am Jim Brwn and I cme frm Wuhan,” Jim says. “And I have a pen friend here. His name is Jack Miller. He lves playing basketball. His birthday is n 12th June.”
Hearing （听见） this, Tm says t Jack, “______ Yu are my gd friend. And yu are my cusin’s pen friend t.”
58．What des Jack g t Tm’s hme fr?
A．Meeting Tm’s cusin. B．Playing basketball.
C．Watching TV. D．Playing cmputer games.
59．Which f the fllwing （以下的） can we put in ______?
A．Oh, have a gd day!B．Oh, what a cincidence （巧合）!
C．Oh, what a mess （一团糟）! D．Oh, what gd friends!
60．Which f the fllwing is true （符合事实的）?
A．①--gd friends; ②--cusins; ③--pen friends
B．①--pen friends; ②--cusins; ③--gd friends
C．①--cusins; ②--gd friends; ③--pen friends
D．①--gd friends; ②--pen friends; ③--cusins
61．What can we knw frm the passage?
A．Jim has a pen friend frm Wuhan. B．Jack sees Jim in the mrning.
C．Jack and Jim lve the same ball game. D．Jim’s birthday is n 12th June.
E
Jey has many animal friends ---fur squirrels （松鼠）, tw rabbits, and many clurful birds. They like playing in the big yard behind Jey’s huse.
One day, Jey finds ne f the trees in the yard is nt happy. He asks, “Why are yu unhappy?”
“I’m t small. N ne （没有人） needs me r lves me,” the tree says.
That evening, Jey and his parents have a meeting. Jey says he can make sme seats under the small tree. Peple can sit n them under the tree. Jey’s dad says he can help and he starts t make the seats.
When Jey’s animal friends knw that, they want t help the small tree t.
Early the next mrning, when Jey gets up, he sees birds sitting in the small tree, squirrels running up and dwn in it, and rabbits eating grass under the tree. The small tree is happy nw.
62．The small tree is nt happy because （因为）______.
A．Jey desn’t sit n it B．it thinks n ne likes it
C．It is the nly （唯一的） tree in the yard D．it desn’t like its clur
63．What is the crrect rder （正确的顺序）?
①Jey’s dad starts t make the seats. ②The rabbits eat grass under the small tree.
③Jey has a meeting with his parents. ④Jey finds the tree is unhappy.
A．①④③② B．②①④③ C．③④②① D．④③①②
64．What des the underlined wrd “seat” mean （意思是） in the passage?
A．A seat is a part （部分） f a tree. B．A seat is a kind f plant.
C．A seat is a thing that yu can sit n. D．A seat is a kind f animal.
65．What is the main idea （主题） f the passage?.
A．Jey’s friends live in the yard. B．Jey has a gd dad.
C．Jey with his parents and friends helps the tree. D．A tree in the yard is small and unhappy.
第Ⅱ卷（共54分）
Ⅵ．口语应用。（每小题1分，共5分）
阅读下面对话，从方框内7个选项中选出5个恰当的句子完成此对话，并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
A: Gd mrning, Mr Yang!
B: Gd mrning! 66
A: N, Mr Yang. I’m Lisa.
B: Srry, Lisa. Hw ld are yu?
A: 67
B: Where are yu frm?
A: 68 G. I’m in Class 4, Grade 7.
B: Ww, that’s far. What class are yu in?
A: 69
B: Well, Lisa. 70
A: Nice t meet yu t.
A．Nice t meet yu.
B．Lndn.
C．Hw d yu spell yur name?
D．I’m twelve years ld.
E．Are yu Pauline?
F．Yu are welcme.
Ⅶ．任务型阅读。（71-73题，每小题2分，74题3分，共9分）
Wu Zeyin, 11, cmes frm Hubei, China. He ges t Btswana with his family and finds that many vegetables （蔬菜） there are very small. And sme f them are nt gd. The carrts are small and the tmates are green. But they are expensive （昂贵的）. And he knws that Btswana needs t buy many vegetables frm ther cuntries t meet the needs f its peple. Wu wants t d smething t help.
He makes an app fr the farmers. It’s called Farm Assistant. With the app, the farmers can knw the infrmatin f many kinds f vegetables, like their planting time and watering needs.
Wu says, “It’s better t teach peple t fish than t give him fish.”
71．Is Wu Zeyin frm Chngqing?
72．What des Btswana need t buy frm ther cuntries?
73．Hw des Wu help the farmers in Btswana?
74．D yu think Wu Zeyin is kind? Why?
______. Because ______
Ⅷ．完成句子。（每空1分，共10分）
根据所给提示，完成句子。每空一词，含缩略词。
75．This is my grandpa’s farm. （改为一般疑问句）
______ ______ yur grandpa’s farm?
76．Grace and her parents live in Sydney, Australia. （改为同义句）
Grace ______ her parents ______ in Sydney, Australia.
77．Mr Wang is ur English teacher. （对划线部分提问）
______ ______ English teacher?
78．付星想与宋梅梅交朋友。（完成译句）
Fu Xing wants t ______ ______ with Sng Meimei.
79．are, the desk, my, n, pencils. （连词成句）
____________________________________________________________________________________________
Ⅸ．词汇运用。（每空1分，共10分）
根据所给提示，用单词的适当形式填空。
80．He ften makes a ______ (/mɪ'steIk/) in his hmewrk.
81．______ (/i:tʃ/) f the teachers in ur class is kind t us.
82．Students in my class have different ______ (hbby).
83．A pair f scks ______ (be) under the bed.
84．______ (he) favrite place is the Great Wall.
85．My friend Xia Hng can’t ______ (find) her bicycle.
86．Sherry ______ (like) Chinese fd very much.
87．I wuld like ______ (meet) friends frm different cuntries in the wrld.
88．Mr Brwn has a big farm. There are ten ______ (sheep) n the farm.
89．Everyne in ur class is happy t help thers. S ur class ______ (be) like （像）a big family.
Ⅹ．书面表达（满分20分）
假设你刚搬进新居，你很开心有了属于自己的房间，并想与你的外国笔友Tm一起分享这份快乐。下面是一张你房间的图片，请你根据图片及提示问题写一篇小短文，向Tm介绍一下你的房间。
提示问题：1．What’s in yur rm? What d yu have?
2．Where d yu put yur things?
3．What d yu think f yur rm? （你认为你的房间怎么样）
要求：1．按照一定的空间顺序（由近及远、从左到右等），介绍房间里的物品及位置；
2．恰当使用连词and使内容衔接紧密；
3．正确使用方位介词，房间内物品名词的单复数形式；
4．40词左右，开头已给出，不计入总词数。
参考词汇：cmputer n.电脑，lamp n. 台灯
Hell, everyne. This is a picture f my rm.
____________________________________________________________________________________________
重庆市凤鸣山中学教育集团校2024—2025学年度上期
2024级英语学科半期考试试题
听力原文
第一节（每小题1.5分，共9分）
听一遍。根据你所听到的句子，从A、B、C三个选项中选出最恰当的答语，并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
1．Gd mrning!
2．Where are yu frm?
3．Are yu in Grade seven?
4．Hw d yu spell it?
5．What’s this?
6．Thank yu fr helping me, Helen.
第二节（每小题1.5分，共9分）
听一遍。根据你所听到的对话和问题，从A、B、C三个选项中选出正确答案，并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
7．W: What clr is yur bicycle, Tm?
M: It’s black.
Q: What clr is Tm’s bicycle?
8．W: D yu see my eraser, Tengfei? I can’t find it.
M: N, Fu Xing. I dn’t see it. Oh, wait a minute. It’s under the chair.
Q: Where is Fu Xing’s eraser?
9．W: What animal des yur grandpa have n the farm, David?
M: He has cws and chickens.
Q: What animal des David’s grandpa have n the farm?
10．M: I’m in Class 2. Anne, what class are yu in?
W: Oh, we are in the same class.
Q: What class is Anne in?
11．M: Wh is yur English teacher, Emma?
W: Bill Miller. Oh, n, Bill Smith.
Q: What is the English teacher’s last name?
12．W: Hw ld are yu, Peter?
M: I’m 12 years ld.
Q: Hw ld is Peter?
第三节（每小题1.5分，共6分）
听两遍。根据你所听到的长对话，从A、B、C三个选项中选出正确答案，并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
听第一段材料，回答第13和14小题。
M: Gd mrning, Cc!
W: Gd mrning, Yaming!
M: Ww, the pencil bx is s beautiful. Is it new?
W: Yes. My mm buys it fr me.
M: What are in yur pencil bx?
W: There are three pencils, an eraser and a ruler.
听第二段材料，回答第15和16小题。
W: Gd mrning, dear. Are yu happy n yur first day at schl?
M: Yes, Mm!
W: Is everything in yur schlbag?
M: Yes, I have a pencil, an eraser and a bk.
W: Gd. D yu have yur cap?
M: Yes, it’s in my bag.
W: D yu have yur lunch bx?
M: I will d it nw. Thanks, Mm!
第四节（每小题1.5分，共6分）
听两遍。根据你所听到的短文内容，从A、B、C三个选项中选出正确答案，并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
Welcme t my farm! It is very big and beautiful. I have many animals here. In the mrning, I give fd t the pigs and hrses. The cws are black and white, and I have seven cws. They give me milk every day. The sheep are white, and I have twenty sheep. They like t eat grass. The ducks swim in a small lake. I have fifteen ducks, and they lve the water. Behind the big tree, yu can see my red huse. I lve my farm. It’s a fun place t visit.
参考答案
I．听力测试（每小题1.5分，共30分）
1-6 AACBAC 7-12 CACBCA 13-16 ABBC 17-20 BABC
II．语法填空（每小题1分，共10分）
21-25CABCA 26-30 ABCCB
III．语音题（每小题1分，共6分）
31-36 DDCBAB
IV．完形填空（每小题1.5分，共15分）
37-41 ADBBC 42-46 ACCBD
V．阅读理解（47-49小题，每小题1分，50-65小题，每小题2分，共35分）
47-49 CDB 50-53 DACC 54-57 CBAD 58-61 ABAC 62-65 BDCC
VI．口语运用（每小题1分，共5分）
66-70 EDBGA
VII．任务型阅读（71-73每小题2分，74题3分，共9分）
71．N./N, he isn’t.
72．Vegetables./Many vegetables.
73．He make an app fr the farmers.
74．One Pssible versin: Yes. Because he helps the farmers in Btswana. （回答Yes1分，语法1分，理由1分） (⾔之有理即可）
VIII．完成句子。（每空1分，共10分）
75．Is, this 76．with, lives 77．Wh’s yur 78．make friends
79．My pencils are n the desk. （若句子顺序正确，单词写错一个或者首字母没大写或者标点符号不对扣0.5分，若句子顺序不对不给分）
IX．词汇运用
80．mistake 81．Each 82．hbbies 83．is 84．His
85．find 86．likes 87．t meet 88．sheep 89．is
X．书面表达。（满分20分）
One Pssible versin:
Hell, everyne. This is a picture f my rm. A bed, a desk and a chair are in the rm. Lk at the schlbag. It’s green. It’s n the bed. My bks, pencil bx, cap and three keys are in the schlbag. I have a blue bttle. It’s n the desk. My cmputer and lamp are n the desk t. Can yu see a basketball? It’s under the desk
My rm is nt big but very tidy. I like my rm very much.
评分总则：
1. 本题总分为20分，按各档次打分。
2. 评分时，先根据文章的内容和结构初步确定所属档次，再根据语言酌情打分。
给分范围和要求：
Name: Rbert
Telephne number （电话号码）: 328-6843
Plants: Ptat plants and tmat plants Animals: Eleven cws, hrses (three are brwn and fur are white.)
Name: Mary
Telephne number: 328-7856
Animals: Thirteen ducks, three pigs, ten rabbits, and furteen baby chickens
Name: Julia
Telephne number: 328-5916
Plants: Flwers, carrt plants, and twenty apple trees
Name: Henry
Telephne number: 328-5166
Animals: Fifteen pigs, twelve cws, and many chickens
I’m Amy. I am 12 years ld. I like singing and I jin （加入） ur schl’s singing club. I g there after class every day. I study singing in an art schl t. I study there fr tw hurs every Saturday.
I’m Mike. I ften watch ftball games n TV. I think playing ftball is very interesting （有趣的）. Then I start t like ftball. Nw I am a ftball player in ur schl. I want t play fr ur cuntry. I think I can.
My name is Chen Jie. I like playing cmputer games. My teachers and parents say, “It is bad fr yur study. Stp it at nce （立即）.” But I can’t. Nw I dn’t d well in my study. I feel regretful （后悔的）. And I dn’t want t play cmputer games again.
第五档（优秀）
（19—20分）
高水平完成了试题规定的任务
☆结构完整、条理清晰、逻辑严密、过渡自然
☆思想健康、符合题意、中心突出、内容充实
☆语言流畅、表达贴切、感情真挚、富有创意
第四档（良好）
（16—18分）
较好完成了试题规定的任
☆结构完整、条理分明、逻辑清晰、过渡自然
☆思想健康、符合题意、中心明确、内容充实
☆语言流畅、表达较贴切、感情真实
第三档（中等）
（13—15分）
基本完成了试题规定的任务
☆结构较完整、条例较分明、有一定逻辑性
☆思想健康、符合题意、中心明确、内容较为充实
☆较准确地使用语言、能清楚表达意思
第二档（较差）
（8—12分）
未恰当完成试题规定的任务
☆结构不完整、条例不分明、逻辑不严密
☆思想健康、中心较明确、内容不充实、不能完全满足写作任务的要求
☆语言不够连贯、错误较多、影响对写作内容的理解
第一档（差）
（0—7分）
未完成试题规定的任务
☆思想健康、内容严重缺失
☆语言错漏太多、无法传达有效信息、不能满足写作任务的要求
（与规定内容无关的抄袭或思想不健康，均为0分）